KPSC (Karnataka) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla's role on the Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) crew?
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Correct answer: B — Mission Pilot
The Science Ministry said Shukla will serve as Mission Pilot on Ax-4.
Who is the Commander of the Axiom Mission 4 crew that includes Shubhanshu Shukla?
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Correct answer: D — Peggy Whitson
The Commander is former NASA astronaut Peggy Whitson; Uznański-Wiśniewski and Kapu are Mission Specialists.
Who is the designated backup for Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla on Axiom Mission 4?
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Correct answer: A — Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair
The ministry named Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair as Shukla's designated backup.
Where was the High-Level International Conference on Glaciers' Preservation held from 29 to 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dushanbe, Tajikistan
The Environment Ministry said the conference was held in Dushanbe, Republic of Tajikistan.
Which Indian mission, highlighted at the Dushanbe glacier conference, is part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change?
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Correct answer: A — National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
The MoS highlighted India's actions under the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE), a key component of the NAPCC.
Who assumed office as Director General of Defence Estates on 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Shailendra Nath Gupta
The Ministry of Defence said Shailendra Nath Gupta, a 1990-batch IDES officer, assumed office on 31 May 2025.
How many Cantonment Boards does the Directorate General of Defence Estates operate through, as per the Defence Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — 61
DGDE operates under six commands, 38 Defence Estates Circles and 61 Cantonment Boards.
Approximately how much defence land is managed by the Directorate General of Defence Estates?
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Correct answer: C — 18 lakh acres
The ministry said DGDE manages approximately 18 lakh acres of defence land.
From which date did the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Experiential Learning Programme under 'Seva Se Seekhen' begin?
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Correct answer: D — 1 June 2025
The Youth Affairs Ministry said the programme would be launched from 1 June 2025.
What is the duration of the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Experiential Learning Programme for youth volunteers?
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Correct answer: B — 15 days
It is a 15-day experiential initiative placing five volunteers in five Jan Aushadhi Kendras per district.
Which field firing range did Army Chief General Upendra Dwivedi visit on 27 May 2025 to review the Capacity Development Demonstrations?
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Correct answer: C — Babina
The Ministry of Defence said the COAS visited Babina Field Firing Ranges on 27 May 2025.
The Army's Capacity Development Demonstrations of May 2025 are part of its roadmap called:
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Correct answer: A — Decade of Transformation
The release says the trials mark a significant step in the Army's roadmap for a 'Decade of Transformation'.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Army's Capacity Development Demonstrations announced on 31 May 2025: 1. Dedicated air defence equipment demonstrations were scheduled at Agra and Gopalpur. 2. The trials were conducted with electronic warfare simulations under near-combat conditions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Defence release.
As per the NSO's Provisional Estimates released on 30 May 2025, India's real GDP grew by how much in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 6.5%
Real GDP growth for 2024-25 was estimated at 6.5%; 9.8% was nominal GDP growth and 7.4% was Q4 real growth.
What was India's real GDP growth in the January–March quarter (Q4) of 2024-25, as per the NSO?
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Correct answer: D — 7.4%
The NSO estimated real GDP growth of 7.4% in Q4 of 2024-25; nominal growth was 10.8%.
Which sector recorded the highest growth rate (9.4%) in FY 2024-25 as per the Provisional Estimates?
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Correct answer: A — Construction
Construction was estimated to grow 9.4%, followed by Public Administration, Defence & Other Services (8.9%).
India's common compute capacity under the IndiaAI Mission crossed which mark, as announced on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 34,000 GPUs
MeitY said the national compute capacity had crossed 34,000 GPUs.
Which startup selected under the IndiaAI Mission in May 2025 will build a 14-billion-parameter voice AI foundation model?
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Correct answer: B — Gnani AI
Gnani AI will build the 14B voice AI model; Soket AI 120B and Gan AI 70B; Sarvam AI was selected earlier, in April.
According to MeitY, which startup will develop an open-source 120-billion-parameter foundation model optimised for India's linguistic diversity?
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Correct answer: D — Soket AI
MeitY said Soket AI will develop India's first open-source 120B-parameter foundation model optimised for linguistic diversity.
According to the provisional accounts for 2024-25, total receipts of the Government of India were what percentage of the revised estimates?
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Correct answer: A — 97.8%
Total receipts of ₹30,78,247 crore were 97.8% of RE 2024-25; 98.7% was the figure for total expenditure.
How much was transferred to state governments as devolution of share of taxes in 2024-25, as per the provisional accounts?
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Correct answer: C — ₹12,86,885 crore
₹12,86,885 crore was devolved to states. ₹10,52,007 crore was capital expenditure, ₹11,16,343 crore interest payments, and ₹24,98,885 crore net tax revenue.
What minimum qualifying service must a retired Central Government NPS subscriber have to claim additional UPS benefits, as per the Finance Ministry's May 2025 notice?
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Correct answer: A — 10 years
Subscribers who retired on or before 31 March 2025 with a minimum of 10 years of qualifying service are eligible.
What was the last date for retired Central Government NPS subscribers to claim additional UPS benefits, as per the notice of 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30 June 2025
The Finance Ministry gave 30 June 2025 as the last date to claim the benefits.
The National Florence Nightingale Award, presented on 30 May 2025, was instituted by which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
The President's Secretariat said the award was instituted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Where were the National Florence Nightingale Awards 2025 presented?
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Correct answer: B — Rashtrapati Bhavan
President Droupadi Murmu presented the awards at a function at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 30 May 2025.
Who launched the AyushSuraksha Portal on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Prataprao Jadhav
The Ministry of Ayush said MoS (IC) Prataprao Jadhav launched the portal at Ayush Bhawan.
The AyushSuraksha Portal launched in May 2025 is mainly meant to address:
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Correct answer: B — Misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions
It was launched to address misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions in the Ayush sector.
Which department released the DHRUVA policy document for a Digital Address DPI on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Posts
The Ministry of Communications said the Department of Posts released DHRUVA.
What concept lies at the core of the DHRUVA digital addressing policy?
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Correct answer: D — Address-as-a-Service (AaaS)
The release says Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) is at the core of DHRUVA.
On which date were the Terms of Reference for negotiating the India–Chile CEPA signed?
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Correct answer: C — 8 May 2025
The Commerce Ministry said the ToR were signed on 8 May 2025; the first round began on 26 May.
The launch of India–Chile CEPA negotiations was welcomed during the State Visit to India in April 2025 of which Chilean President?
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Correct answer: B — Gabriel Boric Font
The release says the launch was welcomed during the State Visit of President Gabriel Boric Font in April 2025.
Which three DPSUs were granted Miniratna status by the Defence Minister on 29 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — MIL, AVNL and IOL
Munitions India Ltd, Armoured Vehicles Nigam Ltd and India Optel Ltd were granted Miniratna status.
Which category of Miniratna status was granted to MIL, AVNL and IOL?
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Correct answer: D — Category-I
The Defence Ministry said the three DPSUs were granted Miniratna Category-I status.
Until when are the wheat stock limits imposed by the Centre in May 2025 applicable?
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Correct answer: B — 31 March 2026
The Food Ministry said the order is applicable until 31 March 2026 in all States and UTs.
What is the wheat stock limit for traders/wholesalers under the order of 27 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 3,000 MT
The stock limit for traders/wholesalers is 3,000 MT; retailers have 10 MT per outlet.
Consider the following statements about the wheat stock limits of May 2025: 1. Retailers may hold 10 MT of wheat for each retail outlet. 2. Processors may hold 50% of their monthly installed capacity multiplied by the remaining months of FY 2025-26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The processors' limit is 70% (not 50%) of monthly installed capacity times the remaining months of FY 2025-26.
Who led the Indian all-party parliamentary delegation that visited Colombia from 29 to 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Shashi Tharoor
The Colombia delegation was led by MP Shashi Tharoor, as per the Embassy of India in Bogotá.
With the vesting orders of 29 May 2025, for how many coal blocks have vesting/allocation orders been issued under commercial auctions?
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Correct answer: D — 116
The Coal Ministry said vesting/allocation orders have now been issued for 116 coal blocks under commercial auctions.
Which Coal India subsidiary became the first to secure a coal block through commercial auction, as noted by the Coal Ministry in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Western Coalfields Ltd
The ministry said Western Coalfields Ltd had, for the first time, secured a coal block through commercial auction.
Exercise Nomadic Elephant is a joint military exercise between India and:
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Correct answer: B — Mongolia
Nomadic Elephant is the India–Mongolia joint military exercise.
Which edition of Exercise Nomadic Elephant was held in Ulaanbaatar from 31 May to 13 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 17th
The Ministry of Defence said it was the 17th edition.
Where was the previous (July 2024) edition of Exercise Nomadic Elephant held?
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Correct answer: D — Umroi, Meghalaya
The previous edition was conducted at Umroi, Meghalaya, in July 2024.
Under the MHA decision of May 2025, which personnel of CAPFs and Assam Rifles will get an honorary rank one level higher on retirement?
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Correct answer: A — Constable to Sub-Inspector
The decision covers personnel below officer rank, from Constable to Sub-Inspector.
Consider the following statements about the honorary rank decision of May 2025: 1. It applies to the Assam Rifles as well as the CAPFs. 2. The honorary rank comes with additional pension benefits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct: the decision covers CAPFs and Assam Rifles, but the honorary rank carries no financial or pension benefits.
How many villages will be covered under Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 21,000
The Jal Shakti Ministry said SSG 2025 will cover 21,000 villages across 761 districts.
Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025 is conducted by which department?
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Correct answer: C — Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
SSG 2025 is a survey by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS), Ministry of Jal Shakti.
According to the Comprehensive Modular Survey: Telecom 2025, what share of Indian households possessed at least one smartphone?
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Correct answer: D — 85.5%
MoSPI found approximately 85.5% of households possessed at least one smartphone.
As per CMS: Telecom 2025, what percentage of rural persons aged 15–29 used mobile phones in the last three months?
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Correct answer: B — 96.8%
Rural mobile phone use in the 15–29 age group was about 96.8%; 97.6% was urban use and 92.7% rural internet use.
Among persons aged 15–29 able to perform online banking transactions, what share could do so through UPI, as per CMS: Telecom 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 99.5%
About 99.5% of such persons reported the ability to transact through UPI.
For how many kharif crops did the Cabinet approve increased MSPs for marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 14
The CCEA approved increased MSPs for 14 kharif crops.
Which kharif crop saw the highest absolute increase in MSP for marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Nigerseed
Nigerseed had the highest absolute increase (₹820 per quintal), followed by ragi (₹596), cotton (₹589) and sesamum (₹579).
What is the MSP of common paddy for kharif marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — ₹2,369 per quintal
Common paddy MSP is ₹2,369 per quintal (up from ₹2,300); ₹2,389 is Grade A paddy and ₹2,400 is maize.
What is India's foodgrain production for 2024-25 as per the Third Advance Estimates released on 28 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 3,539.59 lakh tonnes
Foodgrain production is estimated at a record 3,539.59 LMT; 3,322.98 LMT was the 2023-24 figure.
As per the Third Advance Estimates for 2024-25, India's rice production is estimated at:
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Correct answer: D — 1,490.74 LMT
Rice is estimated at 1,490.74 LMT (up from 1,378.25 LMT); 1,175.07 LMT is wheat.
From which date did the rules under the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act 2023 come into effect?
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Correct answer: D — 27 May 2025
The rules came into effect on 27 May 2025. The Act got assent on 15 August 2023 and came into force on 10 May 2024; ISOs were notified on 27 December 2024.
Under which section of the Inter-Services Organisations Act 2023 were the rules notified in May 2025 framed?
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Correct answer: B — Section 11
The Defence Ministry said the subordinate rules were framed under Section 11 of the Act.
Consider the following statements about the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act 2023: 1. It received the assent of the President on 15 August 2023. 2. It came into force with effect from 10 May 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Defence release.
What was India's IIP growth in April 2025 as per the quick estimate?
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Correct answer: C — 2.7%
IIP grew 2.7% in April 2025; 3.0% was March, 3.4% manufacturing and 1.1% electricity.
Under MoSPI's revised calendar announced in May 2025, the quick estimate of IIP is released on which day of every month?
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Correct answer: B — 28th
As per the revised calendar, the quick estimate of IIP is released on the 28th of every month (or the next working day if it is a holiday).
At what rate is interest subvention provided to lending institutions under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme continued for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 1.5%
The Cabinet continued MISS with the existing 1.5% interest subvention; 3% is the Prompt Repayment Incentive.
Under MISS, what is the effective interest rate on KCC loans for farmers who repay promptly?
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Correct answer: A — 4%
Loans are at 7%; a Prompt Repayment Incentive of up to 3% brings the effective rate to 4%.
Consider the following statements about the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme: 1. Farmers can get short-term loans of up to ₹3 lakh through KCC at a subsidised rate. 2. For loans taken exclusively for animal husbandry or fisheries, the interest benefit applies up to ₹2 lakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release.
Which ASEAN official did the Indian multi-party delegation meet in Jakarta on 28 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Kao Kim Hourn, ASEAN Secretary-General
The Embassy of India, Jakarta, said the delegation met ASEAN Secretary-General Dr Kao Kim Hourn. Arief Havas Oegroseno is Indonesia's Vice Minister of Foreign Affairs.
Who led the Indian multi-party parliamentary delegation that visited Indonesia from 28 to 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sanjay Kumar Jha
The Embassy of India, Jakarta, said the delegation was led by MP Sanjay Kumar Jha.
In Riyadh on 28 May 2025, the Indian all-party delegation held discussions with Saudi Arabia's Minister of State for Foreign Affairs. Who is he?
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Correct answer: C — Adel bin Ahmed al-Jubeir
The Embassy of India, Riyadh, said the delegation met Minister of State for Foreign Affairs Adel bin Ahmed al-Jubeir. Mishaal Al-Sulami is Deputy Speaker of the Shura Council.
How many parts does UPSC's new Online Application Portal, announced on 28 May 2025, have?
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Correct answer: B — Four
UPSC said the portal has four parts arranged in four cards: Account Creation, Universal Registration, Common Application Form and Examination.
Consider the following statements about UPSC's new Online Application Portal: 1. The old One Time Registration (OTR) module will not be applicable. 2. Examination-specific details must be filled in only during the period allowed in the examination notification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the OTR module no longer applies, and only exam-specific information is filled in during the notified period.
At the PRAGATI meeting of 28 May 2025, the PM reviewed three infrastructure projects with a cumulative cost of:
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Correct answer: D — Over ₹62,000 crore
The PMO said three projects with a cumulative cost of over ₹62,000 crore were reviewed.
At the May 2025 PRAGATI meeting, the PM asked state governments to ensure mandatory registration of eligible real estate projects under:
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Correct answer: A — RERA
He asked states to ensure mandatory registration of all eligible real estate projects under RERA.
In its updated forecast of May 2025, what did IMD forecast for the 2025 southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall over the country as a whole?
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Correct answer: C — 106% of LPA
IMD forecast 106% of the Long Period Average with a model error of ±4%.
According to IMD's updated 2025 monsoon forecast, which region is likely to receive below-normal rainfall?
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Correct answer: A — Northeast India
Northeast India is likely to get below-normal rain (<94% of LPA); Central India and the South Peninsula above normal; Northwest India normal.
Consider the following statements about IMD's updated 2025 southwest monsoon forecast: 1. The Monsoon Core Zone is forecast to receive above-normal rainfall. 2. Northwest India is expected to receive normal rainfall in the range of 92–108% of LPA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Monsoon Core Zone is forecast above normal and Northwest India normal (92–108% of LPA).