IBPS RRB Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Mount Everest expedition flagged off on 26 March 2025 commemorates 60 years of which institute?
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Correct answer: C — Nehru Institute of Mountaineering, Uttarkashi
The Everest expedition marks 60 years of the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering (NIM), Uttarkashi.
The Mount Kangchenjunga expedition flagged off on 26 March 2025 is organised by NIMAS, which is located at:
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Correct answer: D — Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh
NIMAS, the National Institute of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports, is at Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh; the expedition is under 'Har Shikhar Tiranga'.
National Highways Infra Trust (NHIT), which completed a record fund-raising round announced on 26 March 2025, is an InvIT set up by:
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Correct answer: C — NHAI
NHIT is the Infrastructure Investment Trust set up by NHAI in 2020 to support the government's monetisation programme.
What was the approximate enterprise value of NHIT's fourth fund-raising round, announced on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹18,380 crore
The fourth round was at an enterprise value of about ₹18,380 crore; ₹46,000 crore is the total across four rounds.
Which of the following highway stretches is among those to be acquired with funds from NHIT's fourth round, announced on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gandhidham–Mundra
The stretches include Gandhidham–Mundra (Gujarat) and Raipur–Bilaspur (Chhattisgarh), along with stretches in Andhra Pradesh and UP/Uttarakhand.
Which components of the Gold Monetisation Scheme were discontinued with effect from 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposits
The Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposit (MLTGD) components were discontinued; the Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at banks' discretion.
After the March 2025 changes to the Gold Monetisation Scheme, what happens to the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years)?
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Correct answer: D — It continues at the discretion of individual banks based on commercial viability
The Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at the discretion of individual banks, based on their assessment of commercial viability.
What happens to gold already deposited under the Medium and Long Term Government Deposit components of the GMS, after they were discontinued in March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — It continues until redemption as per existing guidelines
Existing deposits under MLTGD continue until redemption as per the extant GMS guidelines.
Consider the following statements about the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS): 1. The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce India's reliance on gold imports in the long run. 2. Under the GMS, the Long Term Government Deposit had a tenure of 12–15 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce reliance on gold imports and mobilise household and institutional gold. Its components were the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years), Medium Term Government Deposit (5–7 years) and Long Term Government Deposit (12–15 years).
Which House passed the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 on 25 March 2025, completing its passage through Parliament?
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Correct answer: A — Rajya Sabha
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 25 March 2025 after Home Minister Amit Shah's reply, completing its passage through Parliament.
The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament in March 2025, enables state governments to set up which new body?
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Correct answer: D — Urban Disaster Management Authority
The Bill enables Urban Disaster Management Authorities, fully under state governments, for state capitals and cities with municipal corporations.
According to Amit Shah's reply in the Rajya Sabha on 25 March 2025, at which levels will the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill create disaster databases?
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Correct answer: A — National and state levels
Amit Shah said the Bill would create disaster databases at the national and state levels.
Consider the following statements about the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament on 25 March 2025: 1. It gives statutory status to the National Crisis Management Committee, which is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. 2. It gives statutory status to the High Level Committee, which is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Per PRS, the NCMC is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. The HLC, which approves financial assistance to states, is chaired by the minister in charge of the ministry with administrative control over disaster management, not the Prime Minister.
How many government amendments were included in the Finance Bill, 2025 when the Lok Sabha passed it on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 35
The Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill, 2025 with 35 government amendments.
One of the amendments to the Finance Bill, 2025, passed by the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025, abolished which levy?
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Correct answer: D — 6% equalisation levy on online advertisements
An amendment abolished the 6% equalisation levy on online advertisements, popularly called the 'Google tax'.
What total expenditure does the Union Budget 2025-26 envisage, as reported when the Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹50.65 lakh crore
The Union Budget 2025-26 envisages total expenditure of ₹50.65 lakh crore, an increase of 7.4% over the current fiscal.
India and Singapore signed a Letter of Intent on 25 March 2025 to work towards which corridor?
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Correct answer: C — Green and Digital Shipping Corridor
The LOI on maritime digitalisation and decarbonisation is a step towards an MoU on a Singapore-India Green and Digital Shipping Corridor (GDSC).
Which Singapore body's chief executive signed the India–Singapore Letter of Intent on green and digital shipping on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore
The LOI was signed by R Lakshmanan, Joint Secretary, MoPSW, and Teo Eng Dih, Chief Executive of the Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore.
The Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025, repeals a law from which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1923
The Boilers Bill, 2024 repeals the Boilers Act, 1923.
Under the Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha in March 2025, how many of the seven offences in the law retain criminal penalties?
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Correct answer: B — Four
Criminal penalties are retained for four major offences that may cause loss of life and property; the other three are decriminalised.
Consider the following statements about the Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025: 1. The Bill had already been passed by the Rajya Sabha on 4 December 2024. 2. Its decriminalisation provisions are in line with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 4 December 2024. The review incorporated decriminalised provisions in consonance with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023.
What was the theme of World TB Day 2025, observed on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Yes! We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, Deliver
The theme of World TB Day 2025 was 'Yes! We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, Deliver'.
How many people were screened for TB during the 100-day intensified TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, as announced on World TB Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 12.97 crore
12.97 crore people were screened and 7.19 lakh TB patients notified, about 2.85 lakh of them asymptomatic.
According to Health Minister J.P. Nadda on 24 March 2025, TB treatment coverage in India has risen from 59% to what level?
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Correct answer: C — 85%
Nadda said TB treatment coverage in India had increased from 59% to 85%.
Consider the following statements about World TB Day: 1. It marks the discovery of the TB-causing bacterium by Dr. Robert Koch in 1882. 2. India has been observing the day since 1982. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
World TB Day, observed on 24 March, marks Robert Koch's discovery of the TB bacterium in 1882. India has observed it since 1982 along with the global community.
What is the revised monthly salary of a Member of Parliament under the notification of 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1.24 lakh
An MP's monthly salary was raised from ₹1 lakh to ₹1.24 lakh, a 24% increase, with effect from 1 April 2023.
From which date does the hike in MPs' salary and pension, notified on 24 March 2025, take effect?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 2023
The revision was notified with retrospective effect from 1 April 2023.
Under the March 2025 revision, the monthly pension of former MPs was raised from ₹25,000 to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹31,000
The pension for former MPs rose from ₹25,000 to ₹31,000 a month; additional pension per year beyond five years rose from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500.
Consider the following statements about the revision of MPs' salaries notified on 24 March 2025: 1. It was made under the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954. 2. The increase was linked to the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The revision was notified under the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954, on the basis of the Cost Inflation Index specified in the Income-tax Act, 1961, not the CPI for Industrial Workers.
Which Indian naval ship was named for the maiden IOS SAGAR deployment announced on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — INS Sunayna
INS Sunayna was to deploy to the Southwest Indian Ocean with a combined crew from India and nine friendly foreign countries.
With which country's defence force was the maiden AIKEYME exercise to be co-hosted, as announced by the Indian Navy in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tanzania
AIKEYME was to be co-hosted by the Indian Navy and the Tanzania People's Defence Force at and off Dar-es-Salaam.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Navy's initiatives announced on 24 March 2025: 1. 'AIKEYME' means 'unity' in Sanskrit. 2. The IOS SAGAR crew was to include personnel from nine friendly foreign countries, including Sri Lanka and Maldives. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
AIKEYME (Africa India Key Maritime Engagement) means 'unity' in Sanskrit. IOS SAGAR's combined crew was to include personnel from Comoros, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Sri Lanka and South Africa.
How many coal mines were successfully auctioned in the 11th round of commercial coal mine auctions, as announced on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Twelve
Twelve mines (eight fully explored and four partially explored) were auctioned.
What was the average revenue share achieved in the 11th round of commercial coal mine auctions (results announced March 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — 36.27%
The auctions achieved an average revenue share of 36.27%.
In the 11th round of commercial coal mine auctions, the Banai & Bhalumunda mines, won by Jindal Power, are in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Chhattisgarh
Banai & Bhalumunda in Chhattisgarh, with a peak rated capacity of 12 MTPA, went to Jindal Power at a 48% final offer.
Genome sequencing of how many Mycobacterium tuberculosis isolates was announced as completed on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 10,000
Dr. Jitendra Singh announced the completion of genome sequencing of 10,000 isolates; the programme's target is over 32,000.
The sequencing of 10,000 TB bacterium genomes, announced in March 2025, is part of which programme?
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Correct answer: B — Dare2eraD TB
The work is part of the Dare2eraD TB (Data Driven Research to Eradicate TB) programme launched on 24 March 2022.
Which three bodies lead the Indian Tuberculosis Genomic Surveillance (InTGS) Consortium, as described on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — DBT, CSIR and ICMR
The InTGS Consortium is spearheaded by the Department of Biotechnology, CSIR and ICMR, with major clinical institutions.
How many new establishments were registered under the ESI Scheme in January 2025, as per ESIC's payroll data released on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 27,805
27,805 new establishments were registered in January 2025, along with 18.19 lakh new employees.
For which date did Canadian Prime Minister Mark Carney call a snap general election on 23 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 28 April 2025
Carney called the election for 28 April 2025; it had not been due until October.
Who dissolved Canada's 44th Parliament on 23 March 2025 on the advice of Prime Minister Mark Carney?
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Correct answer: B — Governor General Mary Simon
Governor General Mary Simon approved Carney's advice and issued proclamations dissolving Parliament and ordering election writs.
How many seats in Canada's House of Commons were up for election in the vote called on 23 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 343
AP reported that the 37-day campaign was for 343 seats in the House of Commons.
What was the theme of World Meteorological Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Closing the Early Warning Gap Together
The theme for World Meteorological Day 2025 was 'Closing the Early Warning Gap Together'.
By when does the UN's Early Warnings for All initiative, the focus of World Meteorological Day 2025, aim to cover everyone with early warning systems?
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Correct answer: D — End of 2027
Early Warnings for All seeks to ensure everyone, everywhere is covered by early warning systems by the end of 2027.
Consider the following statements about World Meteorological Day: 1. It commemorates the coming into force of the Convention establishing the WMO on 23 March 1950. 2. In 2025, the WMO marked its 50th anniversary. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The day marks the WMO Convention coming into force on 23 March 1950. 2025 was the WMO's 75th anniversary, not its 50th.
Consider the following statements about the UN's Early Warnings for All initiative, the focus of World Meteorological Day 2025: 1. It was announced by UN Secretary-General António Guterres on World Meteorological Day, 23 March 2022. 2. As of 2024, 108 countries reported some capacity for multi-hazard early warning systems, more than double the 52 countries in 2015. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The WMO President's statement says Guterres announced the commitment on World Meteorological Day, 23 March 2022, and WMO reported that as of 2024, 108 countries had some multi-hazard early warning capacity, more than double the 52 in 2015.
From which date did the Centre withdraw the 20% export duty on onions, as notified on 22 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2025
The notification issued on 22 March 2025 made the onion export duty nil with effect from 1 April 2025.
Since when had the 20% export duty on onions, withdrawn in March 2025, been in force?
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Correct answer: C — 13 September 2024
The 20% duty had been in place from 13 September 2024. Exports were prohibited earlier, from 8 December 2023 to 3 May 2024.
What was the estimated rabi onion production for 2025, cited when the onion export duty was withdrawn in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 227 lakh tonnes
Rabi production was estimated at 227 lakh metric tonnes, over 18% higher than 192 LMT the previous year.
Consider the following statements about the withdrawal of the onion export duty in March 2025: 1. It was done through a notification issued under Section 25(1) of the Customs Act, 1962. 2. The notification was issued by the Department of Commerce. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Notification No. 19/2025-Customs was issued by the Department of Revenue (Ministry of Finance) under Section 25(1) of the Customs Act, 1962, on the communication of the Department of Consumer Affairs.
Who was elected Chairman of INTACH on 22 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ashok Singh Thakur
Ashok Singh Thakur was elected INTACH Chairman for three years at the AGM on 22 March 2025.
Consider the following statements about INTACH, whose new Chairman was elected in March 2025: 1. It was formally constituted on 27 January 1984. 2. It is a statutory body set up under an Act of Parliament. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
INTACH was formally constituted on 27 January 1984. It is a society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, not a statutory body.
How many websites/URLs of offshore online money gaming entities had DGGI blocked, as stated on 22 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 357
DGGI said 357 websites/URLs of illegal or non-compliant offshore online money gaming entities had been blocked; about 700 entities were under its scanner.
Under which provision were offshore online money gaming websites blocked in coordination with MeitY, as reported by DGGI in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000
The 357 websites/URLs were blocked in coordination with MeitY under Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000.
According to the India Bioeconomy Report 2025, released on 21 March 2025, what was the size of India's bioeconomy in 2024?
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Correct answer: B — $165.7 billion
IBER 2025 put India's bioeconomy at $165.7 billion in 2024, up from $10 billion in 2014.
What share of India's GDP did the bioeconomy contribute, as per the India Bioeconomy Report 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 4.25%
IBER 2025 says the bioeconomy contributes 4.25% to India's GDP.
What is 'BioSaarthi', launched by Dr Jitendra Singh on 21 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — A global mentorship initiative for biotech startups
BioSaarthi is a six-month cohort-based global mentorship initiative for biotech startups, engaging overseas experts, especially from the Indian diaspora.
How many biotech startups does India have, as cited at the release of the India Bioeconomy Report 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 10,075
The Minister said biotech startups have grown from about 50 a decade ago to over 10,075.
Consider the following statements about the India Bioeconomy Report 2025: 1. India's bioeconomy surpassed the target of $150 billion set for 2025. 2. The bioeconomy grew at a CAGR of 17.9% over the past four years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
IBER 2025 says the bioeconomy reached $165.7 billion in 2024, surpassing the $150 billion target for 2025, with a CAGR of 17.9% over the past four years.
With which department did Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff sign an MoU on defence R&D on 21 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Department of Science and Technology
HQ IDS signed the MoU with the Department of Science and Technology (DST) to strengthen defence research and development.
Who was the Chief of Integrated Defence Staff present at the signing of the HQ IDS–DST MoU on 21 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Lt Gen JP Mathew
The MoU was signed in the presence of Chief of Integrated Defence Staff Lt Gen JP Mathew. V Adm Sanjay Vatsayan, Deputy Chief, signed it for HQ IDS.
What cash amount does the Sahitya Akademi Translation Prize 2024, announced in March 2025, carry?
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Correct answer: A — ₹50,000
The Translation Prize carries ₹50,000 and a copper plaque.
Who chaired the Sahitya Akademi Executive Board meeting that approved the Translation Prize 2024 in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Madhav Kaushik
The Executive Board met under the chairmanship of Sahitya Akademi President Madhav Kaushik.
What was the theme of the International Day of Forests 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Forests and Foods
The 2025 theme was 'Forests and Foods', highlighting forests' role in food security, nutrition and livelihoods.
On which date was the first-ever World Day for Glaciers observed in 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 21 March
The first World Day for Glaciers was observed on 21 March 2025, the eve of World Water Day.
Consider the following statements about the International Day of Forests: 1. It was proclaimed by the UN General Assembly in 2012. 2. Its annual theme is chosen by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The UN General Assembly proclaimed 21 March as the International Day of Forests in 2012. The annual theme is chosen by the Collaborative Partnership on Forests, not UNEP.
About how many standards had the Bureau of Indian Standards developed, as stated in March 2025 ahead of its Annual Programme for Standardisation 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Over 23,000
BIS said it has developed more than 23,000 standards.
What was India's rank in the World Happiness Report 2025, released on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 118th
India ranked 118th of 147 countries, up from 126th in 2024.
Which country was ranked the happiest in the World Happiness Report 2025, for the eighth year in a row?
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Correct answer: A — Finland
Finland led the ranking for the eighth consecutive year with an average score of 7.736.
What was the theme of the World Happiness Report 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Caring and sharing
The 2025 report focused on the impact of caring and sharing on people's happiness.
Consider the following statements about the World Happiness Report 2025: 1. It is published by the Wellbeing Research Centre at the University of Oxford, in partnership with Gallup and the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network. 2. It is released every year to mark World Mental Health Day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The report is published by Oxford's Wellbeing Research Centre with Gallup, the UN SDSN and an independent editorial board. It is released to mark the UN International Day of Happiness on 20 March, not World Mental Health Day (10 October).
On which date did India's coal production cross one billion tonnes in the financial year 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 20 March 2025
The Ministry of Coal said production crossed 1 BT on 20 March 2025.
What was India's total coal production in FY 2023-24, which was surpassed in March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 997.83 MT
The 1 BT milestone came 11 days ahead of the previous fiscal's production of 997.83 million tonnes.
According to the Ministry of Coal in March 2025, about what share of India's electricity is generated by coal-based plants?
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Correct answer: D — About 74%
Around 74% of India's electricity is generated by coal-based power plants; coal is about 55% of the energy mix.
Consider the following statements made by the Ministry of Coal when coal output crossed 1 billion tonnes in March 2025: 1. Coal accounts for about 55% of India's energy mix. 2. India's coal imports rose during April–December 2024 compared with the previous year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The ministry said coal is about 55% of the energy mix, and that coal imports declined by 8.4% in April–December 2024, saving about $5.43 billion.
What was the total value of the capital acquisition proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Over ₹54,000 crore
The DAC accorded AoN to eight proposals amounting to over ₹54,000 crore.
The DAC on 20 March 2025 approved upgrading the engines of T-90 tanks from 1000 HP to:
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Correct answer: B — 1350 HP
AoN was accorded for 1350 HP engines to upgrade the present 1000 HP engines of T-90 tanks.
Which aircraft systems did the DAC clear for the Indian Air Force on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Airborne Early Warning & Control (AEW&C) systems
For the IAF, the DAC accorded AoN for Airborne Early Warning & Control aircraft systems.
Consider the following statements about the DAC decisions of 20 March 2025: 1. Varunastra, cleared for the Navy, is an indigenous ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo developed by the Naval Science & Technological Laboratory. 2. The engine upgrade cleared for the Army was for Arjun main battle tanks. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Varunastra is an indigenously developed ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo from NSTL. The 1350 HP engine upgrade was for T-90 tanks, not Arjun.
Which company won MeitY's Indian Web Browser Development Challenge, announced on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Zoho
Zoho won the challenge; Team PING and Team Ajna were the runners-up.
Which organisation conducted the Indian Web Browser Development Challenge for MeitY?
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Correct answer: A — C-DAC Bengaluru
The challenge was conducted by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Bengaluru.
Which team was the first runner-up in the Indian Web Browser Development Challenge announced in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Team PING
Team PING was the first runner-up and Team Ajna the second; Jio Vishwakarma received a special mention.
How many net members did EPFO add in January 2025, as per payroll data released on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 17.89 lakh
EPFO added 17.89 lakh net members in January 2025; 8.23 lakh were new subscribers.
What share of EPFO's new subscribers in January 2025 were aged 18–25?
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Correct answer: A — About 57%
4.70 lakh new subscribers, or 57.07% of the total, were in the 18–25 age group.
From which date did the PFRDA regulations operationalising the Unified Pension Scheme, notified in March 2025, come into effect?
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Correct answer: C — 1 April 2025
The PFRDA regulations, notified by gazette dated 19 March 2025, came into effect on 1 April 2025.
Under the Unified Pension Scheme, the full assured payout is what share of the average basic pay of the last 12 months before superannuation?
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Correct answer: B — 50%
The full assured payout is 50% of the 12-month average basic pay immediately before superannuation, payable after at least 25 years of qualifying service.
What is the minimum guaranteed monthly payout under the Unified Pension Scheme for a subscriber who superannuates after at least 10 years of qualifying service?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
A minimum guaranteed payout of ₹10,000 a month applies when superannuation is after 10 or more years of qualifying service.
Consider the following statements about the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS): 1. Besides 10% to the employee's individual corpus, the government contributes an additional 8.5% to a pool corpus. 2. The family payout under UPS is 60% of the subscriber's payout. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PFRDA's comparison gives UPS contributions as 10% (employee) + 10% (Government) + 8.5% (pool corpus), and family benefits as 60% of the subscriber's payout. Both statements are correct.
What was the name of the SpaceX Dragon spacecraft that brought Sunita Williams and the Crew-9 astronauts back to Earth in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Freedom
NASA says the Dragon spacecraft Freedom splashed down off Tallahassee, Florida, returning Crew-9; it was Freedom's fourth flight.
Crew-9 splashed down at 5:57 pm EDT on 18 March 2025. What was this time in Indian Standard Time?
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Correct answer: C — 3:27 am IST, 19 March 2025
NASA's timeline puts splashdown at 21:57 GMT on 18 March; adding 5 hours 30 minutes gives 3:27 am IST on 19 March 2025.
How many days did Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore spend in space on the mission that ended with the Crew-9 splashdown in March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 286 days
NASA says Williams and Wilmore spent 286 days in space; 171 days was the figure for Hague and Gorbunov, and 608 days is Williams' career total.
Off the coast of which city did NASA's SpaceX Crew-9 splash down on 18 March 2025 (EDT)?
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Correct answer: D — Tallahassee, Florida
Crew-9 splashed down in the Gulf of America off the coast of Tallahassee, Florida.
Consider the following statements about the return of Sunita Williams in March 2025: 1. Williams and Butch Wilmore had reached the International Space Station in June 2024 aboard Boeing's Starliner on its Crew Flight Test. 2. The Crew-9 return was the first flight of the Dragon spacecraft Freedom. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Williams and Wilmore launched on Starliner on 5 June 2024 and reached the station on 6 June. Crew-9 was Freedom's fourth flight; it earlier flew Crew-4, Axiom Mission 2 and Axiom Mission 3.