HSSC CET Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
SĀDHANA Saptah 2026, which recorded over 3.18 crore course completions, was conducted under which initiative?
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Correct answer: C — Mission Karmayogi
SĀDHANA Saptah 2026 was the National Learning Week under Mission Karmayogi, on the iGOT Karmayogi platform.
Consider the following statements about SĀDHANA Saptah 2026: 1. Frontline workers accounted for nearly 47% of the total course completions. 2. Central Ministries accounted for nearly 80% of total learning engagement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: States and UTs, not Central Ministries, contributed nearly 80% of total learning engagement.
How many employees took at least one AI-related course during SĀDHANA Saptah 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 36.61 lakh
36.61 lakh employees took at least one AI-related course; 46.9 lakh completed at least one course of any kind.
The updated Constitution of India in Sindhi, released on 10 April 2026, was brought out in which two scripts?
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Correct answer: B — Devanagari and Persian
It was released in Devanagari script (first edition) and Persian script (second edition).
Which department prepared the updated Constitution of India in Sindhi released in April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Legislative Department
The Legislative Department, Ministry of Law and Justice, brought out the updated version.
Sindhi was added to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India by which amendment?
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Correct answer: D — 21st Amendment Act, 1967
Sindhi was added to the Eighth Schedule by the Constitution (Twenty-first Amendment) Act, 1967.
How many new applications were approved under Round III of the PLI Scheme for Textiles, as announced on 10 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 52
52 new applications were approved under Round III.
Among the 52 applications approved under Round III of the textiles PLI scheme, which segment had the most approvals?
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Correct answer: D — MMF fabrics
MMF fabrics had 19 approvals, technical textiles 18, multiple segments 10 and MMF apparel 5.
What is the theme of Poshan Pakhwada 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Maximizing Brain Development in the First Six Years of Life
The WCD Ministry said the theme for Poshan Pakhwada 2026 is 'Maximizing Brain Development in the First Six Years of Life'.
Consider the following statements about Poshan Pakhwada 2026: 1. It is being observed from 9 April to 23 April 2026. 2. Poshan Abhiyaan, under which these campaigns are held, was launched in 2018. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the campaign runs from 9 to 23 April 2026, and the ministry dates Poshan Abhiyaan to 2018.
Which edition of Poshan Pakhwada was launched at Vigyan Bhawan on 9 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 8th
The ministry launched the 8th edition of Poshan Pakhwada; the MoS noted 7 Pakhwadas had been held earlier since 2018.
The Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND) signed an MoU announced on 9 April 2026 with which body to combat cyber fraud and financial crimes?
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Correct answer: C — Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)
The Finance Ministry said FIU-IND and the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) signed the MoU.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) is an attached office of the Ministry of Finance. 2. FIU-IND is the central national agency for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating information on suspect financial transactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: I4C is an attached office of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Statement 2 is correct as per the Finance Ministry release.
Who, as Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog, released the 'Ease of Doing Research & Development in India' reports on 9 April 2026 along with Dr Jitendra Singh?
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Correct answer: C — Suman Bery
The reports were formally released by NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Suman Bery and Dr Jitendra Singh. V. K. Saraswat is a NITI Member, Ajay Kumar Sood the Principal Scientific Adviser and Vivek Kumar Singh a Senior Adviser.
NITI Aayog's Ease of Doing R&D reports (April 2026) drew on insights from roughly how many scientists and researchers?
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Correct answer: D — 850+
NITI Aayog said the exercise involved outreach to 400+ institutional leaders and insights from 850+ scientists and researchers.
Consider the following statements about the NITI Aayog reports released on 9 April 2026: 1. Two reports were released, one of them a survey report on ease of doing R&D in India. 2. The reports were the outcome of an exercise conducted over about nine months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: NITI released 'Ease of Doing Research & Development in India' and the 'Survey Report on Ease of Doing R&D in India', after an exercise of approximately nine months.
Article 330A of the Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats for women in which body?
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Correct answer: C — House of the People
Article 330A is titled 'Reservation of seats for women in the House of the People'. Article 332A covers State Legislative Assemblies.
Consider the following statements about reservation for women in legislatures: 1. As nearly as may be, one-third of the seats to be filled by direct election to the House of the People are to be reserved for women. 2. Under Article 334A, the reservation takes effect immediately on the commencement of the amending Act, without any delimitation exercise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 reflects Article 330A(3). Statement 2 is wrong: Article 334A says the provisions come into effect after a delimitation exercise based on the first census taken after the 106th Amendment Act, 2023.
Article 334A links the start of women's reservation to the first census taken after the commencement of which Constitution Amendment Act?
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Correct answer: A — One Hundred and Sixth Amendment Act, 2023
Article 334A refers to the first census taken after the commencement of the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023.
On which date was the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 8 April 2015
The Finance Ministry says PMMY was launched by the Prime Minister on 8 April 2015; it completed 11 years on 8 April 2026.
Under PM Mudra Yojana, collateral-free institutional credit is available up to what amount for non-corporate, non-farm income-generating activities?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 lakh
The Finance Ministry says PMMY offers collateral-free loans of up to ₹20 lakh for non-corporate and non-farm income-generating activities.
Consider the following statements about PM Mudra Yojana as of April 2026: 1. Two-thirds of the loans have been sanctioned to women entrepreneurs. 2. More than 57.79 crore loans have been sanctioned, with ₹40.07 lakh crore disbursed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as stated by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on PMMY's 11th anniversary.
According to IRENA's Renewable Energy Statistics 2026, India moved ahead of which country to rank third in installed renewable energy capacity?
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Correct answer: B — Brazil
Pralhad Joshi said India moved ahead of Brazil; IRENA lists India at 250.52 GW and Brazil at 228.20 GW, behind China and the USA.
What was India's total installed non-fossil fuel capacity as on 31 March 2026, according to MNRE?
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Correct answer: D — 283.46 GW
MNRE put non-fossil capacity at 283.46 GW on 31 March 2026: 274.68 GW renewable (incl. large hydro) plus 8.78 GW nuclear. 250.52 GW is IRENA's renewable figure as of December 2025.
Consider the following statements: 1. India reached 50% of its cumulative installed electricity capacity from non-fossil sources in June 2025, five years ahead of its 2030 NDC target. 2. Wind capacity additions of 6.05 GW in 2025-26 were the highest ever in a single year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per MNRE: the 50% milestone came in June 2025, and 6.05 GW of wind in 2025-26 was the highest ever (4.15 GW the year before).
Which startup's indigenous technology was used for the 1,000-km quantum communication network demonstrated under the National Quantum Mission?
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Correct answer: A — QNu Labs
DST said the milestone was achieved using indigenous technology developed by QNu Labs, a startup supported under the mission.
What is the National Quantum Mission's target for quantum communication network length over an eight-year period?
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Correct answer: D — 2,000 km
DST said the 1,000-km demonstration marks progress against the mission's target of 2,000 km over eight years.
What is the approximate tentative budgetary requirement for Nutrient Based Subsidy on P&K fertilisers for Kharif 2026, as approved on 8 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹41,533.81 crore
The Cabinet put the Kharif 2026 requirement at about ₹41,533.81 crore, around ₹4,317 crore more than Kharif 2025's ₹37,216.15 crore.
Since when has subsidy on phosphatic and potassic fertilisers been governed by the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2010
The Cabinet release says subsidy on P&K fertilisers has been governed by the NBS scheme with effect from 1 April 2010.
According to NITI Aayog's 'From Borrowers to Builders' report (April 2026), what credit portfolio do women borrowers in India hold, and what share of system credit is it?
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Correct answer: B — ₹76 lakh crore; 26%
The report says women borrowers hold a ₹76 lakh crore credit portfolio, 26% of total system credit. ₹16 lakh crore was the 2017 figure.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's report released on 7 April 2026: 1. It is the second edition of 'From Borrowers to Builders: Women and India's Evolving Credit Market'. 2. Credit penetration among women rose from 19% to 36% between December 2017 and December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per NITI Aayog's release on the report.
Under NITI Aayog's Women Entrepreneurship Platform, the 'From Borrowers to Builders' report was prepared by which organisations?
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Correct answer: D — TransUnion CIBIL and MicroSave Consulting
NITI Aayog said the report, under the aegis of WEP, was prepared by TransUnion CIBIL and MicroSave Consulting (MSC).
What is the outlay of the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets?
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Correct answer: B — ₹7,280 crore
The Ministry of Heavy Industries said the scheme has an outlay of ₹7,280 crore.
Consider the following statements about the rare earth permanent magnet scheme: 1. The government will select a maximum of five entities through bidding. 2. Each selected entity can set up facilities of up to 1,200 MTPA, adding up to a maximum of 6,000 MTPA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: MHI said at most five entities will be selected, each with up to 1,200 MTPA, for a total of up to 6,000 MTPA.
The rare earth permanent magnet facilities sought under the ₹7,280 crore scheme are for which type of magnet?
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Correct answer: D — Sintered NdFeB
The RFP is for integrated sintered NdFeB (neodymium–iron–boron) rare earth permanent magnet manufacturing facilities.
Which body launched the first-ever Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — National Statistics Office, MoSPI
MoSPI said the National Statistics Office (NSO) launched the first-ever ASISSE.
Which database is used as the sampling frame for the Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE)?
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Correct answer: B — GSTN database
MoSPI said the survey uses the GSTN database as its sampling frame.
Consider the following statements about ASISSE: 1. Its reference period is the financial year 2024-25. 2. It covers unincorporated non-agricultural enterprises, which were earlier covered by the Annual Survey of Industries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: ASISSE covers incorporated enterprises (companies and LLPs); unincorporated enterprises are covered by ASUSE, and the ASI covers registered manufacturing.
What is the total value of the safety, signalling and communication works approved by Indian Railways, as announced on 6 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,364.45 crore
The Ministry of Railways said projects worth ₹1,364.45 crore were approved. ₹2,950 crore and ₹4,871 crore are sub-umbrella and umbrella figures, and ₹27,693 crore is the Kavach umbrella work.
Which version of Kavach equipment is to be installed on 232 Southern Railway locomotives under the works approved in April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Version 4.0
The ministry said the work covers installation of Kavach Version 4.0 equipment on 232 locomotives.
Electronic interlocking worth ₹578.02 crore is to replace panel interlocking at 49 stations in which railway zone?
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Correct answer: D — South Central Railway
The ministry said electronic interlocking at 49 stations on high-density routes is in South Central Railway.
On which date is National Maritime Day observed in India?
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Correct answer: B — 5 April
National Maritime Day is observed on 5 April, the date of the SS Loyalty's voyage in 1919.
National Maritime Day commemorates the 1919 voyage of which ship?
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Correct answer: D — SS Loyalty
The Hindu and The Times of India both say the day marks the SS Loyalty's voyage from Mumbai to London on 5 April 1919.
Consider the following statements about the SS Loyalty, whose voyage is commemorated on National Maritime Day: 1. It was owned by the Scindia Steam Navigation Company. 2. Its 1919 voyage was from Kolkata to Singapore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the voyage was from Mumbai to London.
What share of LPG deliveries were Delivery Authentication Code (DAC) based as per the government update of 5 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 90%
The update said DAC-based deliveries rose from 53% in February 2026 to 90%.
To what was the LPG cylinder booking interval in urban areas raised, as part of the measures noted on 5 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 25 days
The update said the interval was raised from 21 to 25 days in urban areas and up to 45 days in rural areas.
According to the 5 April 2026 update, how many passengers had returned to India from the West Asia region since 28 February?
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Correct answer: A — Over 7,02,000
The update said over 7,02,000 passengers had returned to India since 28 February.
What record freight loading did Indian Railways achieve in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 1,670 million tonnes
The Railway Ministry said freight loading reached a historic high of 1,670 million tonnes.
How many locomotives did Indian Railways produce in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — 1,674
The ministry said 1,674 locomotives were produced; 6,677 is the number of LHB coaches.
Consider the following statements about Indian Railways' performance in 2025-26: 1. The Kavach system has been commissioned over more than 3,100 route km. 2. 35 stations were redeveloped under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme during the year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: 119 stations were redeveloped under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme; 35 is the number of Gati Shakti Cargo Terminals commissioned.
What was the value of India's marine product exports in 2024-25, as per the Department of Fisheries?
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Correct answer: D — ₹62,408 crore
The department said marine exports rose to ₹62,408 crore in 2024-25; ₹43,334 crore was the shrimp component and ₹30,213 crore the 2013-14 figure.
Which country was the largest destination for India's seafood exports in 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — United States
The United States accounted for 36.42% of total export value in 2024-25.
What was India's fish production in 2024-25, according to the Department of Fisheries?
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Correct answer: B — 197.75 lakh tonnes
Fish production rose from 141.64 lakh tonnes in 2019-20 to 197.75 lakh tonnes in 2024-25.
Under which provision is an employed elector entitled to a paid holiday on polling day?
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Correct answer: C — Section 135B of the RP Act, 1951
The ECI cited Section 135B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
As per the ECI schedule cited on 3 April 2026, on which date was the second phase of polling in West Bengal?
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Correct answer: A — 29 April 2026
The ECI listed West Bengal polling on 23 April (Phase I) and 29 April 2026 (Phase II).
Consider the following statements about the paid holiday on polling day, as clarified by the ECI: 1. Employers may deduct wages for the polling-day holiday if the worker is a casual or daily-wage worker. 2. Electors working outside their constituency but registered in a constituency going to polls are not entitled to the paid holiday. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct: the ECI said no wages may be deducted and casual and daily-wage workers are entitled, and electors working outside their constituency are also entitled.
Who is the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, who was present at Om Birla's Census 2027 self-enumeration on 3 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Mritunjay Kumar Narayan
The Lok Sabha Secretariat named Mritunjay Kumar Narayan as the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
Which phrase did the Lok Sabha Speaker invoke while urging participation in Census 2027?
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Correct answer: B — Jan Ganana se Jan Kalyan
Om Birla reaffirmed the vision of 'Jan Ganana se Jan Kalyan' (Census for Public Welfare).
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 amends 784 provisions across how many Central Acts?
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Correct answer: B — 79
The Commerce Ministry said 784 provisions across 79 Central Acts administered by 23 ministries are amended.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026: 1. The Lok Sabha Select Committee that examined its 2025 predecessor was chaired by Tejasvi Surya. 2. Of the 784 provisions amended, 717 were amended to facilitate ease of living. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The 717 provisions were decriminalised to promote ease of doing business; 67 provisions were amended for ease of living.
On which date did the Rajya Sabha pass the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 2 April 2026
PRS Bill Track records passage by the Lok Sabha on 1 April and by the Rajya Sabha on 2 April 2026; it was introduced on 27 March.
What was the value of India's defence exports in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹38,424 crore
The Ministry of Defence said defence exports touched an all-time high of ₹38,424 crore in FY 2025-26; ₹23,622 crore was the FY 2024-25 figure.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports in FY 2025-26: 1. Defence Public Sector Undertakings contributed a larger share than the private sector. 2. India exported defence equipment to more than 80 countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: DPSUs contributed 54.84% (₹21,071 crore) against the private sector's 45.16%, and exports went to more than 80 countries.
As per the Defence Ministry, how many defence exporters were there in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — 145
The number of exporters rose to 145 from 128, a 13.3% rise.
What was coal production from captive and commercial mines in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 210.46 MT
The Coal Ministry said production reached 210.46 MT; 204.61 MT was dispatch and 190.95 MT the previous year's production.
How many captive and commercial coal blocks were operationalised through Mine Opening Permission in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 12
12 blocks were operationalised, adding over 86 MT of capacity; 7 blocks began production within the year.
Till which date has the full customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical products, announced on 2 April 2026, been granted?
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Correct answer: C — 30 June 2026
The Finance Ministry said the exemption is till 30 June 2026.
Consider the following statements about the customs duty exemption on critical petrochemicals announced on 2 April 2026: 1. It is a permanent reduction in customs duty. 2. Methanol (methyl alcohol) is among the products covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The ministry called it temporary and targeted relief valid till 30 June 2026, and methanol is listed in the annexure.
For what period does the cost escalation compensation mechanism for National Highway projects, announced on 2 April 2026, apply?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April to 30 June 2026
MoRTH said the measures apply for three months, from 1 April till 30 June 2026, or until further review.
Under the revised price adjustment for EPC highway contracts, the Wholesale Price Index will be taken for which period?
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Correct answer: C — One month before the Interim Payment Certificate month
MoRTH said WPI will now be taken for one month prior to the relevant IPC month, in place of three months prior.
On which date was the India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) signed?
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Correct answer: C — 2 April 2022
The Commerce Ministry said the ECTA was signed on 2 April 2022 and completed four years on 2 April 2026.
From which date are all Indian exports eligible for zero-duty market access into Australia under the ECTA?
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Correct answer: A — 1 January 2026
The ministry said that from 1 January 2026 all Indian exports are eligible for zero-duty access into Australia.
Under the India–Australia ECTA, India granted preferential market access on what share of its tariff lines?
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Correct answer: B — 70.3%
India granted preferential access on 70.3% of its tariff lines, covering 90.6% of trade value; Australia granted it on 100% of its lines, 98.3% of which became duty-free immediately.
Who was the first to complete self-enumeration when Census 2027 began on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — President Droupadi Murmu
The Home Ministry said the exercise began with the enumeration of President Droupadi Murmu, upholding the tradition of starting with the First Citizen.
Between which dates will the Houselisting and Housing Census phase of Census 2027 be conducted across the country?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April – 30 September 2026
The HLO phase runs nationally from 1 April to 30 September 2026; 16 April–15 May is the houselisting window in the first set of states/UTs.
How many questions have been notified for Phase I (Houselisting and Housing Census) of Census 2027?
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Correct answer: C — 33
A total of 33 questions for Phase I were notified in January 2026; 16 is the number of regional languages for self-enumeration.
On which date did the Income-tax Act, 2025 receive the President's assent?
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Correct answer: C — 21 August 2025
The Finance Ministry said the Bill was passed by Parliament on 12 August 2025 and received assent on 21 August 2025; the Rules were notified on 20 March 2026 and the Act came into force on 1 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about the Income-tax Act, 2025: 1. It replaces the Income-tax Act, 1961. 2. It alters the underlying tax policy to introduce new tax rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The ministry said the Act simplifies the law without altering the underlying tax policy.
Which body notified the Income-tax Rules, 2026 to operationalise the Income-tax Act, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Central Board of Direct Taxes
The Income-tax Rules, 2026 were notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on 20 March 2026.
On which date was the Reserve Bank of India established?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 1935
The RBI says it was established on 1 April 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Consider the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India: 1. Its Central Office was initially established in Kolkata and moved permanently to Mumbai in 1937. 2. It has been fully owned by the Government of India since its nationalisation in 1949. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the RBI's 'About Us' page.
The Reserve Bank of India was established in accordance with the provisions of which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
The RBI was established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.