Haryana Police Current Affairs Quiz
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What were India's estimated total exports (merchandise and services) in April–August 2026-27?
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Correct answer: C — US$ 399.27 billion
Total exports were estimated at US$ 399.27 billion, up 15.55%. US$ 215.91 billion is merchandise only; US$ 459.65 billion is total imports.
Which merchandise export category grew the fastest in August 2026, by 89.82%?
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Correct answer: A — Electronic goods
Electronic goods exports rose 89.82% from US$ 2.93 billion to US$ 5.55 billion.
What were India's merchandise exports in August 2026?
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Correct answer: D — US$ 43.81 billion
Merchandise exports were US$ 43.81 billion in August 2026; US$ 82.68 billion is total (goods + services) exports.
How much penalty did the CCPA impose on Rapido in September 2026 for misleading tipping prompts?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10 lakh
The CCPA imposed a ₹10 lakh penalty on Roppen Transportation Services, which runs Rapido.
Which two dark patterns did the CCPA find in Rapido's ride-booking interface?
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Correct answer: D — Confirm Shaming and Interface Interference
The CCPA held that Rapido's prompts amounted to Confirm Shaming and Interface Interference.
Consider the following about the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023: 1. They list 13 specified dark patterns. 2. They were issued by the CCPA under Section 18 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The CCPA issued the guidelines on 30 November 2023 under Section 18, listing 13 dark patterns.
Where is the 48th WorldSkills Competition being held in September 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Shanghai
The 48th WorldSkills Competition is in Shanghai, China, from 22 to 27 September 2026.
How many competitors are in India's contingent for WorldSkills Shanghai 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 70
India's largest-ever contingent of 70 competitors will compete in 63 skill categories.
What was India's year-on-year retail inflation (CPI, provisional) for August 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 4.82%
All-India CPI inflation for August 2026 was 4.82% (provisional), up from 4.45% in July.
What is the base year of the Consumer Price Index series used for the August 2026 inflation data?
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Correct answer: B — 2024=100
The CPI is now compiled on base year 2024=100.
What was food inflation measured by the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) in August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 5.95%
CFPI inflation was 5.95% in August 2026 (rural 6.13%, urban 5.64%), against 5.52% in July.
Consider the following about the CPI release for August 2026: 1. Urban inflation was higher than rural inflation. 2. The CPI for August 2026 is compiled on base year 2012=100. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. Rural inflation (5.23%) was higher than urban (4.31%), and the CPI released by the NSO, MoSPI, is now compiled on base year 2024=100.
What was India's WPI-based wholesale inflation for August 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 9.92%
WPI inflation for August 2026 was 9.92%, up from 9.78% in July.
Consider the following about WPI data for August 2026: 1. The WPI series now uses 2022-23 as its base year. 2. The WPI Food Index has a weight of 24.99%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The WPI uses base year 2022-23, and the Food Index (food articles plus manufactured food products) has a weight of 24.99%.
How many citizens has the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan reached, according to the Social Justice Ministry on 14 September 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 34.54 crore
The NMBA has reached 34.54 crore citizens, including over 13.70 crore youth and 10.64 crore women.
Under which plan does the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment give financial assistance to States for drug demand reduction?
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Correct answer: A — NAPDDR
Financial assistance to States and UTs is given under the National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR).
Consider the following about the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan (NMBA): 1. It was launched on 15 August 2020 in 272 districts identified as most vulnerable. 2. It has been implemented in all districts of the country since 15 August 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The NMBA began on 15 August 2020 in 272 most vulnerable districts and was extended to all districts from 15 August 2023.
Which team did India's junior men beat 4-1 in the final of the Hockey Junior Asia Cup 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Korea
India's junior men beat Korea 4-1 in the final in Moqi, China, on 13 September 2026.
Who scored the only goal of the women's final as India beat China 1-0 at the Hockey Junior Asia Cup 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Sanika Chandrakant Mane
Sanika Chandrakant Mane scored in the 17th minute to give India a 1-0 win and a third straight title.
With the 2026 win, how many men's Junior Asia Cup hockey titles has India won?
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Correct answer: B — Six
It was a record sixth title, after 2004, 2008, 2015, 2023 and 2024.
Consider the following about the Hockey Junior Asia Cup 2026: 1. India's junior women completed a hat-trick of titles. 2. By winning, both Indian teams qualified for the FIH Junior World Cups. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The women won their third straight title, and the Asia Cup wins earned both Indian teams places at next year's FIH Junior World Cups.
Which team did India beat in the final to win the Women's Asia Cup 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Sri Lanka
India beat Sri Lanka by 72 runs in the final in Dubai on 13 September 2026.
How many Women's Asia Cup titles has India won after the 2026 triumph?
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Correct answer: D — Eight
The 2026 win was India's record-extending eighth Women's Asia Cup title.
Which Indian bowler took four wickets for 20 runs in the Women's Asia Cup 2026 final?
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Correct answer: B — Shree Charani
Shree Charani took 4/20 and Deepti Sharma 3/19 as Sri Lanka were bowled out for 111.
Consider the following about the Women's Asia Cup: 1. India won the 2026 final at the Dubai International Cricket Stadium. 2. India also won the previous (2024) edition, beating Sri Lanka in the final at Dambulla. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. India won the 2026 final in Dubai, but Sri Lanka had beaten India in the 2024 final at Dambulla.
Exercise Samudra Laksamana is a bilateral naval exercise between India and which country?
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Correct answer: D — Malaysia
Samudra Laksamana is held between the Indian Navy and the Royal Malaysian Navy.
Which Indian Navy ship took part in the 4th edition of Exercise Samudra Laksamana at Lumut in September 2026?
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Correct answer: B — INS Mysore
INS Mysore took part from 9 to 12 September 2026 at Lumut, Malaysia.
Consider the following about Exercise Samudra Laksamana: 1. The 3rd edition was held at and off Visakhapatnam in 2024. 2. The Malaysian ship KD Lekir took part in both the 3rd and the 4th editions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The 3rd edition (28 Feb – 2 Mar 2024) was at and off Visakhapatnam with INS Kiltan and KD Lekir, and KD Lekir also exercised with INS Mysore in the 4th edition at Lumut.
Under the National HPV Vaccination Campaign launched in February 2026, which group receives the free single-dose HPV vaccine?
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Correct answer: B — 14-year-old girls
The campaign offers a voluntary, free, single-dose HPV vaccine to 14-year-old girls with parental consent.
Which State leads in the number of girls vaccinated under the National HPV Vaccination Campaign, with more than 22 lakh?
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Correct answer: D — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh leads with more than 22 lakh adolescent girls vaccinated.
Which of the following groups of States had achieved 100% coverage of their target group under the HPV campaign as of 11 September 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Mizoram
Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Mizoram reached 100%; Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and Assam crossed 90%.
Consider the following about the National HPV Vaccination Campaign: 1. The vaccine is given free of cost at government health facilities with parental consent. 2. The campaign was launched in February 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The vaccine is free and voluntary with parental consent; the campaign was launched by PM Modi in February 2026, not 2025.
From which date will the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026 come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 1 January 2027
The amended rules notified on 10 September 2026 take effect from 1 January 2027.
Under the amended e-commerce rules of 2026, how is the 'prior price' shown alongside a discounted price defined?
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Correct answer: C — The lowest price offered during the 30 days before the discount
The 'prior price' is the lowest price at which the goods or services were offered in the 30 days before the price reduction was announced.
About what share of the grievances received by the National Consumer Helpline in 2025 related to the e-commerce sector?
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Correct answer: B — About 29%
Of 17,71,622 grievances in 2025, 5,11,196 — around 29% — related to e-commerce.
Consider the following about the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026: 1. E-commerce entities must undertake a yearly self-audit for compliance with the Dark Patterns Guidelines, 2023. 2. Disclosure of country of origin has been made optional for imported goods. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Entities must self-audit yearly and display a compliance certificate; importer details and country of origin must be disclosed for imported goods.
How many digits does the Bhu-Aadhaar (ULPIN) to be assigned to every land parcel under DILRMP 3.0 have?
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Correct answer: D — 14
DILRMP 3.0 assigns a 14-digit Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (Bhu-Aadhaar) to every land parcel.
What is the outlay of DILRMP 3.0 for the period 2026–2031?
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Correct answer: A — ₹565.50 crore
DILRMP 3.0 is a Central Sector Scheme with an outlay of ₹565.50 crore for 2026–2031.
Under DILRMP 3.0, high-footfall Sub-Registrar Offices will be upgraded into 'Registration Seva Kendras' modelled on which existing service?
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Correct answer: D — Passport Seva Kendras
75 high-footfall Sub-Registrar Offices will become Registration Seva Kendras inspired by Passport Seva Kendras.
Consider the following about DILRMP 3.0: 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with 60:40 cost sharing between the Centre and States. 2. It will accelerate the NAKSHA pilot for GIS-based urban land records. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. DILRMP 3.0 is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% central funding, and it accelerates the NAKSHA urban land mapping pilot.
The Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026 replaces a law originally enacted in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 1891
The 2026 Act replaces the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 1891.
From which date will the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026 come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October 2026
A notification dated 10 September 2026 appointed 1 October 2026 as the commencement date; the Act got assent on 13 August 2026.
Under the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026, what must a court record before summoning bank officials in a case where the bank is not a party?
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Correct answer: B — A 'special cause' in writing
The Act requires the court to record a 'special cause' in writing for such summoning.
Consider the following about the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026: 1. It recognises banking records maintained in electronic, digital and cloud-based forms. 2. The Central Government may extend its provisions to specified financial sector entities. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Act is technology-neutral, covering physical, electronic, digital, virtual and cloud-based records, and the Centre may extend it to specified financial sector entities.
In which city was the first International Space Summit, addressed by PM Modi on 10 September 2026, held?
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Correct answer: D — Paris
The summit was held in Paris at the initiative of French President Emmanuel Macron; PM Modi joined via video conference.
According to PM Modi at the International Space Summit, Indian rockets have launched more than 430 payloads from how many countries?
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Correct answer: C — 34
Modi said more than 430 payloads from 34 countries have been launched on Indian rockets.
PM Modi recalled that France has been India's space partner since the start of India's space programme at which place in the 1960s?
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Correct answer: D — Thumba
Modi said France has been a trusted partner since the inception of the Indian space programme at Thumba in the 1960s.
Consider the following statements from PM Modi's address at the International Space Summit (2026): 1. Chandrayaan-3 made India the first nation to land near the lunar south pole. 2. PM Modi attended the summit in person in Paris. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Modi cited Chandrayaan-3's south-pole landing, but he addressed the summit via video conference.
The first-ever district-level estimates for the unincorporated non-agricultural sector released by NSO in September 2026 are based on which survey?
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Correct answer: B — ASUSE 2025
The district-level report draws on Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) 2025 data.
According to NSO's district-level estimates (September 2026), the top 50 districts by number of unincorporated establishments account for about what share of total establishments, workforce and GVA?
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Correct answer: C — One-third
The top 50 districts account for nearly one-third of total establishments, workforce and Gross Value Added.
Consider the following findings of NSO's district-level estimates for the unincorporated sector (September 2026): 1. In 237 districts, women constitute one-third of the workforce in the unincorporated sector. 2. GVA per worker exceeds the all-India average in fewer than 100 districts. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Women form one-third of the workforce in 237 districts, and GVA per worker exceeds the all-India average in 280 districts.
How much foreign-origin gold did the DRI report seizing in six pan-India operations, announced on 10 September 2026?
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Correct answer: D — About 41 kg
DRI seized about 41 kg of foreign-origin gold valued at around ₹62 crore.
In the DRI gold seizures reported in September 2026, 89 gold bars weighing about 11.3 kg were recovered near BOP Halderpara along which border?
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Correct answer: B — Indo-Bangladesh border
DRI, with the BSF, seized the 89 bars near the Indo-Bangladesh border at BOP Halderpara.
Consider the following about the DRI gold seizures reported on 10 September 2026: 1. The seizures were made under the Customs Act, 1962. 2. In Mumbai, gold dust concealed in wax capsules was seized from a syndicate involving airport staff. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The gold was seized under the Customs Act, 1962, and in Mumbai 3.47 kg of gold dust in wax capsules was recovered from a syndicate using transit passengers and airport staff.
The TRAI regulations repealed on 10 September 2026 had enforced what ceiling on advertisements on TV channels?
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Correct answer: C — 12 minutes per clock hour
The 2012 regulations enforced a ceiling of twelve minutes of advertisements in a clock hour.
The twelve-minute advertisement cap for TV channels was originally prescribed under which rules, before the MIB omitted the provision in August 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Cable Television Networks Rules, 1994
The cap was in rule 7(11) of the Cable Television Networks Rules, 1994, which the MIB omitted by a notification published on 21 August 2026.
Who is the President of Sri Lanka whom Defence Minister Rajnath Singh met in Colombo on 9 September 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Anura Kumara Dissanayake
Rajnath Singh called on President Anura Kumara Dissanayake in Colombo on 9 September 2026.
During Rajnath Singh's visit to Sri Lanka in September 2026, an MoU was exchanged on upgrading which equipment of the Sri Lankan Air Force?
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Correct answer: B — Six L70 guns
The MoU covers the upgradation of six L70 guns for the Sri Lankan Air Force.
President Dissanayake thanked India for relief under which operation during Cyclone Ditwah?
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Correct answer: C — Operation Sagar Bandhu
Dissanayake expressed gratitude for India's relief under Operation Sagar Bandhu during Cyclone Ditwah.
Consider the following about Rajnath Singh's visit to Colombo on 9 September 2026: 1. Three Bailey bridges built by the Indian Defence Forces were virtually inaugurated. 2. An MoU was signed to formalise the NCC youth exchange programme between India and Sri Lanka. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The leaders inaugurated three Indian-built Bailey bridges, and the NCC MoU formalises the youth exchange programme.
At which event did UIDAI launch the Aadhaar Face Authentication SDK and Sandbox on 9 September 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Global Fintech Fest 2026
UIDAI launched the SDK and Sandbox at the Global Fintech Fest 2026.
What is the main user benefit of the Aadhaar Face Authentication SDK launched by UIDAI in September 2026?
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Correct answer: B — It lets apps run face authentication inside their own app without switching applications
The SDK brings face authentication into native Android and iOS apps, giving a single-app experience; consent remains part of the journey.
India's endorsement of the Call to Action for 6G Leadership and Security was announced on the sidelines of which meeting in September 2026?
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Correct answer: A — G20 Innovation Ministerial
The announcement came on the sidelines of the G20 Innovation Ministerial at Chapel Hill, North Carolina.
What share of global 6G standards and patents does India aim to contribute, as stated while endorsing the 6G Call to Action?
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Correct answer: B — 10 percent
The government said India aims to contribute 10 percent of 6G global standards and patents.
Consider the following about India's endorsement of the Call to Action for 6G Leadership and Security: 1. The Department of Telecommunications will take forward India's engagement under it. 2. India is the only Asian country among its endorsers and the initiative has fewer than ten members. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. DoT will lead the follow-up; India joined over 20 like-minded governments, so the group is not under ten members.
How many live Indian star tortoises did the DRI seize in Bengaluru, as reported on 9 September 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 180
DRI recovered 180 live Indian star tortoises concealed in six cloth covers near Gandhinagar, Bengaluru.
Consider the following about the DRI wildlife seizures reported on 9 September 2026: 1. The Indian star tortoise (Geochelone elegans) is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 2. The leopard pelt was seized at Jeypore in Koraput district of Odisha. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. WCCB identified the tortoises as Geochelone elegans, a Schedule I species, and one leopard pelt was recovered at Jeypore, Koraput.
Under which section of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 did FIU-IND issue notices to 15 VDA service providers on 9 September 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Section 13
The notices were issued under Section 13 of the PMLA.
Since when have Virtual Digital Asset Service Providers been covered by India's AML/CFT framework under the PMLA?
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Correct answer: B — March 2023
VDA SPs were brought under the AML/CFT framework of the PMLA in March 2023.
Consider the following about FIU-IND's action of 9 September 2026 against VDA service providers: 1. FIU-IND also sought takedown of their apps and URLs as nodal officer under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000. 2. Notices were issued to 25 entities. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The FIU-IND Director issued takedown notices under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act; notices went to 15 entities, not 25.
Where will the 48th WorldSkills Competition, in which India debuts in 11 new skills, be held in September 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Shanghai
The 48th WorldSkills Competition is in Shanghai, China, from 22 to 27 September 2026.
In how many of the 64 skills will Team Skill India compete at WorldSkills Shanghai 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 63
India will compete in 63 of 64 skills with nearly 70 competitors.
The draft amendment to the Drugs Rules, 1945 notified on 8 September 2026 proposes which measure at medical stores?
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Correct answer: B — Mandatory CCTV surveillance
Draft G.S.R. 791(E) proposes mandatory CCTV surveillance at medical stores for Schedule H, H1 and X drugs.
The draft notification G.S.R. 791(E) of 8 September 2026 targets which categories of drugs?
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Correct answer: D — Schedule H, H1 and X
The draft seeks to strengthen oversight of Schedule H, H1 and X drugs.
Consider the following statements about the Drugs Rules draft of September 2026: 1. It was issued by the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. 2. Objections and suggestions have been invited from the public. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The draft was issued by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, which invited public objections and suggestions.
How many applications were received in Round 1 of the ₹37,500 crore Scheme for Promotion of Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification Projects?
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Correct answer: A — Seven
The Ministry of Coal said Round 1 closed with seven applications.
What national coal gasification capacity target does India have for 2030?
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Correct answer: D — 100 million tonnes
The national objective is 100 million tonnes of coal gasification by 2030, including 75 million tonnes under the new scheme.
Consider the following statements: 1. Adani Enterprises submitted three projects with urea as the end product in Round 1. 2. The ₹37,500 crore scheme replaced an earlier ₹8,500 crore scheme whose projects were cancelled. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The new scheme builds on the ₹8,500 crore scheme of January 2024, under which eight projects are still being implemented.
The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI), which has prevented suspected cyber fraud of over ₹5,000 crore, was developed by which body?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Telecommunications
The FRI was developed by the Department of Telecommunications under its Digital Intelligence Platform.
Under the FRI, mobile numbers are classified into which risk categories?
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Correct answer: C — Medium, High, Very High
The FRI classifies mobile numbers as Medium, High or Very High risk.
Consider the following statements about the FRI: 1. It was launched on 22 May 2025. 2. It draws on citizen reports from the Sanchar Saathi platform. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the FRI was launched on 22 May 2025 and uses inputs including Sanchar Saathi citizen reports.
On 8 September 2026, CAQM reviewed which State's pollution control board over non-compliance on C&D site video monitoring?
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Correct answer: D — Haryana
CAQM held the review with the Haryana State Pollution Control Board (HSPCB).
Under CAQM's statutory directions, construction and demolition projects above what plot area must register on the State portal and install video monitoring?
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Correct answer: A — 500 sq m
The directions cover all C&D projects with a plot area of 500 sq m or more.
Consider the following statements about the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM): 1. It is a statutory body under an Act of Parliament that received presidential assent in August 2021. 2. The Act dissolved the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) for the NCR. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The CAQM Act, 2021 received assent on 12 August 2021 and dissolved EPCA, set up in 1998.
The International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies is observed on which date?
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Correct answer: B — 7 September
The day is observed every year on 7 September; the UN General Assembly designated it in 2019.
What is 'PRANA' in the context of India's air quality management?
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Correct answer: A — A portal for monitoring implementation of the National Clean Air Programme
PRANA, the Portal for Regulation of Air-Pollution in Non-Attainment cities, tracks the physical and financial progress of NCAP city action plans. SAMEER is the AQI app.
Consider the following statements about the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP): 1. It was launched in 2019 and covers 130 cities. 2. Cities receive NCAP funds as performance-linked grants based on air quality. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: NCAP was launched in 2019 in 130 cities, and ₹16,423.55 crore was given as air-quality performance-linked grants from 2019-20 to 2025-26.
The National Commission for Women's two-day workshop on 'Gender-Responsive Governance', inaugurated by Om Birla on 7 September 2026, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Faridabad
The workshop was held in Faridabad, Haryana.
Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Women: 1. It is a constitutional body created by a constitutional amendment. 2. The first Commission was constituted on 31 January 1992. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The NCW is a statutory body under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, and the first Commission was constituted on 31 January 1992.
The Open API facility for Certificates of Origin launched on 7 September 2026 is available on which platform?
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Correct answer: A — Trade Connect e-Platform
DGFT introduced the Open API for CoO issuance and verification through the Trade Connect e-Platform.
Consider the following statements about DGFT's Open API facility: 1. It covers only preferential Certificates of Origin issued under FTAs. 2. It lets exporters send application data from their own ERP or accounting software. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The facility covers both preferential and non-preferential Certificates of Origin.