Entrance & Scholarship Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Administrative Arrangement finalised at the July 2026 Melbourne summit operationalises the India–Australia Civil Nuclear Agreement signed in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2014
The Arrangement operationalises the India–Australia Civil Nuclear Agreement signed in 2014.
Australian uranium exports to India under the July 2026 arrangement will be under the safeguards of which body?
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Correct answer: A — International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
The Arrangement enables uranium exports for peaceful purposes under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards.
Consider the following statements, as given in PIB's July 2026 backgrounder on India–Australia civil nuclear cooperation: 1. Australia has the largest uranium resources in the world, more than one-third of the global total. 2. India operates 24 nuclear power reactors with an installed capacity of 8.78 GW. 3. India's Nuclear Energy Mission targets 50 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Nuclear Energy Mission targets 100 GW by 2047.
According to the AISHE report released in July 2026, what was India's Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education in 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — 30
GER reached 29.5 in 2022-23 and 30 in 2023-24; 31.2 is the female GER for 2023-24.
What was the Gender Parity Index (GPI) in higher education in 2023-24 as per AISHE?
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Correct answer: A — 1.08
The GPI for 2023-24 stands at 1.08 and has remained above 1.0 for seven consecutive years.
Consider the following statements about AISHE: 1. GER in AISHE is computed for the 18–23 years age group. 2. Women made up 44% of STEM enrolment in 2023-24. 3. Participation in AISHE is mandatory for all Higher Education Institutions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: PIB's survey note says participation in AISHE is voluntary and data is self-reported.
What was the total enrolment in higher education in 2023-24 according to AISHE?
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Correct answer: B — 4.50 crore
Enrolment rose from 3.42 crore (2014-15) to 4.46 crore (2022-23) and 4.50 crore (2023-24); 2.24 crore is female enrolment.
According to UDISE+ 2025-26, how many school teachers were there in India?
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Correct answer: A — About 1.03 crore (1,02,73,020)
Teachers numbered 1,02,73,020 in 2025-26, up from 94,83,294 in 2022-23.
What was the dropout rate at the secondary level in 2025-26 as per UDISE+?
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Correct answer: B — 7.0%
Secondary dropout fell from 8.2% in 2024-25 to 7.0% in 2025-26; 3.6% is the middle level and 13.8% the 2022-23 secondary figure.
What was the Gross Enrolment Ratio at the secondary level in 2025-26 as per UDISE+?
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Correct answer: C — 71.7%
Secondary GER rose from 68.5% in 2024-25 to 71.7% in 2025-26; 89.6% is the middle-level GER and 51.9% the secondary retention rate.
Where did PM Narendra Modi and President Prabowo Subianto hold official talks on 7 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Istana Merdeka, Jakarta
The joint statement says the official bilateral talks were held on 7 July 2026 at Istana Merdeka, Jakarta.
During PM Modi's July 2026 visit, India announced the deployment of an Indonesian Liaison Officer at which centre?
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Correct answer: C — Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR)
The list of announcements includes the deployment of an Indonesian Liaison Officer in IFC-IOR.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's State Visit to Indonesia in July 2026: 1. The visit took place from 6 to 8 July 2026. 2. It followed President Prabowo's visit to India as Chief Guest at the 76th Republic Day. 3. The outcomes included cooperation on the BrahMos Missile System. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per the joint statement and the list of outcomes.
The Indonesia Open Network (ION), launched during PM Modi's July 2026 visit, is based on which Indian digital architecture?
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Correct answer: B — Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
The announcements list the launch of Indonesia Open Network (ION), based on India's ONDC architecture.
How much did the Centre release on 5 July 2026 as the first instalment (Mother Sanction) to States under VB-G-RAM-G?
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Correct answer: B — Rs 25,863 crore
Shivraj Singh Chouhan released the first instalment (Mother Sanction) of Rs 25,863 crore to the States.
According to the Rural Development Minister, what is the minimum daily wage rate that any State will now have under VB-G-RAM-G?
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Correct answer: D — Rs 300
Wage rates have been raised by about 10% on average, and no State will now have a wage rate below Rs 300 per day.
The VB-G-RAM-G Act, 2025 guarantees how many days of wage employment per financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work?
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Correct answer: A — 125 days
Section 5(1) of the Act provides a guarantee of not less than 125 days of wage employment per rural household per financial year, up from the earlier 100 days.
Consider the following statements about VB-G-RAM-G: 1. Its provisions came into force in all States and UTs on 1 July 2026. 2. Wage rates under it were raised by about 25% on average. 3. The first instalment is meant to let States pay wages within 15 days. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
S.O. 2382(E) appointed 1 July 2026 for all States and UTs, and the instalment aims at wage payment within 15 days; the average wage rise was about 10%, not 25%.
What is the approximate outlay of the Modified UDAN Scheme launched by PM Modi on 4 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Rs 29,000 crore over ten years
The Modified UDAN Scheme, approved on 25 March 2026, has an outlay of approximately Rs 29,000 crore over the next ten years.
How many aerodromes are to be developed from existing unserved airstrips under the Modified UDAN Scheme?
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Correct answer: A — 100
The scheme provides Rs 12,159 crore to develop 100 aerodromes from existing unserved airstrips; 200 is the number of helipads.
The UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) scheme, whose next phase was launched on 4 July 2026, was originally launched in which month and year?
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Correct answer: B — October 2016
The UDAN Scheme was launched in October 2016 and has since operationalised 669 routes connecting 95 airports, heliports and water aerodromes.
Consider the following statements about the Modified UDAN Scheme: 1. It provides Viability Gap Funding of Rs 10,043 crore. 2. It provides for 200 modern helipads. 3. It promotes indigenous platforms such as HAL Dhruv and Dornier. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: VGF of Rs 10,043 crore, 200 helipads (Rs 3,661 crore) and promotion of HAL Dhruv and Dornier.
What was the approximate value of the acquisition proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 3 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Rs 52,000 crore
The DAC accorded AoN to proposals at an estimated cost of about Rs 52,000 crore.
'Akash Tarang', cleared for the Indian Army by the DAC on 3 July 2026, is a:
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Correct answer: C — Anti-UAV electronic warfare system
AKASH TARANG is an anti-Unmanned Aerial Vehicle electronic warfare system that will give anti-UAV protection to Army formations.
Which platform cleared by the DAC on 3 July 2026 is meant for the Indian Air Force's persistent ISR, telecommunication and remote sensing?
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Correct answer: B — Fixed-Wing High Altitude Pseudo Satellite (FW-HAPS)
FW-HAPS will carry out persistent Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance, telecommunication and remote sensing for the IAF.
Consider the following about the DAC approvals of 3 July 2026: 1. 'Acceptance of Necessity' means in-principle administrative approval. 2. The Multi Influence Ground Mine was cleared for the Indian Navy. 3. MRSAM was cleared for the Indian Army. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
AoN is in-principle administrative approval; MIGM was cleared for the Navy and MRSAM for the Army, so all three are correct.
Under the CCEA decision of 2 July 2026, what is the new maximum permissible broken grain content in raw rice supplied under PMGKAY?
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Correct answer: C — 10%
Raw rice will contain up to 10% broken grains, replacing the earlier specification of up to 25%.
Consider the following statements about the PMGKAY rice quality reform approved in July 2026: 1. Parboiled rice will contain up to 5% broken grains instead of 16%. 2. Improved-quality rice will be rolled out across all procuring States by KMS 2027-28 in a phased manner. 3. Rice bags will carry QR codes for end-to-end traceability. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are part of the approved reform: 5% broken grains in parboiled rice (from 16%), phased rollout by KMS 2027-28, and QR-code tagging of bags.
By the Cabinet decision of 29 November 2023, free foodgrains under PMGKAY are provided to about 81.35 crore beneficiaries for a period of:
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Correct answer: A — Five years from 1 January 2024
The Cabinet decided on 29 November 2023 that the Centre will provide free foodgrains to about 81.35 crore beneficiaries under PMGKAY for five years with effect from 1 January 2024, at an estimated Rs 11.80 lakh crore.
Which Japanese Prime Minister visited India from 1 to 3 July 2026 for the 16th India-Japan Annual Summit?
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Correct answer: A — Takaichi Sanae
Prime Minister Takaichi Sanae paid an official visit to India from 1-3 July 2026 for the 16th Annual Summit; it was her first official visit to India.
Under the outcomes of the 16th India-Japan Annual Summit, the year 2027, marking the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations, will be celebrated as the:
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Correct answer: C — India-Japan Year of Shared Horizons
The outcome document outlines commemorative events to celebrate 2027, the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations, as the India-Japan Year of Shared Horizons.
The India-Japan Cooperative Biogas for Growth (CBG) Initiative, agreed at the 16th Annual Summit, aims to establish 1,000 biogas and organic fertilizer plants by leveraging the network of:
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Correct answer: D — Dairy cooperatives
The Memorandum of Cooperation promotes the goal of 1,000 biogas and organic fertilizer plants across India by leveraging the extensive network of dairy cooperatives.
Consider the following statements about the 16th India-Japan Annual Summit (July 2026): 1. The leaders directed their Ministers to hold the fourth 2+2 Ministerial Meeting in Tokyo by the end of the year. 2. An in-principle agreement was reached on the remaining technical details of the UNICORN (Unified Complex Radio Antenna) project. 3. The Next Generation Mobility Partnership was first announced at this summit. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are in the Joint Statement. The NGMP was announced at the 15th Annual Summit in August 2025; at the 16th Summit a Memorandum of Cooperation operationalised it.
After the revised wage rates under the VB-G RAM G Act were notified on 1 July 2026, the national average notified wage became:
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Correct answer: A — Rs 327.4 per day
The national average notified wage rose from Rs 298.8 to Rs 327.4 per day, an increase of more than 10 per cent.
Under the revised VB-G RAM G wage rates notified on 1 July 2026, no notified daily wage anywhere in India is below:
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Correct answer: C — Rs 300
With the revised rates, no notified daily wage anywhere in the country is below Rs 300.
With the commencement of the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 on 1 July 2026, which law stands repealed from the same date?
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Correct answer: D — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
Per PIB's press note of 11 May 2026, MGNREGA, 2005 stands repealed from 1 July 2026, the date the VB-G RAM G Act comes into force; the new Act replaces it.
Under Section 6 of the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, States may notify a pause period during peak sowing and harvesting seasons aggregating to:
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Correct answer: B — Sixty days in a financial year
The Act empowers States to notify an aggregated pause period of sixty days in a financial year (Section 6); the 125-day guarantee is provided in the remaining period.
Under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, the unemployment allowance payable when work is not provided in time is:
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Correct answer: C — Not less than one-fourth of the wage rate for the first thirty days and not less than one-half for the rest of the year
The allowance is not less than one-fourth of the notified wage rate for the first thirty days of the financial year and not less than one-half for the remaining period.
General Dhiraj Seth took over as the Chief of the Army Staff on 30 June 2026. He is the Indian Army's:
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Correct answer: B — 31st COAS
General Dhiraj Seth took over as the 31st Chief of the Army Staff.
From whom did General Dhiraj Seth take over as Chief of the Army Staff on 30 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — General Upendra Dwivedi
General Seth took over from General Upendra Dwivedi, who superannuated on 30 June 2026.
General Dhiraj Seth, who became COAS in June 2026, was commissioned in December 1986 into the:
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Correct answer: A — Armoured Corps
General Seth was commissioned into the Armoured Corps in December 1986.
As a Lieutenant General, the new COAS General Dhiraj Seth commanded which of the Indian Army's strike formations?
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Correct answer: C — Sudarshan Chakra Corps
As a Lieutenant General he commanded the Sudarshan Chakra Corps, one of the Army's premier strike formations, before serving as GOC Delhi Area.
The Ministry of MSME notification of 30 June 2026 makes it mandatory for which entities to settle invoices from MSME suppliers through TReDS platforms?
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Correct answer: A — All operating Central Public Sector Enterprises
The notification mandates all operating CPSEs to route the settlement of invoices for goods and services procured from MSMEs through RBI-authorised TReDS platforms.
TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platforms are authorised and regulated by:
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Correct answer: C — Reserve Bank of India
TReDS is an RBI-regulated electronic platform, and the CPSE mandate is for settlement through TReDS platforms authorised by the RBI.
Since which year has the TReDS platform for discounting trade receivables of MSMEs been operational?
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Correct answer: B — 2017
TReDS is an RBI-regulated electronic platform, operational since 2017, for financing and discounting MSME trade receivables through competitive bidding by multiple financiers.
Which of the following is NOT among the five TReDS platforms currently operational, as listed by the Ministry of MSME in July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — GeM
The five operational TReDS platforms are RXIL, M1xchange, Invoicemart, C2treds and DTX. GeM is the Government e-Marketplace, not a TReDS platform.
Consider the following statements about the TReDS mandate for CPSEs (June 2026): 1. Financing on TReDS is collateral-free and without recourse to the seller. 2. CPSEs must obtain a statutory auditor's certificate of TReDS registration and compliance during their annual audit. 3. Invoice discounting on TReDS was Rs 3.47 lakh crore in FY 2021-22. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Invoice discounting rose from Rs 40,000 crore in FY 2021-22 to Rs 3.47 lakh crore in FY 2025-26, so statement 3 is wrong.
VISHWAS, 2026, which came into force on 29 June 2026 as part of the EPF Scheme, 2026, is meant for:
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Correct answer: A — Settlement of disputes over EPF damages and penalties
VISHWAS, 2026 is a one-time dispute resolution initiative to settle disputes over damages under Section 14B of the EPF & MP Act, 1952 and penalties under Section 128 of the Code on Social Security, 2020.
The EPFO Amnesty Scheme, 2026 grants retrospective exemption to establishments running recognised Provident Fund Trusts under which section of the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
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Correct answer: B — Section 17
Amnesty is granted retrospectively under Section 17 of the EPF & MP Act, 1952 and Section 143 of the Code on Social Security, 2020. Section 14B deals with damages and Section 7Q with interest.
Under VISHWAS, 2026, damages for a default of more than four months, pertaining to the period before 14 June 2024, are recalculated at:
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Correct answer: C — 1.00% per month
The reduced rates are 0.25% a month for defaults up to two months, 0.50% for two to less than four months, and 1.00% for defaults exceeding four months.
Consider the following statements about the EPFO schemes notified in June 2026: 1. Both VISHWAS, 2026 and the Amnesty Scheme, 2026 are part of the EPF Scheme, 2026 notified vide G.S.R. 525(E) dated 29 June 2026. 2. The Amnesty Scheme is open for six months from notification. 3. Cases involving fraud or deliberate falsification of records can be settled under VISHWAS, 2026. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Cases of fraud, misappropriation or deliberate falsification of records are excluded from VISHWAS, 2026, so statement 3 is wrong.
During PM Modi's State Visit to Seychelles (27-29 June 2026), official talks with President Patrick Herminie were held at State House in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Victoria
The talks were held at State House in Victoria, Mahe, on 28 June 2026.
What is the amount of the Line of Credit agreed between India and Seychelles during PM Modi's State Visit in June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Rs 1,250 crore
The Umbrella Line of Credit agreement between the Government of Seychelles and Exim Bank of India stands at Rs 1,250 crore, for projects under India's Special Economic Package.
Seychelles announced in June 2026 that it is joining the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI). Where is the CDRI Secretariat headquartered?
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Correct answer: D — New Delhi
CDRI, launched on India's initiative, is headquartered in New Delhi, and its Secretariat holds the status of an International Organization.
The MoU signed in June 2026 to deploy UPI digital payment infrastructure in Seychelles is between NPCI International Payments Ltd. and:
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Correct answer: B — Central Bank of Seychelles
The MoU between NPCI International Payments Ltd. and the Central Bank of Seychelles will facilitate deployment of UPI in Seychelles.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of PM Modi's State Visit to Seychelles (June 2026): 1. India and Seychelles signed an Extradition Treaty. 2. The refit of PS Zoroaster for the Seychelles Coast Guard was completed. 3. The Line of Credit agreement was signed between the Government of Seychelles and NABARD. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Umbrella Line of Credit agreement was signed with the Export-Import Bank of India, not NABARD.
Which meeting of PRAGATI did Prime Minister Narendra Modi chair on 24 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 52nd
PM Modi chaired the 52nd meeting of PRAGATI on 24 June 2026.
At the 52nd PRAGATI meeting (June 2026), the Prime Minister reviewed infrastructure projects worth about:
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Correct answer: A — Rs 30,000 crore across four states
Four critical infrastructure projects across four states costing around Rs 30,000 crore were reviewed.
Consider the following statements about the 52nd PRAGATI meeting (24 June 2026): 1. Reviewing the TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan, the PM suggested a team of NCC cadets and MY Bharat volunteers for awareness and patient follow-up. 2. The PM reviewed grievances related to cyber crime and digital arrest and stressed the e-Zero FIR registration mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the PMO release on the 52nd PRAGATI meeting.
PRAGATI, the ICT-enabled platform whose 52nd meeting was held in June 2026, stands for:
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Correct answer: B — Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation
PRAGATI is the ICT-enabled, multi-modal platform aimed at fostering Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation by integrating efforts of the Central and State Governments.
As announced by the Ministry of Mines on 23 June 2026, how many critical and strategic mineral blocks have been successfully auctioned by the Central Government in total?
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Correct answer: A — 56
With 10 blocks in the Seventh Tranche, the total reached 56 out of 88 unique blocks taken up for auction.
In the Seventh Tranche of critical mineral auctions (announced 23 June 2026), in which group of States did the Central Government auction critical mineral blocks for the first time?
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Correct answer: C — Gujarat, Uttarakhand and Telangana
The Seventh Tranche saw critical mineral blocks auctioned by the Centre for the first time in Gujarat, Uttarakhand and Telangana. Arunachal Pradesh, UP and Odisha were firsts for Exploration Licence blocks.
The Seventh Tranche of critical mineral auctions (NIT of 23 March 2026) was conducted under which legal framework?
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Correct answer: D — Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 and Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015
The Ministry of Mines stated that the auction was conducted under the provisions of the MMDR Act, 1957 and the Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015, as amended.
Consider the following statements about the mineral auctions announced on 23 June 2026: 1. The Second Tranche of Exploration Licence auctions extended the framework to Arunachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Odisha for the first time. 2. The NIT for the Seventh Tranche offered 10 mineral blocks, all of which were auctioned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the NIT of 23 March 2026 offered 19 blocks, of which 10 were successfully auctioned.
According to the UNCTAD report cited by the Ports Ministry on 22 June 2026, what was India's share of global ship recycling in 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 35.4%
India's share rose to 35.4% in 2025 from 30.1% in 2024, making it the world's top ship recycling nation.
India's ship recycling law is aligned with which international convention, ratified by India in 2019?
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Correct answer: C — Hong Kong International Convention for the Safe and Environmentally Sound Recycling of Ships
The Recycling of Ships Act, 2019 aligns India's ecosystem with the Hong Kong International Convention (HKC), which India ratified in 2019.
Under the Ports Ministry's Ship-breaking Credit Note Scheme, ship owners receive a credit note equivalent to what share of the scrap value of a recycled ship?
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Correct answer: B — 40%
Ship owners receive a credit note equal to 40% of the scrap value, usable toward up to 5% of the value of a new vessel built at an Indian shipyard.
Consider the following statements about India's ship recycling performance, as reported on 22 June 2026: 1. Ship recycling in India rose to 2.99 million gross tons in 2025. 2. Financial assistance of ₹53.5 crore helped 115 facilities become compliant with the Hong Kong Convention. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as stated by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Who has been elected and appointed Vice-President of the FATF for July 2026–June 2027, the first Indian to hold the post?
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Correct answer: A — Vivek Aggarwal
Vivek Aggarwal, Secretary, Ministry of Culture, has been elected and appointed FATF Vice-President for July 2026–June 2027.
At the time of his appointment as FATF Vice-President in June 2026, Vivek Aggarwal was serving as Secretary of which Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Culture
The release describes him as Secretary to the Government of India, Ministry of Culture.
Which body elects the Vice-President of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?
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Correct answer: B — The FATF Plenary, from among its members
The FATF Vice-President is elected by the FATF Plenary from among its members and assists the President.
Consider the following statements about the Financial Action Task Force (FATF): 1. FATF is a Paris-based inter-governmental body that sets global standards to prevent money laundering, terrorist financing and the financing of proliferation. 2. The FATF Presidency runs on a two-year term. 3. The FATF Global Network covers fewer than 100 jurisdictions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the FATF Global Network covers more than 200 jurisdictions.
Exercise Khaan Quest 2026, for which an Indian Army contingent departed on 18 June 2026, is being held in which country?
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Correct answer: C — Mongolia
The exercise is scheduled from 20 June to 3 July 2026 at Five Hills Training Area, Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.
Troops from a Battalion of which regiment lead the 40-member Indian Army contingent at Exercise Khaan Quest 2026?
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Correct answer: A — JAT Regiment
The contingent is represented by troops from a Battalion of the JAT Regiment along with personnel from other Arms and Services.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Khaan Quest: 1. It began in 2003 as a bilateral event between the USA and Mongolian Defence Forces. 2. It became a multilateral peacekeeping exercise from 2006 onwards. 3. It trains contingents for peace support operations under Chapter VI of the UN Charter only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the exercise focuses on peace support operations under Chapter VII of the UN Charter.
In what capacity did India participate in VivaTech 2026, held in Paris in June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — AI Country Partner
India is the AI Country Partner in VivaTech 2026.
How many Indian deep-tech companies and start-ups are participating in VivaTech 2026, according to the PMO?
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Correct answer: D — Over 80
Over 80 Indian deep-tech companies and start-ups are participating, India's largest-ever presence at VivaTech.
India and France are celebrating 2026 as which of the following?
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Correct answer: A — India–France Year of Innovation
The PMO release says the two countries are celebrating 2026 as the India–France Year of Innovation.
Consider the following statements about India's engagement with VivaTech: 1. PM Narendra Modi delivered the keynote address at VivaTech in 2021. 2. India was the first Country of the Year at VivaTech in 2022. 3. VivaTech has formalised collaboration with the Bengaluru Tech Summit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
All three are stated in the PMO release of 18 June 2026.
What was India's record annual defence production in FY 2025-26, as reported by the Ministry of Defence in June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1.78 lakh crore
Defence production reached an all-time high of ₹1.78 lakh crore in FY 2025-26.
What was the private sector's share in India's defence production in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 24%
The private sector contributed 24% in FY 2025-26, up from 22% in FY 2024-25.
Consider the following statements about India's defence sector in FY 2025-26: 1. Defence exports reached a record ₹38,424 crore. 2. Defence production grew 15.6% over the previous fiscal year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Defence release.
Who was appointed Chairperson of the National Statistical Commission in June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Saibal Chattopadhyay
The ACC approved Dr. Saibal Chattopadhyay, former Director of IIM Kolkata, as NSC Chairperson.
Which body approved the appointment of the Chairperson and Members of the National Statistical Commission in June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved the appointments.
In which year was the National Statistical Commission (NSC) set up as the nodal body for all core statistical activities of India?
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Correct answer: A — 2005
MoSPI states that the NSC was set up in 2005.
Consider the following statements about the composition of the National Statistical Commission: 1. It has a part-time Chairperson and four part-time Members. 2. The CEO of NITI Aayog is an ex-officio Member. 3. The Secretary, MoSPI is the Secretary to the NSC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as stated by MoSPI.
Where was the G7 Summit held at which PM Narendra Modi met US President Donald Trump on 17 June 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Evian, France
The two leaders met on the margins of the G7 Summit in Evian, France, on 17 June 2026.
In the India–U.S. COMPACT reviewed by PM Modi and President Trump at Evian, what does the letter 'M' stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Military Partnership
COMPACT stands for Catalyzing Opportunities for Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce and Technology.
Which of the following was NOT among the four suggestions on AI made by PM Modi at the G7 outreach session in Evian on 17 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — A global moratorium on frontier AI models
The four suggestions were safe-by-design AI; common standards, testing frameworks and regulatory guidelines; global cooperation against deepfakes, misinformation and cyber fraud; and AI benefits for the Global South. A moratorium was not proposed.
Where did PM Narendra Modi meet Canadian Prime Minister Mark Carney on 16 June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Evian, France, on the sidelines of the G7 Summit
The two Prime Ministers met on the sidelines of the G7 Summit in Evian, France, on 16 June 2026.
According to the PMO (June 2026), when did Canadian PM Mark Carney visit India?
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Correct answer: D — March 2026
The leaders noted progress since PM Carney's visit to India in March 2026.
What was the title of the G7 outreach session at Evian that PM Modi addressed on 16 June 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Forging New Partnerships and Rebuilding International Solidarity
On 16 June 2026 PM Modi addressed the session 'Forging New Partnerships and Rebuilding International Solidarity'.
At the G7 outreach session in Evian (16 June 2026), PM Modi cited which of the following as examples of India's 'humanity first' approach? 1. International Solar Alliance 2. Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure 3. Global Biofuel Alliance Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PM Modi cited the International Solar Alliance, CDRI, Global Biofuel Alliance, Mission LiFE and Ek Ped Maa ke Naam.
What is the base year of the new Wholesale Price Index (WPI) series released on 15 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 2022-23
The revised WPI series has base year 2022-23 and replaces the 2011-12 series.
How many items does the new WPI series (base 2022-23) cover?
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Correct answer: A — 957
The number of items has increased from 697 in the 2011-12 series to 957.
Which office compiles and releases the Wholesale Price Index in India?
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Correct answer: B — Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT
The Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT, released the revised WPI series.
Consider the following statements about the revised WPI and the new Producer Price Indices (June 2026): 1. Weights in the WPI 2022-23 series are based on Gross Value of Output instead of Net Traded Value. 2. WPI will be released along with PPI for five years and discontinued thereafter. 3. Service PPIs have been compiled for seven services and are released on a quarterly basis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are stated in the DPIIT release. The shift from WPI to PPI follows IMF recommendations.
Which honour did Slovak President Peter Pellegrini confer on PM Narendra Modi on 15 June 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Order of the White Double Cross, First Class
President Pellegrini conferred Slovakia's highest State honour, the Order of the White Double Cross, First Class.
To which level did India and Slovakia elevate their relationship during PM Modi's visit on 15 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Comprehensive Partnership
The two Prime Ministers agreed to elevate the relationship to a Comprehensive Partnership.
At whose invitation did PM Narendra Modi pay the State Visit to Slovakia in June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Prime Minister Robert Fico
The joint statement says the visit was at the invitation of Slovak Prime Minister Robert Fico.
Consider the following statements about India–Slovakia relations: 1. The June 2026 visit was the first by an Indian Prime Minister to Slovakia since its independence in 1993. 2. India and Slovakia established diplomatic relations in 1993. 3. The Order of the White Double Cross was conferred on PM Modi by Prime Minister Robert Fico. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are in the joint statement. Statement 3 is wrong: the honour was conferred by President Peter Pellegrini.
Where did PM Narendra Modi and President Emmanuel Macron hold official talks on 14 June 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Villa Kerylos, Nice
The talks were held at Villa Kerylos in Nice on 14 June 2026.
The Joint India–France AI Working Group created during PM Modi's June 2026 visit to France is focused on which area?
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Correct answer: C — AI governance
The list of outcomes mentions a Joint India–France AI Working Group focused on AI governance.
Under the outcomes of PM Modi's June 2026 visit to France, how many additional Indian start-ups will be incubated at Station F?
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Correct answer: D — 10
The outcomes include incubation of an additional 10 Indian start-ups at Station F.
Consider the following statements about India–France relations: 1. India–France ties were elevated to a 'Special Global Strategic Partnership' on 17 February 2026. 2. The India–France Year of Innovation 2026 was jointly inaugurated by PM Modi and President Macron. 3. The Nice talks of 14 June 2026 were the second meeting of the two leaders since the elevation of ties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are in the Innovation Roadmap 2030 text. Statement 3 is wrong: the PMO says the Nice talks were the first meeting since the elevation.
The Letter of Intent between ISRO and CNES signed during PM Modi's June 2026 France visit concerns cooperation in which field?
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Correct answer: C — Microgravity research and human space exploration
The ISRO–CNES Letter of Intent concerns cooperation in microgravity research and human space exploration.
Where was the maiden edition of Bharat Innovates 2026 inaugurated on 14 June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Palais des Expositions, Nice
PM Modi and President Macron inaugurated Bharat Innovates 2026 at the Palais des Expositions, Nice.
Bharat Innovates 2026 was organised by the Government of India as an initiative of which ministry?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Education
Bharat Innovates was organised as an initiative of the Union Ministry of Education.
How many deep-tech start-ups were presented at Bharat Innovates 2026 in Nice?
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Correct answer: A — 120
Bharat Innovates presented 120 start-ups and over 20 Institutes of Excellence across 13 technology pillars.
Consider the following statements about Bharat Innovates 2026: 1. The Nice event was the first Bharat Innovates held outside India. 2. It is a three-day event. 3. It showcases innovations across 13 critical technology pillars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
All three are stated in the PMO and Ministry of Education releases of 14 June 2026.
Who has been appointed the next Chief of the Army Staff with effect from 30 June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth
The Government appointed Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth, Vice Chief of the Army Staff, as the next Chief from the afternoon of 30 June 2026.
Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth, the Chief of the Army Staff-designate, was commissioned in December 1986 into which arm?
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Correct answer: D — Armoured Corps
He was commissioned into the Armoured Corps in December 1986.
As an Army Commander, Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth earned the rare distinction of commanding which two operational Army Commands?
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Correct answer: A — South Western Command and Southern Command
He commanded South Western Command and Southern Command for over two and a half years.
Consider the following statements: 1. Under Article 53(2) of the Constitution, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union is vested in the President. 2. Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth was serving as Vice Chief of the Army Staff when appointed the next Army Chief. 3. General Upendra Dwivedi retires on 30 June 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is from Article 53(2). Statements 2 and 3 are in the Ministry of Defence release of 13 June 2026.
What was all-India retail inflation (CPI, base 2024) for May 2026, as released on 12 June 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 3.93%
Headline CPI inflation for May 2026 was 3.93% (provisional).
What was food inflation based on the All India Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) for May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 4.78%
CFPI-based food inflation for May 2026 was 4.78% (provisional).
According to the CPI release for May 2026, how did rural and urban retail inflation compare?
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Correct answer: B — Rural 4.25%, urban 3.53%
Rural inflation was 4.25% and urban inflation was 3.53%.
Consider the following statements about the CPI release of 12 June 2026: 1. The CPI series used has 2024 as its base year (2024=100). 2. The release is issued by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. 3. Rural inflation in May 2026 was higher than urban inflation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: the series is on base 2024=100, released by MoSPI, and rural inflation (4.25%) exceeded urban (3.53%).