Entrance & Scholarship Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What total financial penalty did DGCA impose on IndiGo over its December 2025 flight disruptions?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — ₹22.20 crore
PIB (Civil Aviation): ₹1.80 crore in one-time penalties plus ₹20.40 crore for 68 days of continued non-compliance, a total of ₹22.20 crore. The ₹50 crore is a bank guarantee, not a penalty.
Under which scheme must IndiGo furnish a ₹50 crore bank guarantee, released in phases as reforms are verified?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — IndiGo Systemic Reform Assurance Scheme (ISRAS)
PIB (Civil Aviation): the ₹50 crore bank guarantee is under the IndiGo Systemic Reform Assurance Scheme (ISRAS).
How many IndiGo flights were cancelled during the disruptions of 3–5 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 2,507
PIB (Civil Aviation): 2,507 flights were cancelled and 1,852 delayed.
Consider the following statements about DGCA's action on IndiGo (January 2026): 1. DGCA formed a four-member committee to inquire into the disruptions. 2. The penalties were imposed under Rule 133A of the Aircraft Rules, 1937. 3. Over 30 lakh passengers were affected by the disruptions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Civil Aviation): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: over 3 lakh (not 30 lakh) passengers were affected.
Which IndiGo official is to be relieved of operational duties following DGCA's findings on the December 2025 disruptions?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — The SVP (OCC)
PIB (Civil Aviation): the CEO was cautioned and the COO warned, while the SVP (OCC) is to be relieved of operational duties.
Under the proposed Seed Act 2026, what will every seed packet carry so that farmers can trace the seed's origin?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — A QR code
PIB (Agriculture): every seed packet will carry a QR code which, when scanned, shows complete information about its origin.
What maximum penalty has been proposed under the new Seed Act for selling substandard seeds?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — ₹30 lakh
PIB (Agriculture): a penalty of up to ₹30 lakh and stringent punishment have been proposed for selling substandard seeds.
Consider the following statements about the proposed Seed Act 2026, as explained by the Agriculture Minister: 1. Registration of seed companies will be mandatory. 2. Farmers will be barred from sharing their own seeds with other farmers. 3. A nationwide seed traceability system will be set up. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Agriculture): statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: farmers can sow their own seeds and share them with other farmers.
According to the PM's address on National Startup Day 2026, where does India rank among the world's startup ecosystems?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Third
PIB (PMO): the PM said India is today the world's third-largest startup ecosystem.
How many startups does India have now, according to the PM at the Startup India decade programme?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — More than 2 lakh
PIB (PMO): fewer than 500 startups ten years ago have grown to more than 2 lakh today.
According to the PM, India had only four unicorns in 2014. About how many active unicorns does it have now?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 125
PIB (PMO): India had only four unicorns in 2014; today there are nearly 125 active unicorns.
Where was the programme marking a decade of Startup India held on 16 January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam
PIB (PMO): the programme was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Where was the 28th Conference of Speakers and Presiding Officers of the Commonwealth (CSPOC) inaugurated in January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Central Hall, Samvidhan Sadan, New Delhi
PIB (PMO): the PM inaugurated the 28th CSPOC in the Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan, Parliament House Complex, New Delhi.
What is the main theme of the 28th CSPOC hosted by India in January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Effective Delivery of Parliamentary Democracy
PIB (PMO): the PM said the main theme of the conference is 'Effective Delivery of Parliamentary Democracy'.
According to the PM, how many times has India hosted the CSPOC, counting the 2026 edition?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Fourth time
PIB (PMO): the PM said this is the fourth occasion when the conference is being held in India.
The Export Preparedness Index 2024, released in January 2026, is which edition of the index?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Fourth
PIB (NITI Aayog): the first edition of the EPI was published in August 2020 and EPI 2024 is the 4th edition.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four pillars of the Export Preparedness Index 2024?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Research & Innovation
PIB (NITI Aayog): the four pillars are Export Infrastructure, Business Ecosystem, Policy & Governance and Export Performance.
Which of the following was NOT listed among the leading performers in the 'Large States' category of the Export Preparedness Index 2024?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Karnataka
PIB (NITI Aayog): the leading large states were Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh. Karnataka was not in the list.
From which Indian port did INSV Kaundinya begin the maiden voyage that ended in Muscat in January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Porbandar
PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): INSV Kaundinya arrived in Muscat after completing its maiden voyage from Porbandar.
The design of INSV Kaundinya is inspired by a fifth-century CE vessel depicted in which artwork?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Ajanta Cave paintings
PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): INSV Kaundinya is inspired by a fifth-century CE vessel depicted in the Ajanta Cave paintings.
INSV Kaundinya's arrival in Muscat came as India and Oman commemorate how many years of diplomatic relations?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 70 years
PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): both countries are commemorating 70 years of diplomatic relations.
What is the minimum initial and annual contribution under NPS Vatsalya, as per the guidelines issued in January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — ₹250
PIB (Finance): the minimum initial and annual contribution is ₹250, with no maximum limit.
Consider the following statements about NPS Vatsalya: 1. It is open to NRIs and OCIs below 18 years of age. 2. Partial withdrawal is allowed after three years, up to 25% of own contributions. 3. There is a maximum annual contribution limit of ₹1.5 lakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Finance): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: there is no maximum limit on contribution.
On which date was NPS Vatsalya launched by the Union Finance Minister?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 18 September 2024
PIB (Finance): NPS Vatsalya was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25 and launched on 18 September 2024.
In which city did PM Narendra Modi hold talks with German Chancellor Friedrich Merz on 12 January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Ahmedabad
PIB (PMO): PM Modi welcomed Chancellor Merz in Ahmedabad, and the two held restricted and delegation-level talks there on 12 January 2026.
Consider the following statements about German Chancellor Friedrich Merz's visit to India in January 2026: 1. It was his first visit to Asia as Federal Chancellor. 2. 2026 marks 75 years of India–Germany diplomatic relations. 3. The visit followed the 7th India–Germany Inter-Governmental Consultations held in Berlin. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO Joint Statement): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the 7th IGC was held in New Delhi on 25 October 2024.
Which travel facility for Indian passport holders was announced during German Chancellor Merz's visit to India in January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Visa-free transit through Germany
PIB (PMO List of Outcomes): the announcements included visa-free transit for Indian passport holders transiting through Germany.
What was India's year-on-year CPI (headline) inflation for December 2025, as released by MoSPI on 12 January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1.33%
PIB (MoSPI): headline CPI inflation for December 2025 was 1.33% (provisional), 62 basis points higher than November 2025.
What was the all-India food inflation (CFPI) for December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — −2.71%
PIB (MoSPI): CFPI inflation for December 2025 was −2.71% (provisional); rural −3.08% and urban −2.09%.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for December 2025: 1. Headline inflation stayed below the RBI's lower tolerance limit for the fourth consecutive month. 2. Food inflation was negative for the seventh consecutive month. 3. Headline inflation fell compared with November 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoSPI): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: headline inflation rose by 62 basis points over November 2025.
Consider the following statements about India's inflation target, relevant to the December 2025 CPI data: 1. The Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, determines the inflation target under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934. 2. The target is 4% CPI inflation with a lower tolerance limit of 2% and an upper tolerance limit of 6%. 3. The six-member Monetary Policy Committee is constituted under Section 45ZA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
RBI (Monetary Policy overview): the target is set under Section 45ZA, at 4% CPI with 2% and 6% tolerance limits, retained for April 2021 to March 2026. Statement 3 is wrong: the MPC is constituted under Section 45ZB.
Under which Act were the National Sports Governance (National Sports Bodies) Rules, 2026 notified?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — National Sports Governance Act, 2025
PIB (Sports): the Rules were notified under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025.
Under the National Sports Governance (National Sports Bodies) Rules, 2026, what share of the Sportspersons of Outstanding Merit in a General Body must be women?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Fifty per cent
PIB (Sports): the Rules provide for at least four SOMs in General Bodies and specifically provide for fifty per cent women SOMs.
What is the minimum age for a sportsperson applying to be designated a Sportsperson of Outstanding Merit (SOM) under the 2026 Rules?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 25 years
PIB (Sports): SOM applicants must be at least 25, retired from active sport, and must not have played selection-linked competition for at least one year.
Where was the 16th Assembly of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) held in January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Abu Dhabi
PIB (MNRE): Pralhad Joshi addressed the 16th IRENA Assembly in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates.
According to India's statement at the 16th IRENA Assembly, in which year did India reach 50% of installed electricity capacity from non-fossil sources?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 2025
PIB (MNRE): India achieved 50% of its installed electricity capacity from non-fossil sources in 2025, five years ahead of its NDC target.
Which country assumed the Presidency of IRENA at its 16th Assembly in January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Dominican Republic
PIB (MNRE): Joshi congratulated the Dominican Republic on assuming the IRENA Presidency; Kenya, Solomon Islands, Spain and Antigua and Barbuda are Vice Presidents.
Consider the following statements about the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), as stated in January 2026: 1. IRENA has 170 members, including the European Union. 2. India is one of the founder members of IRENA. 3. India's target is 500 GW of non-fossil installed capacity by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MNRE): all three are correct — IRENA has 170 members (169 states and the EU), India is a founder member, and India's target is 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030.
How much new non-fossil capacity did India add in 2025, according to MNRE (January 2026)?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 49.12 GW
PIB (MNRE): 49.12 GW of new non-fossil capacity was added in 2025.
What was India's installed solar capacity at the end of 2025, as reported by MNRE?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 135.81 GW
PIB (MNRE): solar capacity rose from 97.86 GW in 2024 to 135.81 GW in 2025.
Consider the following statements based on MNRE data released in January 2026: 1. India's non-fossil installed capacity grew by 22.6% in 2025 to 266.78 GW. 2. Wind capacity grew faster than solar capacity in 2025. 3. India's national target is 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (MNRE): statements 1 and 3 are correct; solar grew 38.8% while wind grew only 13.2%, so statement 2 is wrong.
With whom did Piyush Goyal hold India–EU FTA talks in Brussels on 8–9 January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Maroš Šefčovič
PIB (Commerce): Goyal held talks with Maroš Šefčovič, EU Commissioner for Trade and Economic Security.
Consider the following statements about the India–EU FTA engagement in January 2026: 1. Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agrawal met the European Commission's Director-General for Trade, Sabine Weyand, on 6–7 January. 2. The talks were held in Geneva. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Commerce): Rajesh Agrawal and Sabine Weyand met on 6–7 January; the talks were held in Brussels, not Geneva.
Against how many restaurants did the CCPA take suo motu cognizance in January 2026 for levying mandatory service charge?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 27
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the CCPA took suo motu cognizance against 27 restaurants across the country.
Under which provision of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 did the CCPA treat default service charge as an unfair trade practice in January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Section 2(47)
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the action was for unfair trade practices under Section 2(47) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Consider the following statements about the CCPA's guidelines on service charge, as cited in January 2026: 1. The guidelines were issued on 4 July 2022. 2. They allow service charge if it is collected under a different name. 3. The Delhi High Court upheld them in a judgment dated 28 March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the guidelines were issued on 4 July 2022 and were upheld by the Delhi High Court on 28 March 2025; they say no service charge shall be collected by any other name, so statement 2 is wrong.
From which date will the three-year nationwide anti-drug campaign announced at the 9th NCORD apex meeting begin?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 31 March 2026
PIB (Home Affairs): a collective campaign against drugs will be carried out for three years from 31 March 2026.
Where did Amit Shah inaugurate a new Narcotics Control Bureau office on 9 January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Amritsar
PIB (Home Affairs): the Home Minister inaugurated the NCB office at Amritsar at the NCORD meeting.
Consider the following statements about the Narco-Coordination Centre (NCORD), as stated in January 2026: 1. The NCORD mechanism was established in 2016. 2. It aims to improve coordination between the States, the Ministry of Home Affairs and other stakeholders on drugs. 3. Its 9th Apex-Level meeting was chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Home Affairs): statements 1 and 2 are correct; the 9th Apex-Level meeting was chaired by Home Minister Amit Shah, not the PM.
Who chairs the Search-cum-Selection Committee for the National Sports Board under the rules notified in January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Cabinet Secretary
PIB (Youth Affairs and Sports): the committee is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary.
Under which law were the National Sports Board (Search-cum-Selection Committee) Rules, 2026 notified?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — National Sports Governance Act, 2025
PIB (Youth Affairs and Sports): the rules were notified under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Board, as described in January 2026: 1. Its Search-cum-Selection Committee includes two recipients of national sports awards. 2. The committee recommends names for the Board's Chairperson and two Members. 3. The Board will grant recognition to National Sports Bodies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Youth Affairs and Sports): all three are correct.
What real GDP growth rate for 2025-26 did the NSO's First Advance Estimates (January 2026) project?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 7.4%
PIB (MoSPI): real GDP is estimated to grow by 7.4% in 2025-26 against 6.5% in 2024-25.
Which base year is used for the constant-price GDP figures in the First Advance Estimates for 2025-26?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 2011-12
PIB (MoSPI): the estimates are given at constant (2011-12) and current prices.
What is the estimated level of real GDP (constant prices) for 2025-26 in the First Advance Estimates?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — ₹201.90 lakh crore
PIB (MoSPI): real GDP is estimated at ₹201.90 lakh crore in 2025-26, against ₹187.97 lakh crore in 2024-25.
Consider the following statements based on the First Advance Estimates of GDP for 2025-26: 1. Nominal GDP is estimated to grow at 8.0%. 2. Real GVA is estimated to grow at 7.3%. 3. Agriculture and allied sector is estimated to grow faster than manufacturing and construction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoSPI): statements 1 and 2 are correct; agriculture is estimated at 3.1% against 7.0% for manufacturing and construction, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many proposals were approved in the third tranche of the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) on 2 January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 22
PIB (MeitY): 22 proposals were approved in the third tranche; 24 had been approved earlier, taking the total to 46.
What is the projected investment of the 22 ECMS proposals approved in January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ₹41,863 crore
PIB (MeitY): projected investment is ₹41,863 crore; ₹2,58,152 crore is projected production and ₹12,704 crore was the earlier tranche.
Consider the following statements about the third tranche of ECMS approvals (January 2026): 1. The approved products include anode material, a critical item for lithium-ion cells. 2. The approved units are spread across eight states. 3. The approvals cover only bare components and no sub-assemblies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MeitY): anode material is among the supply-chain items, and the units are in eight states. Three sub-assemblies (camera module, display module, optical transceiver) were also approved, so statement 3 is wrong.
In his video-conference with MGNREGA functionaries on 30 December 2025 about the VB-G RAM G Act, Shivraj Singh Chouhan interacted with roughly how many functionaries?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Over 2 lakh
PIB (Rural Development): more than 2 lakh MGNREGA functionaries joined from about 45,000 locations.
The Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB-G RAM G) Act, 2025 replaces which law?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
PIB (assent release, 21 December 2025): the Act replaces the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005.
Consider the following statements about the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. It guarantees not less than 125 days of wage employment per rural household in each financial year. 2. States may notify a pause period aggregating sixty days in a financial year to free labour for peak sowing and harvesting. 3. Its cost is shared 75:25 between the Centre and all States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (assent release): Section 5(1) guarantees at least 125 days and Section 6 allows a 60-day aggregate pause. Cost-sharing is 60:40, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States and 100% central for UTs without legislatures, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, what is the Centre–State cost-sharing ratio for North Eastern and Himalayan States?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 90:10
PIB (assent release): the cost-sharing pattern is 60:40 between Centre and States, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States, and 100% central funding for UTs without legislatures.
What is the total corpus of the Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Scheme (SBFAS), whose guidelines were notified on 27 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ₹24,736 crore
PIB (MoPSW): SBFAS has a total corpus of ₹24,736 crore. ₹19,989 crore is the SbDS outlay, ₹44,700 crore the combined outlay, and ₹96,000 crore the projects SBFAS is expected to support.
Under the Shipbreaking Credit Note introduced by SBFAS, ship owners scrapping vessels at Indian yards receive a credit equal to what share of the scrap value?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 40%
PIB (MoPSW): ship owners scrapping vessels at Indian yards will receive a credit equivalent to 40% of the scrap value.
Under the Shipbuilding Development Scheme (SbDS), the India Ship Technology Centre will be set up under which institution?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Indian Maritime University
PIB (MoPSW): SbDS provides for an India Ship Technology Centre under the Indian Maritime University to support research, design, innovation and skills.
Consider the following statements about the shipbuilding schemes whose guidelines were notified in December 2025: 1. SBFAS provides financial assistance of 15% to 25% per vessel, depending on the vessel category. 2. Greenfield shipbuilding clusters get 100% capital support through a 50:50 Centre–State special purpose vehicle. 3. Both SBFAS and SbDS are valid only until 31 March 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoPSW): SBFAS gives 15–25% per vessel and greenfield clusters get 100% capital support via a 50:50 Centre–State SPV. Both schemes are valid until 31 March 2036, with an in-principle extension to 2047, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which agency organised the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025 inaugurated in New Delhi on 26 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — National Investigation Agency
PIB 2208950: the two-day conference was organised by the National Investigation Agency (NIA) under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
According to the Home Minister at the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025, the terrorists who carried out the Baisaran (Pahalgam) attack were neutralised through:
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Operation Mahadev
PIB 2208950: the planners were punished through Operation Sindoor and those who carried out the attack were neutralised through Operation Mahadev.
Consider the following statements about the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025: 1. An Organised Crime Network Database was launched at the conference. 2. The Home Minister asked states to adopt a common ATS structure for their police. 3. It was a one-day conference organised by the Intelligence Bureau. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208950: the Organised Crime Network Database was launched and states were asked to implement a common ATS structure. The conference was a two-day event organised by the NIA, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many children received the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar on 26 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 20
PIB backgrounder: 20 children from 18 States and Union Territories were selected for the PMRBP 2025.
Where was the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2025 conferred by the President on 26 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Vigyan Bhawan
PIB backgrounder: the awards were conferred at a special ceremony at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. The national Veer Bal Diwas programme was held separately at Bharat Mandapam.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar: 1. It is given to Indian children aged 5 to 18 years as on 31 July of the year. 2. A maximum of 25 awards are normally conferred in a year. 3. The award is never conferred posthumously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB backgrounder: eligibility is 5–18 years as on 31 July and at most 25 awards are given annually. Posthumous conferment is possible in rare cases, and two 2025 bravery awards were posthumous, so statement 3 is wrong.
The selection committee for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar is chaired by the:
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Secretary, Ministry of Women and Child Development
PIB backgrounder: the PMRBP Committee is constituted by the Minister for Women and Child Development and chaired by the Secretary, MWCD.
India will chair which international initiative against trade in 'conflict diamonds' from 1 January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Kimberley Process
PIB 2208375: the Kimberley Process Plenary selected India to assume the chairpersonship of the Kimberley Process from 1 January 2026.
How many times will India have chaired the Kimberley Process when it takes over in 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Third
PIB 2208375: this will be the third time India has been entrusted with the chair of the Kimberley Process.
Consider the following statements about the Kimberley Process: 1. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme came into effect on 1 January 2003. 2. It has 60 participants, with the European Union and its member states counted as one. 3. Its participants account for about three-fourths of global rough diamond trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208375: KPCS came into effect on 1 January 2003 and KP has 60 participants (EU counted as one). Participants account for over 99% of global rough diamond trade, so statement 3 is wrong.
In which script is the Santhali version of the Constitution of India, released on 25 December 2025, written?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Ol Chiki
PIB 2208453: the President said the Constitution is now available in the Santhali language, written in the Ol Chiki script.
Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
PIB 2208453 and 2208484: Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
Consider the following statements about the Santhali Constitution released in December 2025: 1. The Ol Chiki script was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925. 2. The translation was published by the Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice. 3. It was released at a joint sitting in Parliament House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208484: Ol Chiki was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925 and the translation was published by the Legislative Department. It was released at Rashtrapati Bhavan, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), which completed 25 years in December 2025, was launched on:
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 25 December 2000
PIB backgrounder 2208381: PMGSY was launched on 25 December 2000 to ensure all-weather connectivity to unconnected rural habitations.
PMGSY-IV (2024–29) aims to connect how many rural habitations?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 25,000
PIB backgrounder 2208381: under PMGSY-IV, 25,000 habitations are to be connected through 62,500 km of roads with an outlay of ₹70,125 crore. (1,63,339 habitations were sanctioned under Phase I.)
In which year was the Road Connectivity Project for Left Wing Extremism Affected Areas (RCPLWEA) under the PMGSY framework launched?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 2016
PIB backgrounder 2208381: RCPLWEA was launched in 2016 as a targeted intervention; PMGSY Phase II began in 2013.
Which body has the Environment Ministry asked to identify additional no-mining zones and prepare a Management Plan for Sustainable Mining for the Aravallis (December 2025)?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education
PIB 2208234: MoEF&CC directed ICFRE to identify additional areas where mining should be prohibited while preparing the MPSM for the entire Aravalli region.
As described by the Environment Ministry in December 2025, the Aravalli Range stretches between:
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Gujarat and the National Capital Region
PIB 2208234: the Aravallis form a continuous geological ridge extending from Gujarat to the National Capital Region.
Consider the following statements about the Centre's December 2025 directions on the Aravallis: 1. States must not grant any new mining leases anywhere in the Aravallis. 2. All mines already operating in the Aravallis must close immediately. 3. The Management Plan for Sustainable Mining will be placed in the public domain for consultation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208234: the ban covers grant of new mining leases and the MPSM will be placed in the public domain. Existing mines are to be regulated stringently in line with the Supreme Court's order, not closed, so statement 2 is wrong.
The BlueBird Block-2 satellite launched by LVM3-M6 on 24 December 2025 belongs to which company?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — AST SpaceMobile
ISRO and PIB 2208090: the mission launched the BlueBird Block-2 satellite of US-based AST SpaceMobile under a commercial agreement with NSIL.
Into which orbit did LVM3-M6 place the BlueBird Block-2 satellite?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Low Earth Orbit
ISRO and The Hindu: LVM3-M6 placed BlueBird Block-2 in low Earth orbit (LEO).
Consider the following statements about ISRO's LVM3: 1. LVM3-M6 was the sixth operational flight of LVM3. 2. LVM3's upper stage is the C25 cryogenic stage. 3. LVM3 can carry about 8,000 kg to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: LVM3-M6 is the sixth operational flight and LVM3 has S200 strap-ons, an L110 core and a C25 cryogenic upper stage. Its GTO capability is 4,200 kg, so statement 3 is wrong.
Who was conferred the Rashtriya Vigyan Ratna Puraskar 2025 (posthumously) on 23 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Jayant Vishnu Narlikar
PIB 2207860: the Vigyan Ratna for lifetime achievement was awarded posthumously to astrophysicist Prof. Jayant Vishnu Narlikar.
The Rashtriya Vigyan Team Puraskar 2025 was won by which team, credited with the 'Purple Revolution'?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — CSIR Aroma Mission
PIB 2207860: the Vigyan Team Award went to the CSIR-led Aroma Mission, which promoted lavender cultivation in the Himalayan region ('Purple Revolution').
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2025: 1. It was the second edition of the awards. 2. The Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is for scientists below the age of 45. 3. Lavender cultivation promoted by the winning team began at Bhaderwah and Gulmarg. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207860: the 2025 ceremony was the second edition; Vigyan Yuva–SSB is for scientists below 45; and lavender entrepreneurship began from Bhaderwah and Gulmarg in J&K. All three are correct.
Under the India–New Zealand FTA concluded in December 2025, New Zealand will provide zero-duty access on what share of its tariff lines for Indian exports?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 100%
PIB 2207300: New Zealand will eliminate tariffs on 100% of its tariff lines, giving duty-free access to all Indian exports.
How much investment has New Zealand committed to facilitate into India under the FTA concluded in December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — USD 20 billion over 15 years
PIB 2207300: New Zealand has committed to facilitate investments of USD 20 billion into India over the next fifteen years.
Consider the following statements about the India–New Zealand FTA: 1. Negotiations were formally launched on 16 March 2025. 2. India has kept dairy products out of its market access offer. 3. The FTA provides a quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas for Indian professionals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207300: talks were launched on 16 March 2025, market access excludes dairy, and there is a quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas. All three are correct.
How many days of wage employment per rural household per financial year does the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025 guarantee?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 125
PIB 2207187 and the Act's Section 5(1): not less than 125 days, up from the earlier 100-day entitlement under MGNREGA.
Which law does the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025, which received Presidential assent in December 2025, replace?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
PIB 2207187: the Act replaces MGNREGA, 2005. The Gazette text says MGNREGA stands repealed from an appointed date notified by the Centre.
Consider the following statements about the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. Centre–State cost sharing is 60:40, and 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States. 2. States may notify a pause aggregating to sixty days in a financial year during peak sowing and harvesting seasons. 3. The ceiling on administrative expenditure has been reduced from 9% to 6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207187: cost sharing is 60:40 (90:10 for NE and Himalayan States) and States may notify a 60-day aggregate pause. The administrative ceiling was raised from 6% to 9%, so statement 3 is wrong.
Consider the following statements about the Gazette text of the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. It is Act No. 36 of 2025. 2. MGNREGA, 2005 stood repealed on the date of the President's assent. 3. The cost of the material component of works shall not exceed 40% at the district level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Gazette (PRS copy): Act No. 36 of 2025, and the material component is capped at 40% at district level. MGNREGA stands repealed from an appointed date notified by the Centre, not on the date of assent, so statement 2 is wrong.