BSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many officers did the Election Commission decide in September 2025 to deploy as central observers for the Bihar election and bye-elections?
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Correct answer: A — 470
The ECI decided to deploy 470 officers: 320 IAS, 60 IPS and 90 from IRS/IRAS/ICAS and other services.
Under which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 does the Election Commission deploy observers?
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Correct answer: C — Section 20B
Observers are deployed under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the RP Act, 1951.
Consider the following pairs of assembly constituencies and states/UT where bye-elections were announced in 2025: 1. Ghatsila – Jharkhand 2. Nuapada – Odisha 3. Dampa – Manipur How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: D — Only two
Ghatsila (Jharkhand) and Nuapada (Odisha) are correct; Dampa is in Mizoram, not Manipur.
Who represented India at the General Debate of the 80th session of the UN General Assembly on 27 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — S. Jaishankar
External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar delivered India's statement at the General Debate on 27 September 2025.
At UNGA 80, EAM Jaishankar said India has undertaken more than 600 development projects in how many countries?
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Correct answer: C — 78
The minister cited more than 600 development projects in 78 countries as part of India's contribution to the Global South.
Which line did EAM Jaishankar use to conclude his call for international cooperation at UNGA 80?
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Correct answer: B — "Islands of prosperity cannot flourish in an ocean of turbulence"
The minister said "International cooperation must prevail because islands of prosperity cannot flourish in an ocean of turbulence".
Consider the following statements about EAM Jaishankar's address at UNGA 80: 1. The minister called for expanding only the non-permanent membership of the Security Council. 2. The minister said the UN had overcome gridlock through recent reforms. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: he called for expanding both permanent and non-permanent membership, and said the UN "remains gridlocked" and is in a state of crisis owing to resistance to reform.
What was the theme of World Tourism Day 2025, observed on 27 September?
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Correct answer: D — Tourism and Sustainable Transformation
The 2025 theme was 'Tourism and Sustainable Transformation'.
Who was the chief guest at the Ministry of Tourism's World Tourism Day event on 27 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Suman Bery
NITI Aayog Vice Chairperson Suman Bery was chief guest; MoS Suresh Gopi presided.
In which part of the ICAO Council was India re-elected on 27 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Part II
India was re-elected to Part II, which comprises States making the largest contribution to facilities for international civil air navigation.
In which city was the 42nd ICAO Assembly, where India was re-elected to the ICAO Council, held?
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Correct answer: B — Montreal
The election took place on 27 September 2025 during the 42nd ICAO Assembly in Montreal.
Consider the following statements about the ICAO Council: 1. The ICAO Council has 36 members elected by the Assembly for a three-year term. 2. India has been a member of ICAO since its founding in 1944. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the 36-member Council is elected for three years by the 193-State Assembly, and India is a founding member since 1944.
With the addition of two Bihar wetlands on 26 September 2025, how many Ramsar sites does India have?
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Correct answer: C — 93
Gokul Jalashay and Udaipur Jheel took India's total to 93 Ramsar sites covering 13,60,719 ha.
In which district of Bihar is Gokul Jalashay, declared a Ramsar site in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Buxar
Gokul Jalashay (448 ha) is in Buxar district; Udaipur Jheel (319 ha) is in West Champaran.
Udaipur Jheel, added to the Ramsar list in September 2025, is located in which state?
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Correct answer: B — Bihar
Udaipur Jheel (319 ha) is in West Champaran district, Bihar.
Consider the following statements about the Ramsar sites added in September 2025: 1. Udaipur Jheel is larger in area than Gokul Jalashay. 2. Both new sites are in Uttar Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: Gokul Jalashay (448 ha) is larger than Udaipur Jheel (319 ha), and both are in Bihar.
How much was transferred to each woman beneficiary at the launch of Bihar's Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana on 26 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
₹10,000 each was transferred to 75 lakh women, a total of ₹7,500 crore.
How many women received the first instalment under Bihar's Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana on 26 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 75 lakh
75 lakh women received ₹10,000 each.
Up to how much further support can a beneficiary get under Bihar's Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana, depending on the success of her enterprise?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2 lakh
After the initial ₹10,000, support of up to ₹2 lakh is possible based on the enterprise's success.
Consider the following statements about the Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana: 1. It is a scheme of the Government of Bihar. 2. Up to two women from each family can be beneficiaries. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the scheme supports one woman from each family.
Farmers of which three states received the 21st instalment of PM-KISAN first, on 26 September 2025, because of recent floods?
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Correct answer: C — Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Uttarakhand
The 21st instalment was prioritised for flood- and landslide-hit Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Uttarakhand.
About how much money was transferred to farmers in the three flood-hit states under the 21st PM-KISAN instalment on 26 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Over ₹540 crore
More than ₹540 crore went to over 27 lakh farmers, including about 2.7 lakh women farmers.
How much does the Government of India plan to borrow through dated securities in the second half of FY 2025-26, as announced on 26 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹6.77 lakh crore
The H2 FY 2025-26 borrowing plan is ₹6.77 lakh crore, including ₹10,000 crore of Sovereign Green Bonds.
What Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit did the RBI fix for the second half of FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹50,000 crore
The RBI fixed the WMA limit for H2 FY 2025-26 at ₹50,000 crore.
Consider the following statements about the government's borrowing plan for H2 FY 2025-26: 1. It includes ₹10,000 crore through Sovereign Green Bonds. 2. The 30-year security has the largest share of the borrowing. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the 10-year security has the largest share (28.4%); the 30-year share is 9.2%.
When was the Inland Speed Post (document) tariff last revised before the revision effective 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — October 2012
The tariff was last revised in October 2012; the new tariff is effective from 1 October 2025.
What discount on Speed Post tariff did the Department of Posts introduce for students in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 10%
Students get a 10% discount on Speed Post tariff; new bulk customers get 5%.
In its right of reply at UNGA on 26 September 2025, India said Pakistan had shielded which outfit over the massacre of tourists in Jammu and Kashmir?
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Correct answer: C — The Resistance Front
India said Pakistan shielded The Resistance Front, a Pakistan-sponsored terror outfit, from responsibility for the massacre of tourists in J&K.
India exercised its right of reply at the 80th UN General Assembly on 26 September 2025 in response to the speech of:
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Correct answer: A — The Prime Minister of Pakistan
India's reply responded to the speech of the Prime Minister of Pakistan, condemning his "absurd theatrics".
How many LCA Mk1A aircraft did the Defence Ministry contract from HAL on 25 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 97
The contract covers 97 LCA Mk1A aircraft – 68 fighters and 29 twin-seaters.
What is the approximate value of the LCA Mk1A contract signed with HAL on 25 September 2025 (excluding taxes)?
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Correct answer: C — ₹62,370 crore
The contract is worth over ₹62,370 crore, excluding taxes.
Under which Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020 category is the 97 LCA Mk1A purchase made?
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Correct answer: B — Buy (India-IDDM)
The acquisition is under the 'Buy (India-IDDM)' category of DAP 2020.
Which indigenous radar is among the systems to be integrated in the 97 LCA Mk1A aircraft ordered in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — UTTAM AESA
Indigenous systems to be integrated include the UTTAM AESA radar, Swayam Raksha Kavach and control surface actuators.
Consider the following statements about the LCA Mk1A contract of September 2025: 1. Deliveries will begin in 2027-28. 2. The aircraft will have an indigenous content of over 80%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: deliveries start in 2027-28 and will be completed over six years. Statement 2 is wrong: indigenous content will be over 64%.
According to MoSPI's 'Children in India 2025', what was India's infant mortality rate in 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 25
The infant mortality rate fell from 44 in 2011 to 25 in 2023.
Where was MoSPI's 'Children in India 2025' released, during the 29th Conference of Central and State Statistical Organisations?
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Correct answer: D — Chandigarh
It was released at the 29th CoCSSO in Chandigarh on 25 September 2025.
Under the ECI decision of 25 September 2025, which round of EVM/VVPAT counting can be taken up only after postal ballot counting is completed?
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Correct answer: B — The penultimate (second-last) round
The penultimate round of EVM/VVPAT counting will be taken up only after postal ballot counting is completed at that centre.
At what time does EVM counting start on counting day, according to the ECI?
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Correct answer: D — 8:30 AM
Postal ballot counting starts at 8:00 AM and EVM counting at 8:30 AM.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's postal ballot counting decision of September 2025: 1. The ECI described it as its 30th initiative in six months. 2. The ECI cited a fall in the number of postal ballots as the reason. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: postal ballots have increased substantially because of home voting for PwDs and voters aged 85+.
Under the XV Finance Commission, untied grants to rural local bodies can be used for subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Eleventh Schedule
Untied grants can be used for location-specific needs under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule, except salaries and establishment costs.
Which state received the largest share of the XV Finance Commission untied grants released on 25 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received ₹1,548.38 crore, Bihar ₹801.01 crore and Himachal Pradesh ₹67.96 crore.
From what kind of platform was the Agni-Prime missile launched for the first time on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — A rail-based mobile launcher
DRDO and SFC launched Agni-Prime from a specially designed rail-based mobile launcher – a first-of-its-kind launch.
What is the range of the Agni-Prime missile, as stated by DRDO?
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Correct answer: D — Up to 2,000 km
The next-generation Agni-Prime missile is designed to cover a range of up to 2,000 km.
Which organisation carried out the rail-based Agni-Prime launch along with DRDO in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Strategic Forces Command
DRDO carried out the launch in collaboration with the Strategic Forces Command (SFC).
Consider the following statements about the Agni-Prime launch of 24 September 2025: 1. It was the first-ever flight test of the Agni-Prime missile. 2. The road-mobile version of Agni-P has already been inducted into service. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong: it was the first launch from a rail-based launcher; the road-mobile Agni-P was inducted after a series of successful flight trials.
What is the total size of the shipbuilding and maritime package approved by the Union Cabinet on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹69,725 crore
The Cabinet approved a ₹69,725 crore four-pillar package for the shipbuilding and maritime sector.
Until when has the Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Scheme been extended under the September 2025 package?
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Correct answer: C — 31 March 2036
SBFAS is extended until 31 March 2036 with a total corpus of ₹24,736 crore.
The Shipbuilding Development Scheme approved in September 2025 aims to expand domestic shipbuilding capacity to what level?
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Correct answer: D — 4.5 million GT
The ₹19,989 crore Shipbuilding Development Scheme aims to expand capacity to 4.5 million Gross Tonnage.
Consider the following statements about the Maritime Development Fund approved in September 2025: 1. It has a corpus of ₹25,000 crore. 2. Its Maritime Investment Fund has 49% participation from the Government of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the ₹25,000 crore fund includes a ₹20,000 crore Maritime Investment Fund with 49% GoI participation and a ₹5,000 crore Interest Incentivisation Fund.
How many postgraduate medical seats will be added under Phase III of the centrally sponsored scheme approved on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5,000
Phase III will add 5,000 PG seats; a separate extension will add 5,023 MBBS seats.
What is the enhanced cost ceiling per seat under the medical seat expansion schemes approved in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1.50 crore
The schemes have an enhanced cost ceiling of ₹1.50 crore per seat.
What is the total financial implication of the two medical seat schemes approved on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹15,034.50 crore
The total is ₹15,034.50 crore for 2025-26 to 2028-29: ₹10,303.20 crore central and ₹4,731.30 crore state share.
Consider the following statements about the medical seat schemes approved in September 2025: 1. The schemes will add 5,023 PG seats and 5,000 MBBS seats. 2. The Centre will bear the entire cost. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the schemes add 5,000 PG and 5,023 MBBS seats, and the cost is shared – ₹10,303.20 crore Centre and ₹4,731.30 crore States.
Until when was General Anil Chauhan's tenure as Chief of Defence Staff extended on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 30 May 2026
The ACC extended his service as CDS up to 30 May 2026, or until further orders.
Besides being CDS, General Anil Chauhan also functions as Secretary of which department?
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Correct answer: D — Department of Military Affairs
The CDS also functions as Secretary to the Government of India, Department of Military Affairs.
On which date was General Anil Chauhan first appointed Chief of Defence Staff?
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Correct answer: B — 28 September 2022
General Anil Chauhan was appointed CDS on 28 September 2022.
Which Indian body is the implementing agency for the India–Australia Mutual Recognition Arrangement on organic products signed in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — APEDA
APEDA (India) and DAFF (Australia) are the implementing agencies.
The India–Australia organic products MRA of September 2025 was signed in the spirit of which trade agreement?
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Correct answer: D — India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement
The MRA reflects the shared commitment of the India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA).
What is the maximum Productivity Linked Bonus payable per eligible railway employee under the Cabinet decision of 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹17,951
The maximum PLB equivalent to 78 days' wages is ₹17,951 per eligible employee.
How much cargo did Indian Railways load in 2024-25, as cited in the Cabinet's bonus decision?
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Correct answer: B — 1,614.90 million tonnes
The Railways loaded a record 1,614.90 million tonnes of cargo and carried nearly 7.3 billion passengers in 2024-25.
On which mode will the four-lane Sahebganj–Areraj–Bettiah section of NH-139W, approved in September 2025, be built?
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Correct answer: D — Hybrid Annuity Mode
The 78.942 km section will be built on Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM) at a cost of ₹3,822.31 crore.
Which national highway does the Sahebganj–Areraj–Bettiah section approved by the CCEA in September 2025 belong to?
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Correct answer: A — NH-139W
The four-lane greenfield section is part of NH-139W in Bihar.
In which country did Rajnath Singh inaugurate Tata Advanced Systems' Wheeled Armoured Platform plant on 23 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Morocco
The TASL plant is in Berrechid, Morocco.
The Wheeled Armoured Platform (WhAP) 8x8 to be produced at the Berrechid plant was jointly designed by TASL and which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — DRDO
WhAP 8x8 was jointly designed by TASL and DRDO.
In which city is Tata Advanced Systems' defence manufacturing facility in Morocco located?
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Correct answer: C — Berrechid
The facility is in Berrechid, Morocco.
Consider the following statements about the TASL facility in Morocco: 1. It is the first such plant set up by an Indian private company in Africa. 2. It became operational three months behind schedule. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the facility became operational three months ahead of schedule.
What net addition of members did EPFO record in July 2025, as per data released on 23 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 21.04 lakh
EPFO recorded a net addition of 21.04 lakh members; 9.79 lakh were new subscribers.
What share of EPFO's new subscribers in July 2025 were aged 18–25?
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Correct answer: A — 61.06%
5.98 lakh of the 9.79 lakh new subscribers – 61.06% – were aged 18–25.
Consider the following statements about EPFO's payroll data for July 2025: 1. The net addition of 21.04 lakh members was 5.55% higher than in July 2024. 2. About 16.43 lakh members who had exited earlier rejoined EPFO. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the net addition of 21.04 lakh was up 5.55% year-on-year, and about 16.43 lakh members who had exited earlier rejoined.
Under the GST rate structure that took effect on 22 September 2025, what are the Merit Rate and the Standard Rate?
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Correct answer: A — 5% and 18%
The 56th GST Council recommended a two-rate structure with a Merit Rate of 5% and a Standard Rate of 18%.
What special de-merit GST rate did the 56th GST Council recommend for a select few goods and services?
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Correct answer: C — 40%
Alongside the 5% and 18% rates, the Council recommended a special de-merit rate of 40% for a select few goods and services.
Under the GST reforms, the GST on hotel stays priced below ₹7,500 per day was changed to:
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Correct answer: B — 5% (without input tax credit)
GST on hotel stays below ₹7,500 a day was reduced from 12% to 5% without input tax credit.
Consider the following statements about the 56th GST Council decisions: 1. The GST rate on coal was reduced from 18% to 5%. 2. GST on buses with a seating capacity of 10 or more was raised from 18% to 28%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the GST on coal was raised from 5% to 18% (with the ₹400 per tonne compensation cess removed), and GST on buses with 10+ seats was cut from 28% to 18%.
Consider the following statements about the 56th GST Council: 1. The meeting was chaired by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman. 2. It recommended exempting all individual life and health insurance policies from GST. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Nirmala Sitharaman chaired the 56th meeting, which exempted all individual life and health insurance policies from GST.
In which city did India and Morocco sign an MoU on defence cooperation on 22 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rabat
The MoU was signed in Rabat, where India will also open a Defence Wing at its embassy.
Consider the following statements about the India–Morocco defence MoU of 22 September 2025: 1. A new Defence Wing will be opened at the Embassy of India in Rabat. 2. The MoU covers cooperation in counter-terrorism and cyber defence. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: India will open a Defence Wing in Rabat, and the MoU covers areas including counter-terrorism and cyber defence.
To which Russian republic did the holy relics of Lord Buddha travel for a first exposition in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Kalmykia
The relics travelled to the Republic of Kalmykia for a first exposition, during the 3rd International Buddhist Forum in Elista.
What is the theme of the 3rd International Buddhist Forum in Elista, where Buddha's relics from India were exhibited?
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Correct answer: C — Buddhism in the New Millennium
The forum's theme is "Buddhism in the New Millennium".
By how much did the Index of Eight Core Industries grow in August 2025 over August 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 6.3%
The index grew 6.3% in August 2025; 3.7% was July's final figure and 2.8% the April–August cumulative growth.
Consider the following statements about the core industries data for August 2025: 1. The eight core industries account for 40.27% of the weight of items in the IIP. 2. Crude oil and natural gas both recorded positive growth. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the eight core industries make up 40.27% of the IIP weight, while crude oil (−1.2%) and natural gas (−2.2%) declined.
Which of the eight core industries recorded 11.4% growth in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Coal
Coal output grew 11.4% in August 2025, while crude oil (−1.2%) and natural gas (−2.2%) declined.
How many additional LPG connections under PMUY were approved for FY 2025-26 on 22 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 25 lakh
The Government approved 25 lakh additional PMUY connections for FY 2025-26.
With the 25 lakh additional connections, the total number of PMUY connections will rise to:
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Correct answer: C — 10.58 crore
The total number of PMUY connections will rise to 10.58 crore.
Consider the following statements about the additional Ujjwala connections approved in September 2025: 1. The cost per connection is ₹3,000. 2. The ₹300 targeted subsidy applies to up to 12 refills a year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the cost is ₹2,050 per connection, and the ₹300 subsidy is for up to 9 refills a year.
By what margin did India beat Pakistan in their Asia Cup 2025 Super Four match in Dubai on 21 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6 wickets
ESPN and Reuters (21 Sep 2025): India beat Pakistan by 6 wickets, reaching the target of 172 with seven balls remaining.
Which Indian batter scored 74 off 39 balls in India's Asia Cup Super Four win over Pakistan on 21 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Abhishek Sharma
ESPN and Reuters (21 Sep 2025): Abhishek Sharma scored 74 off 39 balls, including six fours and five sixes.
Consider the following statements about the India–Pakistan Asia Cup Super Four match of 21 September 2025: 1. Abhishek Sharma and Shubman Gill put on 105 runs for the first wicket. 2. Pakistan set India a target of 172. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ESPN and Reuters (21 Sep 2025): Abhishek and Gill added 105 for the first wicket, and India chased down a target of 172, so both statements are correct.
Which of the following groups of countries formally recognised the State of Palestine on 21 September 2025 in coordinated statements?
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Correct answer: A — UK, Canada and Australia
The UK, Canada and Australia announced formal recognition of the State of Palestine on 21 September 2025 in coordinated statements.
The UN conference on the two-state solution, ahead of which the UK, Canada and Australia recognised Palestine in September 2025, was co-chaired by:
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Correct answer: C — France and Saudi Arabia
The conference was co-chaired by France and Saudi Arabia.
Consider the following statements about the recognitions of Palestine on 21 September 2025: 1. The UK recognised Palestinian statehood over provisional borders based on the 1967 lines with equal land swaps. 2. Portugal also announced recognition on the same day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the UK Foreign Office described recognition over provisional borders based on 1967 lines with equal land swaps, and Portugal announced recognition the same day.
Consider the following statements about the recognition of Palestine on 21 September 2025: 1. The UK and Canada became the first G7 members to recognise the State of Palestine. 2. The US State Department welcomed the recognitions as a step towards peace. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the UK and Canada were the first G7 members to take the step, while a US State Department spokesperson dismissed the move as "performative".