BPSC TRE Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which department notified the scheme for the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2026 in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) issued the scheme guidelines for the 23rd NAeG 2026.
How many awards will be conferred under the National Awards for e-Governance 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 16
A total of 16 awards, 10 Gold and 6 Silver, will be conferred across seven categories under NAeG 2026.
How much compensation did the Union Cabinet approve in August 2025 for public sector OMCs' losses on domestic LPG?
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Correct answer: D — ₹30,000 crore
The Cabinet approved ₹30,000 crore as compensation to IOCL, BPCL and HPCL for under-recoveries on domestic LPG.
In how many tranches will the ₹30,000-crore LPG compensation to oil marketing companies be paid?
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Correct answer: B — 12
The compensation will be paid in 12 tranches, with distribution among the OMCs done by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
The MERITE scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in August 2025 relates to which sector?
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Correct answer: A — Technical education
MERITE stands for Multidisciplinary Education and Research Improvement in Technical Education and covers technical institutions.
Which international institution is providing a ₹2,100-crore loan for the MERITE scheme?
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Correct answer: C — World Bank
Of the ₹4,200-crore outlay of MERITE, ₹2,100 crore is a loan from the World Bank.
Consider the following statements about the MERITE scheme: 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with cost-sharing between the Centre and States. 2. It is expected to support about 275 government and government-aided technical institutions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: MERITE is a Central Sector Scheme, with funds transferred from the Centre to participating entities through a Central Nodal Agency. Statement 2 is correct: about 275 government and government-aided technical institutions are expected to be supported.
During his phone call with President Putin on 8 August 2025, PM Modi invited him to India for which edition of the India–Russia Annual Summit?
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Correct answer: D — 23rd
PM Modi invited President Putin to India later in the year for the 23rd India–Russia Annual Summit.
How is the India–Russia partnership officially described in the readout of the Modi–Putin call of 8 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership
The two leaders reaffirmed their commitment to further deepen the Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership between India and Russia.
What Gross Merchandise Value did the Government e Marketplace (GeM) record in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — ₹5.4 lakh crore
GeM recorded ₹5.4 lakh crore in Gross Merchandise Value in FY 2024-25.
Consider the following statements about GeM's 9th Foundation Day in August 2025: 1. The celebration was held on the theme 'Ease, Access and Inclusion'. 2. Caution money for sellers was doubled to curb non-performance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the theme was 'Ease, Access and Inclusion'. Statement 2 is incorrect: caution money for sellers was eliminated, not doubled.
Till when has the PM E-DRIVE scheme been extended, as announced in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 31 March 2028
The Ministry of Heavy Industries extended the PM E-DRIVE scheme by two years, from 31 March 2026 to 31 March 2028.
What is the total outlay of the PM E-DRIVE scheme, which was kept unchanged when the scheme was extended in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,900 crore
The scheme was originally notified on 29 September 2024 with an outlay of ₹10,900 crore, and the extension is within the same outlay.
Consider the following statements about the extension of the PM E-DRIVE scheme in August 2025: 1. Support for registered electric two-wheelers will also continue till 31 March 2028. 2. The extension is meant for e-trucks, e-buses and testing agencies. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the terminal date for registered e-2Ws, e-rickshaws and e-carts, and e-3Ws (L5) remains 31 March 2026. Statement 2 is correct: the extension to 31 March 2028 is for e-trucks, e-buses and testing agencies.
What targeted subsidy per 14.2-kg LPG cylinder will PMUY beneficiaries get in 2025-26 under the Cabinet decision of 8 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹300
PMUY beneficiaries will get a targeted subsidy of ₹300 per 14.2-kg cylinder for up to 9 refills a year.
Up to how many refills a year are covered by the PMUY targeted subsidy for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 9
The ₹300 subsidy applies to up to 9 refills per year (pro-rated for 5-kg cylinders).
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana as of 2025: 1. It was launched in May 2016 to give deposit-free LPG connections to adult women from poor households. 2. India imports about 60% of its LPG requirement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PMUY was launched in May 2016 to provide deposit-free LPG connections to adult women of poor households, and India imports about 60% of its LPG requirement.
The Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025, which cleared Parliament on 7 August 2025, replaces which part of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958?
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Correct answer: D — Part XIV
The Bill replaces Part XIV of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 with new legislation aligned with global cabotage norms.
What coastal cargo target by 2030 did the Shipping Minister link to the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 230 million metric tonnes
Sarbananda Sonowal said the legislation is central to increasing India's coastal cargo share to 230 million metric tonnes by 2030.
Consider the following statements about the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates the formulation of a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan. 2. It provides for a National Database for Coastal Shipping. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Bill mandates a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan and provides for a National Database for Coastal Shipping with real-time, regularly updated data.
Consider the following statements about the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha before the Lok Sabha. 2. It comprises six chapters and 42 clauses. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill first, on 3 April 2025, and the Rajya Sabha passed it on 7 August 2025. Statement 2 is correct: the Bill has six chapters and 42 clauses.
On which date was the poll, if necessary, scheduled for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 9 September 2025
The ECI fixed 9 September 2025 as the date on which a poll shall, if necessary, be taken.
Who was appointed Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha
Shri P.C. Mody, Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha, was appointed the Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025.
What security deposit must each candidate make for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
Every candidate has to deposit a sum of ₹15,000 (Rupees Fifteen Thousand only).
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025 schedule: 1. The last date for withdrawal of candidatures was 25 August 2025. 2. Nomination papers had to be accompanied by a certified copy of the candidate's entry in the electoral roll of the Parliamentary constituency where the candidate is registered. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. 25 August 2025 was fixed as the last date for withdrawal, and each nomination paper had to be accompanied by a certified copy of the candidate's electoral roll entry for the Parliamentary constituency where the candidate is registered.
The first M.S. Swaminathan Award for Food and Peace, presented on 7 August 2025, went to a scientist from which country?
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Correct answer: C — Nigeria
The Prime Minister congratulated Professor Adenle of Nigeria, the first recipient of the award.
What was the theme of the M.S. Swaminathan Centenary International Conference held in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Evergreen Revolution, The Pathway to Biohappiness
The theme of the conference was 'Evergreen Revolution, The Pathway to Biohappiness', reflecting Professor Swaminathan's ideas.
Consider the following statements about the M.S. Swaminathan Award for Food and Peace: 1. It was launched by the M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation and The World Academy of Sciences. 2. It is meant only for Indian agricultural scientists. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the award was launched by the MSSRF and The World Academy of Sciences (TWAS). Statement 2 is incorrect: it recognises individuals from developing countries who have contributed to food security, climate justice, equity and peace.
A chapter on which officer, India's first to be conferred the rank of Field Marshal, was added to the NCERT syllabus in 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sam Manekshaw
A chapter on Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw, India's first officer to be conferred the rank of Field Marshal, was added in Class VIII (Urdu).
Consider the following statements about the new NCERT chapters announced in August 2025: 1. Brigadier Mohammad Usman was a posthumous recipient of the Param Vir Chakra. 2. The chapter on Major Somnath Sharma has been added in the Class VIII English textbook. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Brigadier Mohammad Usman received the Maha Vir Chakra (posthumously), while Major Somnath Sharma received the Param Vir Chakra (posthumously). Statement 2 is correct: the chapter on Major Somnath Sharma is in Class VIII (English).
Declassified Joint Doctrines for which two areas were released by the CDS on 7 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Cyberspace Operations and Amphibious Operations
General Anil Chauhan released the declassified Joint Doctrines for Cyberspace Operations and Amphibious Operations.
Consider the following statements about the joint doctrines released in August 2025: 1. The Joint Doctrine for Cyberspace Operations integrates offensive and defensive cyber capabilities across the three Services. 2. The Joint Doctrine for Amphibious Operations deals only with naval forces. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the cyberspace doctrine integrates offensive and defensive cyber capabilities and enables synchronised operations across the three Services. Statement 2 is incorrect: the amphibious doctrine integrates maritime, air and land forces.
National Handloom Day is observed on 7 August to commemorate the launch of which movement in 1905?
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Correct answer: A — Swadeshi Movement
National Handloom Day is celebrated annually on 7 August to commemorate the launch of the Swadeshi Movement in 1905.
In which city was the first National Handloom Day inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2015?
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Correct answer: C — Chennai
The first National Handloom Day was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Chennai in 2015.
Consider the following statements made on the 11th National Handloom Day: 1. The handloom sector employs over 35 lakh people, more than 70% of them women. 2. The Sant Kabir and National Handloom Awards were conferred on 24 master weavers. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The handloom sector employs over 35 lakh people with more than 70% women, and the Sant Kabir and National Handloom Awards went to 24 master weavers, including six women and one Divyang artisan.
What additional tariff did the US impose on Indian goods through the executive order of 6 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 25%
The executive order imposed an additional 25% tariff on Indian goods over India's purchases of Russian oil, taking the combined rate to 50%.
How did India's Ministry of External Affairs describe the additional US tariffs in its statement of 6 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Unfair, unjustified and unreasonable
The MEA said: 'We reiterate that these actions are unfair, unjustified and unreasonable.'
Consider the following statements about India's response to the US tariff order of 6 August 2025: 1. India said its oil imports are based on market factors and aimed at the energy security of 1.4 billion people. 2. India said it would take all actions necessary to protect its national interests. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The MEA said India's imports are based on market factors to ensure the energy security of 1.4 billion people, and that India will take all actions necessary to protect its national interests.
What was the maximum depth reached by an Indian aquanaut during the Indo-French deep dives in the Atlantic in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5,002 m
Cdr (Retd) Jatinder Pal Singh reached 5,002 m, while Raju Ramesh reached 4,025 m, India's deepest-ever dives.
The Indian aquanauts' record dives of August 2025 were made aboard Nautile, a submersible belonging to which institution?
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Correct answer: D — IFREMER (France)
The dives were a collaborative activity with IFREMER (France), the French marine research institute, aboard its submersible Nautile.
Consider the following statements about India's Samudrayaan mission, as described in August 2025: 1. It aims to send three aquanauts to a depth of 6,000 m in the submersible MATSYA-6000 by 2027. 2. MATSYA-6000 is being developed by the National Institute of Oceanography, Goa. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Samudrayaan aims to send three aquanauts to 6,000 m in MATSYA-6000 by 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: MATSYA-6000 is being developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Consider the following statements about MATSYA-6000: 1. It is designed for an operational endurance of 12 hours and an emergency endurance of up to 96 hours. 2. It completed wet trials at L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli, in early 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. MATSYA-6000 is designed for 12 hours of operational and up to 96 hours of emergency endurance, and completed wet trials at L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli, Tamil Nadu, in January–February 2025.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate in its August 2025 meeting?
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Correct answer: C — 5.50%
The MPC unanimously voted to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.
What CPI inflation did the RBI's MPC project for 2025-26 in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 3.1%
Considering all factors, CPI inflation for 2025-26 was projected at 3.1%.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy decision of August 2025: 1. The standing deposit facility rate remained at 5.25% and the marginal standing facility rate at 5.75%. 2. The MPC changed its stance from neutral to accommodative. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the SDF rate stayed at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%. Statement 2 is incorrect: all members decided to continue with the neutral stance.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's August 2025 policy: 1. The MPC projected real GDP growth for 2025-26 at 6.5%. 2. The decision to keep the repo rate unchanged was taken by a 4–2 majority. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: real GDP growth for 2025-26 was projected at 6.5%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the MPC voted unanimously to keep the repo rate unchanged.
The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025, passed by the Rajya Sabha on 6 August 2025, repeals an Act of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1925
The Bill repeals the century-old Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925.
Which internationally accepted set of maritime rules does the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 adopt?
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Correct answer: D — Hague-Visby Rules
The Bill adopts the Hague-Visby Rules, a globally accepted maritime standard also followed by countries like the United Kingdom.
Consider the following statements about the maritime bills of 6 August 2025: 1. The Lok Sabha passed the Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 on the same day the Rajya Sabha passed the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025. 2. The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 was introduced in the Rajya Sabha by Minister of State Shantanu Thakur. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. On 6 August 2025 the Lok Sabha cleared the Merchant Shipping Bill and the Rajya Sabha passed the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, which was introduced by MoS Shantanu Thakur.
What was the approximate total value of the proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 5 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — About ₹67,000 crore
The DAC chaired by Rajnath Singh approved proposals amounting to a total cost of about ₹67,000 crore.
Which procurement cleared for the Indian Navy by the DAC in August 2025 is meant for detection, classification and neutralisation of threats in anti-submarine warfare missions?
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Correct answer: B — Compact Autonomous Surface Craft
The Compact Autonomous Surface Craft will give the Navy the capability to detect, classify and neutralise threats in anti-submarine warfare missions.
Consider the following statements about the DAC approvals of 5 August 2025: 1. The SAKSHAM/SPYDER Weapon System of the Air Force is to be upgraded for integration with the Integrated Air Command and Control System. 2. AoN for Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) RPAs was accorded only for the Indian Air Force. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the SAKSHAM/SPYDER upgrade is for integration with the Integrated Air Command and Control System. Statement 2 is incorrect: AoN for MALE RPAs was accorded for all three Services.
Consider the following statements about the DAC approvals of 5 August 2025: 1. AoN was accorded for the procurement of additional S-400 squadrons. 2. AoN was accorded for the sustenance of the C-17 and C-130J fleets. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the S-400 approval was for a comprehensive annual maintenance contract, not new squadrons. Statement 2 is correct: AoN was accorded for sustenance of the C-17 and C-130J fleets.
During the State Visit of Philippine President Ferdinand R. Marcos Jr. in August 2025, India and the Philippines elevated their ties to which level?
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Partnership
On 5 August 2025, the two countries signed a Declaration establishing a Strategic Partnership between India and the Philippines.
The India–Philippines Strategic Partnership established in August 2025 is guided by a Plan of Action covering which period?
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Correct answer: D — 2025-2029
The declaration states that the Strategic Partnership is guided by the Plan of Action (2025-2029), adopted on 5 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India–Philippines Strategic Partnership declaration of August 2025: 1. It marks the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations, established in 1949, and recalls the Treaty of Friendship signed on 11 July 1952. 2. It reiterates both countries' strong support for ASEAN Centrality. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The declaration celebrates 75 years of diplomatic relations established in 1949, emphasises the Treaty of Friendship of 11 July 1952, and reiterates strong support for ASEAN Centrality.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the Philippine President's State Visit to India in August 2025: 1. India extended a gratis e-tourist visa facility to Filipino nationals for one year from August 2025. 2. India and the Philippines signed a Free Trade Agreement during the visit. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a gratis e-tourist visa facility was extended to Filipino nationals for one year from August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the two sides only adopted Terms of Reference for negotiations on a Preferential Trade Agreement.
During the Philippine President's visit in August 2025, a Statement of Intent on cooperation in the peaceful uses of outer space was signed between the Philippine Space Agency and which Indian body?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Space Research Organisation
The list of outcomes includes a Statement of Intent between the Indian Space Research Organisation and the Philippine Space Agency on cooperation on the peaceful uses of outer space.
The inaugural India–New Zealand Defence Strategic Dialogue, held in New Delhi on 5 August 2025, was constituted under an MoU signed in which month?
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Correct answer: A — March 2025
The dialogue was constituted under an MoU signed between the two countries in March 2025.
Consider the following statements about the inaugural India–New Zealand Defence Strategic Dialogue (August 2025): 1. It was held in Wellington. 2. It was co-chaired by the defence ministers of the two countries. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect: the dialogue was held in New Delhi. Statement 2 is incorrect: it was co-chaired by Joint Secretary (International Cooperation) Amitabh Prasad and New Zealand's Head of International Branch Kathleen Pearce.
As per the government's reply of August 2025, how many infrastructure projects have been evaluated through the Network Planning Group mechanism under PM GatiShakti?
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Correct answer: C — 293
So far, 293 infrastructure projects amounting to ₹13.59 lakh crore have been evaluated through the NPG mechanism.
Consider the following statements about the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan, as stated in August 2025: 1. It has a specific and separate fund allocation in the Union Budget. 2. 36 States/UTs have been onboarded on the platform. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan has no specific or separate fund allocation. Statement 2 is correct: 36 States/UTs have been onboarded on PMGS NMP.
By what margin did India beat England in the fifth Test at The Oval on 4 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6 runs
India won by 6 runs, its closest Test victory by runs, to draw the series 2-2.
What was the final result of the 2025 England–India Test series for the Anderson-Tendulkar Trophy?
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Correct answer: A — Series drawn 2-2
Series drawn 2-2: India's six-run win at The Oval levelled the five-match series.
Consider the following statements about the Oval Test of August 2025: 1. It was India's first-ever Test victory at The Oval. 2. Shubman Gill's 754 runs are the most by any batter in a Test series between England and India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: it was India's third Test win at The Oval, after 1971 and 2021. Statement 2 is correct: no batter has scored more runs in an England–India series than Gill's 754, which passed Graham Gooch's 752 from 1990.
Who took five wickets in England's second innings and was Player of the Match in India's six-run win at The Oval in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Mohammed Siraj
Mohammed Siraj took 5 for 104, bowling Gus Atkinson with a yorker to seal the win, and was named Player of the Match.
Pariksha Pe Charcha 2025 earned a Guinness World Record for how many valid registrations received in one month?
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Correct answer: B — 3.53 crore
The record recognises 3.53 crore valid registrations received for the 8th edition on the MyGov platform.
Consider the following statements about the Guinness World Record conferred on Pariksha Pe Charcha in August 2025: 1. Pariksha Pe Charcha has been organised by the Ministry of Education in collaboration with MyGov since 2018. 2. The record was for the largest live television audience for an educational programme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: PPC has been organised by the Ministry of Education with MyGov since 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect: the record was for the most people registered on a Citizen Engagement Platform in one month.
The Guinness World Record conferred on Pariksha Pe Charcha in August 2025 recognised registrations for which edition of the programme?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
8th edition (PPC 2025), with 3.53 crore valid registrations on MyGov.
Under the revised ComSec fee structure effective 1 August 2025, what is the security test evaluation fee for Group A telecom equipment?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
Fees for Group A equipment dropped to ₹10,000 from ₹2,00,000 under the revised ComSec structure.
Consider the following statements about the DoT's ComSec changes announced in August 2025: 1. Optical Line Terminals and Optical Networking Terminals are under mandatory security testing. 2. Government R&D institutes such as C-DOT and CDAC are fully exempted from security test evaluation fees for applications until 31 March 2028. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Optical Line Terminals and Optical Networking Terminals are subject to voluntary security certification. Statement 2 is correct: C-DOT, CDAC and other government R&D institutes are fully exempted for applications until 31 March 2028.
By up to what percentage did the Department of Telecommunications cut security test evaluation fees under the ComSec scheme, as announced on 4 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 95%
95%; fees that earlier ranged from ₹2,00,000 to ₹3,50,000 now range from ₹10,000 to ₹50,000.
The India Electric Mobility Index launched by NITI Aayog in August 2025 scores States/UTs out of 100 across how many indicators?
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Correct answer: C — 16
The IEMI scores all States and UTs out of 100 across 16 indicators under three core themes.
According to NITI Aayog's August 2025 EV report, India seeks to attain what share of electric vehicles in total vehicles sold by 2030?
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Correct answer: D — 30%
The report states that India seeks to attain a 30% share of electric vehicles in total vehicles sold by 2030.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's EV releases of August 2025: 1. Charging Infrastructure Readiness is one of the three themes of the India Electric Mobility Index. 2. EV sales in India rose from 50,000 in 2016 to 2.08 million in 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Charging Infrastructure Readiness is one of the IEMI's three themes, and the report notes EV sales rose from 50,000 in 2016 to 2.08 million in 2024.
In which category did Sitender win gold at the U17 World Wrestling Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Men's freestyle 60 kg
Men's freestyle 60 kg; he beat Japan's Rihito Hiura 9-4 in the final.
The U17 World Wrestling Championships 2025, which concluded on 3 August 2025, were held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Athens
Athens, Greece, at the Ano Liosia Olympic Hall, the wrestling venue of the 2004 Olympics.
Consider the following statements about India's performance at the U17 World Wrestling Championships 2025: 1. India won nine medals, including four gold. 2. India defended its women's freestyle team title. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India's tally was four gold, four silver and one bronze.
Which instalment of PM-KISAN did Prime Minister Narendra Modi release from Varanasi on 2 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20th
The Prime Minister released the 20th instalment of PM-KISAN, transferring more than ₹20,500 crore to over 9.7 crore farmers.
Approximately how much money was transferred to farmers with the PM-KISAN instalment released on 2 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — More than ₹20,500 crore
More than ₹20,500 crore was transferred to over 9.7 crore farmers with the 20th instalment.
From which city did the Prime Minister release the 20th instalment of PM-KISAN in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Varanasi
The 20th instalment was released by the Prime Minister in Varanasi, where he also launched development works worth about ₹2,200 crore.
Consider the following statements about PM-KISAN, as reported in August 2025: 1. The scheme was launched on 24 February 2019. 2. Over ₹3,77,000 crore has so far been transferred directly to farmers' accounts under the scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PM-KISAN was launched on 24 February 2019, and the Agriculture Minister said over ₹3,77,000 crore has been transferred directly to farmers so far.
According to the Health Ministry at the 15th Indian Organ Donation Day (August 2025), how many organ transplants did India perform in 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Over 18,900
India performed over 18,900 organ transplants in 2024, the highest ever recorded in a single year.
Consider the following statements made at the 15th Indian Organ Donation Day (August 2025): 1. India ranks second globally in the total number of organ transplants. 2. More than 3.30 lakh citizens have pledged their organs since the Aadhaar-based NOTTO online pledge website was launched in 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: India ranks third globally, behind the United States and China. Statement 2 is correct: more than 3.30 lakh citizens have pledged their organs since the Aadhaar-based pledge website was launched in 2023.
Which body organised the 15th Indian Organ Donation Day in New Delhi on 2 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO)
National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO), under the Directorate General of Health Services.
After the Election Commission's decision of 2 August 2025, what is the annual remuneration of a Booth Level Officer (BLO)?
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Correct answer: C — ₹12,000
The Commission doubled the annual remuneration of BLOs from ₹6,000 to ₹12,000.
Consider the following statements about the Election Commission's remuneration decision of August 2025: 1. Electoral Registration Officers and Assistant Electoral Registration Officers were given an honorarium for the first time. 2. The previous revision of BLO remuneration was done in 2019. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: honorariums of ₹30,000 for EROs and ₹25,000 for AEROs were provided for the first time. Statement 2 is incorrect: the last such revision was done in 2015.
What honorarium did the Election Commission provide for Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹30,000
EROs were given an honorarium of ₹30,000, and AEROs ₹25,000, for the first time.
Pingali Venkayya, to whom the Prime Minister paid tribute on his birth anniversary on 2 August, is remembered for which of the following?
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Correct answer: C — His role in giving India the Tricolour
His role in giving India the Tricolour: the Prime Minister recalled this while urging citizens to join the Har Ghar Tiranga movement.