APPSC (Andhra Pradesh) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many parts does UPSC's new Online Application Portal, announced on 28 May 2025, have?
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Correct answer: B — Four
UPSC said the portal has four parts arranged in four cards: Account Creation, Universal Registration, Common Application Form and Examination.
Consider the following statements about UPSC's new Online Application Portal: 1. The old One Time Registration (OTR) module will not be applicable. 2. Examination-specific details must be filled in only during the period allowed in the examination notification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the OTR module no longer applies, and only exam-specific information is filled in during the notified period.
At the PRAGATI meeting of 28 May 2025, the PM reviewed three infrastructure projects with a cumulative cost of:
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Correct answer: D — Over ₹62,000 crore
The PMO said three projects with a cumulative cost of over ₹62,000 crore were reviewed.
At the May 2025 PRAGATI meeting, the PM asked state governments to ensure mandatory registration of eligible real estate projects under:
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Correct answer: A — RERA
He asked states to ensure mandatory registration of all eligible real estate projects under RERA.
In its updated forecast of May 2025, what did IMD forecast for the 2025 southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall over the country as a whole?
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Correct answer: C — 106% of LPA
IMD forecast 106% of the Long Period Average with a model error of ±4%.
According to IMD's updated 2025 monsoon forecast, which region is likely to receive below-normal rainfall?
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Correct answer: A — Northeast India
Northeast India is likely to get below-normal rain (<94% of LPA); Central India and the South Peninsula above normal; Northwest India normal.
Consider the following statements about IMD's updated 2025 southwest monsoon forecast: 1. The Monsoon Core Zone is forecast to receive above-normal rainfall. 2. Northwest India is expected to receive normal rainfall in the range of 92–108% of LPA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Monsoon Core Zone is forecast above normal and Northwest India normal (92–108% of LPA).
Which agency will execute the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) programme under the execution model approved in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Aeronautical Development Agency
The Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) will execute the AMCA programme through industry partnership.
Consider the following statements about the AMCA Programme Execution Model approved in May 2025: 1. Only public sector undertakings are eligible to bid. 2. A bidder may bid independently, as a joint venture or as a consortium, but must be an Indian company. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: private and public sectors get equal opportunities on a competitive basis. Statement 2 is correct.
After approval of the AMCA execution model, what is the Aeronautical Development Agency to issue next for the AMCA Development Phase?
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Correct answer: D — Expression of Interest (EoI)
ADA is to shortly issue an Expression of Interest (EoI) for the AMCA Development Phase.
What was India's total FDI inflow (provisional) in FY 2024-25 as per the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — USD 81.04 billion
FDI inflow was USD 81.04 billion (provisional) in FY 2024-25, up 14% from USD 71.28 billion in FY 2023-24.
Which country was the largest source of FDI equity inflows into India in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — Singapore
Singapore led with a 30% share, followed by Mauritius (17%) and the United States (11%).
Consider the following statements about FDI in FY 2024-25: 1. Maharashtra received the highest share of FDI equity inflows among states. 2. Computer software and hardware was the top sector for FDI equity, ahead of services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (Maharashtra 39%). Statement 2 is wrong: services led with 19%, ahead of computer software and hardware (16%).
DIGIPIN, for which the Department of Posts launched a 'Know Your DIGIPIN' portal in May 2025, was developed in collaboration with which institutions?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Hyderabad and NRSC, ISRO
DIGIPIN was developed by the Department of Posts with IIT Hyderabad and NRSC, ISRO.
Consider the following statements about DIGIPIN: 1. It is an open-source, geo-coded, grid-based digital address system. 2. The 'Know Your DIGIPIN' portal was launched in alignment with the National Geospatial Policy 2022. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Communications.
Who led the Indian all-party parliamentary delegation that visited Greece from 27 to 29 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Kanimozhi Karunanidhi
The Greece delegation was led by MP Kanimozhi Karunanidhi; Supriya Sule led the South Africa leg, Ravi Shankar Prasad the Italy leg and Sanjay Kumar Jha the Singapore leg.
The all-party delegation led by Ravi Shankar Prasad that arrived in Rome on 27 May 2025 was also scheduled to visit which of the following?
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Correct answer: A — France, Denmark, Germany, the UK and the EU in Brussels
As per the Embassy of India in Rome, the delegation was visiting Italy, France, Denmark, Germany, the UK and the European Union in Brussels.
Consider the following statements about the all-party delegations on 27 May 2025: 1. The delegation to South Africa, led by Supriya Sule, began its engagement in Johannesburg. 2. In Singapore, the delegation led by Sanjay Kumar Jha called on Senior Minister of State Sim Ann. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the High Commission in Pretoria and the PIB release on the Singapore meeting.
By how much did India's coal imports fall in FY 2024-25 compared with FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — 7.9%
Coal imports fell 7.9% to 243.62 MT. 8.95% is the fall for the non-regulated sector and 41.4% for blending imports by thermal plants; 5% is domestic output growth.
Consider the following statements about coal in FY 2024-25: 1. Imports of coal for blending by thermal power plants fell by 41.4%. 2. Coal-based power generation declined during the year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: coal-based power generation grew by 3.04%.
How many blocks were successfully auctioned in Tranche V of the critical and strategic mineral block auctions?
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Correct answer: A — 10 out of 15
Tranche V concluded with 10 of the 15 offered blocks successfully auctioned.
Tranche V of the critical mineral auctions marked the first successful auction of a critical and strategic mineral block in which state?
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Correct answer: D — Rajasthan
Tranche V marked the first-ever successful auction of a critical and strategic mineral block in Rajasthan.
Consider the following statements about Tranche V of the critical mineral block auctions: 1. It included the Government of India's first-ever successful auction of a potash block. 2. With it, the total number of blocks auctioned by the Central Government reached 34. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Mines.
To which date did CBDT extend the due date for filing ITRs for AY 2025-26 that were originally due on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 15 September 2025
The due date was extended from 31 July 2025 to 15 September 2025.
Consider the following statements about the ITR due-date extension announced in May 2025: 1. It was made by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. 2. One reason cited was structural and content revisions in the notified ITR forms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the extension was by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). Statement 2 is correct.
From which date are RoDTEP benefits restored for exports by Advance Authorisation holders, EOUs and SEZ units?
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Correct answer: D — 1 June 2025
The restored benefits apply to eligible exports made from 1 June 2025; earlier cover for these categories ended on 5 February 2025.
Consider the following statements about the RoDTEP scheme: 1. It has been operational since 1 January 2021. 2. It reimburses embedded duties, taxes and levies that are not refunded under any other scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry release.
What is the resolution of the Bharat Forecast System launched in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 6 km
The Bharat Forecast System improves resolution from 12 km to 6 km.
Which institute developed the Bharat Forecast System?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune
It was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune.
Consider the following statements about the Bharat Forecast System: 1. Its development was spearheaded by four women scientists. 2. It is meant to enable village-specific forecasts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
What is the value of the 2025 Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics awarded to the LHC experiments?
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Correct answer: D — USD 3 million
The USD 3 million prize is allocated to the ATLAS, CMS, ALICE and LHCb experiments.
According to the Department of Atomic Energy, Indian scientists played a significant role in which two LHC experiments that shared the 2025 Breakthrough Prize?
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Correct answer: B — ALICE and CMS
Indian scientists and institutes contributed significantly to ALICE and CMS.
By what percentage did the Central Apprenticeship Council recommend increasing the stipend under NAPS and NATS in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 36%
The 38th CAC meeting recommended a 36% increase in stipend.
Under the Central Apprenticeship Council's May 2025 recommendation, what would be the revised monthly stipend range under NAPS and NATS?
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Correct answer: A — ₹6,800–₹12,300
The stipend range would be revised from ₹5,000–₹9,000 to ₹6,800–₹12,300.
Maldives Foreign Minister Dr Abdulla Khaleel led the Maldives side at which meeting in New Delhi on 26 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 2nd India–Maldives High Level Core Group meeting
He led Maldives at the 2nd India–Maldives High Level Core Group (HLCG) meeting reviewing the Vision Document on Comprehensive Economic and Maritime Security Partnership.
Where is the 3rd India–Maldives High Level Core Group meeting to be held?
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Correct answer: C — Malé
It was decided that the 3rd HLCG meeting will be held in Malé, Maldives.
What is the theme of the 9th India Mobile Congress (IMC 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Innovate to Transform
Jyotiraditya Scindia unveiled 'Innovate to Transform' as the IMC 2025 theme.
Where is the India Mobile Congress 2025 scheduled to be held?
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Correct answer: B — Yashobhoomi Convention Centre, New Delhi
IMC 2025 is to be held from 8 to 11 October 2025 at the Yashobhoomi Convention Centre, New Delhi.
According to NITI Aayog's May 2025 report, medium enterprises contribute what share of MSME exports?
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Correct answer: B — 40%
Medium enterprises, though only 0.3% of MSMEs, contribute 40% of MSME exports. 29% is the MSME share of GDP and 60%+ its share of the workforce.
Consider the following statements based on NITI Aayog's report 'Designing a Policy for Medium Enterprises': 1. The MSME sector contributes 29% to India's GDP. 2. Medium enterprises make up only 0.3% of MSMEs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the NITI Aayog release.
Which ministry launched the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 portal in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Panchayati Raj
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj launched the PAI 2.0 portal at a national writeshop for FY 2023-24.
Who led the Indian all-party parliamentary delegation that began engagements in the Republic of Korea on 26 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sanjay Kumar Jha
The delegation to the Republic of Korea was led by MP Sanjay Kumar Jha.
The performance of how many Defence Public Sector Undertakings did Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh review with their CMDs on 26 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Eight
He reviewed the performance of eight DPSUs at South Block, New Delhi.
In which city did the Prime Minister say he would participate in the International Day of Yoga 2025 programme?
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Correct answer: C — Visakhapatnam
The PM said in Mann Ki Baat that he would participate in the Yoga Day programme in Visakhapatnam.
The YogAndhra Abhiyan of the Andhra Pradesh government, praised by the PM in May 2025, aims to create a pool of how many regular yoga practitioners?
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Correct answer: B — 10 lakh
The campaign aims to build a pool of 10 lakh regular yoga practitioners.
Katejhari village, where a bus arrived for the first time as mentioned in Mann Ki Baat in May 2025, is in which district?
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Correct answer: A — Gadchiroli
Katejhari is in Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra.
The 'sugar boards' installed in schools to make children aware of their sugar intake, praised in Mann Ki Baat in May 2025, are an initiative of which body?
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Correct answer: D — CBSE
The PM described sugar boards as a unique initiative of CBSE.
According to the Prime Minister in Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), India's annual honey production has risen to about how much?
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Correct answer: B — 1.25 lakh metric tonnes
Honey production rose from about 70–75 thousand metric tonnes 10–11 years ago to about 1.25 lakh metric tonnes.
In Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), the PM mentioned women spraying pesticides with drones in Sangareddy district. In which state is Sangareddy?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana
Sangareddy district is in Telangana.
According to the PM in Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), how many records were set at the Khelo India Youth Games hosted in Bihar?
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Correct answer: A — 26
The PM said 26 records were made; 36 is the number of medals Bihar won.
The all-party delegation led by Shashi Tharoor began its Guyana visit on 25 May 2025 with a courtesy call on which leader?
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Correct answer: B — Vice President Dr Bharrat Jagdeo
The visit began with a courtesy call on Vice President Dr Bharrat Jagdeo; the delegation met Speaker Manzoor Nadir on 26 May.
On 25 May 2025 the Indian all-party delegation joined Guyana's Independence Day celebrations in Berbice. Which anniversary of independence was it?
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Correct answer: D — 59th
The delegation joined Guyana's 59th Independence Day celebrations; Guyana became independent in 1966.
In Qatar on 25 May 2025, the Indian multi-party delegation met a Qatari delegation led by whom?
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Correct answer: C — Shura Council Deputy Speaker Dr Hamda bint Hassan Al Sulaiti
The delegation met a Qatari delegation led by Shura Council Deputy Speaker Dr Hamda bint Hassan Al Sulaiti.
What was the theme of the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog held in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047
The theme was 'Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047'.
How many States and Union Territories were represented at the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog?
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Correct answer: D — 24 States and 7 UTs
Chief Ministers and Lt Governors of 24 States and 7 UTs attended.
At the 10th Governing Council meeting, the Prime Minister asked NITI Aayog to prepare which document for attracting investments?
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Correct answer: A — An Investment-friendly Charter
The PM asked NITI Aayog to prepare an 'Investment-friendly Charter'.
Consider the following statements about the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog: 1. It was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. 2. The PM urged each State to develop at least one global-standard tourist destination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the NITI Aayog release.
Under the Ministry of Ayush–WHO agreement of 24 May 2025, a dedicated Traditional Medicine module is being developed under which WHO classification?
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Correct answer: C — International Classification of Health Interventions (ICHI)
The agreement begins work on a Traditional Medicine module under the International Classification of Health Interventions (ICHI).
The International Classification of Health Interventions (ICHI) complements which other WHO classification?
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Correct answer: A — ICD-11
ICHI, which documents treatments and health interventions, complements WHO's International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11).
Consider the following statements about the Traditional Medicine module under ICHI: 1. ICHI primarily records diagnoses of diseases. 2. The module will recognise therapies from Ayurveda, Yoga, Siddha and Unani in globally standardised terms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: ICHI documents treatments and health interventions; diagnoses are classified in ICD-11. Statement 2 is correct.
How much investment interest did the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025 draw, according to the DoNER Minister?
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Correct answer: C — ₹4.3 lakh crore
Jyotiraditya Scindia said the summit drew ₹4.3 lakh crore in investment interest.
Delegations from how many countries attended the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025, as per the DoNER Minister?
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Correct answer: D — Over 80
The minister said delegations from over 80 countries were welcomed.
Where was the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025 held?
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Correct answer: B — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
The summit was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi on 23–24 May 2025.
Where was the ECI's National Conference of Counsels held on 24 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIIDEM, New Delhi
The conference was held at the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
Who inaugurated the National Conference of Counsels representing the Election Commission of India in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar
CEC Gyanesh Kumar inaugurated it in the presence of Election Commissioners Dr Sukhbir Singh Sandhu and Dr Vivek Joshi.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's National Conference of Counsels in May 2025: 1. Senior advocates from the Supreme Court and 28 High Courts took part. 2. Chief Electoral Officers of all 36 States/UTs participated. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the ECI release.
As announced by the Sports Minister in May 2025, how often will the Khelo India Northeast Games be held?
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Correct answer: A — Every year, in one of the eight northeastern states
Khelo India Northeast Games will be hosted every year in one of the eight northeastern states.
Under the talent identification drive announced in May 2025, citizens can upload videos of a player's performance on which portal?
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Correct answer: C — NSRS portal
Citizens can upload videos on the NSRS portal; players found worthy will be inducted into KICs and NCOEs.
Who led the Indian all-party delegation that met Russian think tanks such as the Valdai Discussion Club in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Kanimozhi Karunanidhi
The delegation to the Russian Federation was led by MP Kanimozhi Karunanidhi.
Which Supreme Court Judge delivered the keynote address at the DFS colloquium of DRAT Chairpersons and DRT Presiding Officers in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Justice S.V.N. Bhatti
Justice S.V.N. Bhatti, Judge of the Supreme Court, delivered the keynote address.
The DFS colloquium of May 2025 discussed effective implementation of the DRT Regulations of which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2024
Deliberations included effective implementation of the DRT Regulations, 2024.