Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which of the following was described by the Election Commission as a 'novel initiative' for polling stations in the Bihar elections and bye-elections of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Mobile phone deposit facility outside the polling station
PIB (ECI): in a novel initiative, a mobile phone deposit facility will be provided outside the polling station entrance; voters hand over switched-off phones to a volunteer and collect them after voting.
How many uniform and standardised Voter Facilitation Posters (VFPs) are to be displayed at all polling stations in the Bihar elections of 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Four
PIB (ECI): four standardised VFPs will show Polling Station Details, List of Candidates, Do's and Don'ts, approved ID documents and the voting process.
The 'Pratibha Setu' portal, highlighted by the Prime Minister at the Rozgar Mela in October 2025, is meant for:
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Correct answer: A — Candidates who reached the UPSC final list but were not selected
PIB: the Pratibha Setu Portal offers opportunities to candidates who reached the final list of UPSC but were not selected; public and private institutions engage with them through it.
According to the Prime Minister at the Rozgar Mela on 24 October 2025, how many appointment letters had been issued through Rozgar Melas alone?
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Correct answer: A — Over 11 lakh
PIB: the PM said the government has issued over 11 lakh appointment letters through Rozgar Melas alone.
Under the October 2025 amendment to Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021, an intimation to intermediaries for removal of unlawful content can be issued (where the rank exists) only by an officer not below the rank of:
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Correct answer: C — Joint Secretary
PIB: intimations can now only be issued by a senior officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary or equivalent (or a Director where such rank is not appointed).
Under the amended Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules (October 2025), which police officer can issue a content-removal intimation to intermediaries?
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Correct answer: A — A specially authorised officer not below Deputy Inspector General
PIB: in case of police authorities, only an officer not below the rank of Deputy Inspector General of Police (DIG), specially authorised, can issue such intimation.
Consider the following statements about the October 2025 amendment to Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021: 1. All intimations will be reviewed monthly by an officer not below the rank of Secretary of the Appropriate Government. 2. The term 'reasoned intimation' was introduced to align the rule with Section 69A of the IT Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: monthly review by a Secretary-level officer is mandated; 'reasoned intimation' aligns the rule with the 'actual knowledge' requirement of Section 79(3)(b), not Section 69A.
Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 provisions effective from 1 November 2025, a depositor can nominate up to how many persons?
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Correct answer: C — Four
PIB: customers may nominate up to four persons, either simultaneously or successively.
Under the new nomination rules effective 1 November 2025, which type of nomination is permitted for articles in safe custody and safety lockers?
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Correct answer: B — Only successive nomination
PIB: for articles in safe custody and safety lockers, only successive nominations are permitted; deposit accounts can have either.
Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It contains 19 amendments across five legislations, including the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. 2. Its nomination provisions came into force on 1 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Act has 19 amendments across five laws. Certain other sections came into force on 1 August 2025; the nomination provisions (Sections 10–13) come into force on 1 November 2025.
Where was the Election Commission's two-day Conference of Chief Electoral Officers on SIR preparedness held in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management, New Delhi
PIB (ECI): the two-day conference concluded at the India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
At the October 2025 CEOs' conference, the Election Commission held one-to-one interactions with CEOs of poll-bound states/UT. Which one of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka
PIB (ECI): the Commission interacted one-to-one with CEOs of Assam, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Kerala and West Bengal. Karnataka was not among them.
From which date does the Defence Procurement Manual (DPM) 2025, released by the Defence Minister in October 2025, come into effect?
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Correct answer: B — 1 November 2025
PIB: DPM 2025 is effective from November 01, 2025; RFPs issued up to October 31, 2025 remain under DPM 2009.
Under DPM 2025, what rate of liquidated damages per week applies in indigenisation cases for delayed delivery?
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Correct answer: C — 0.1% per week
PIB: in indigenisation cases only 0.1% LD per week will be levied instead of 0.5% per week; overall, maximum LD of 10% applies only in cases of inordinate delay.
Consider the following statements about the Defence Procurement Manual 2025: 1. RFPs issued after 1 November 2025 will be governed by DPM 2025, while earlier RFPs remain under DPM 2009. 2. It governs capital acquisition of major weapon platforms worth about ₹1 lakh crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: DPM 2025 governs revenue procurement (not capital acquisition) of approx ₹1 lakh crore by the three Services and other MoD establishments.
Under the Election Commission's arrangement for Bihar 2025, flying squads aim to attend to cVIGIL complaints within how much time?
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Correct answer: A — 100 minutes
PIB: 824 flying squads have been deployed across Bihar so that complaints are attended to within 100 minutes; 94% of cVIGIL complaints were resolved within 100 minutes.
Which call centre number did the Election Commission set up for the public and political parties to lodge complaints during the Bihar elections 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1950
PIB: a complaint monitoring system including Call Centre number 1950 has been set up and is operational 24x7.
In October 2025, how much did Gujarat receive as the second instalment of XV Finance Commission untied grants for 2024–25?
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Correct answer: B — ₹522.20 crore
PIB: Gujarat received ₹522.20 crore as the 2nd instalment of untied grants for 2024–25; ₹195.13 crore went to Haryana and ₹13.60 crore was a withheld first-instalment portion for Gujarat.
Consider the following statements about the release of XV Finance Commission grants to Panchayati Raj Institutions: 1. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj and the Ministry of Jal Shakti recommend the release, and the Ministry of Finance releases the grants. 2. The grants are recommended and released in two instalments in a financial year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: MoPR and the Ministry of Jal Shakti (DDWS) recommend release of XV FC grants, which are then released by the Ministry of Finance in two instalments in a financial year.
The Ministry of Mines' October 2025 amendment introducing intermediate timelines for auctioned mineral blocks was made to which rules?
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Correct answer: A — Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015
PIB: the Ministry of Mines notified an amendment to the Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015, introducing intermediary timelines from LoI to execution of the mining lease.
Under the amended mineral auction rules (October 2025), what penalty applies for delay beyond a prescribed intermediate timeline?
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Correct answer: B — Appropriation of 1% of the bank guarantee per month of delay
PIB: delay beyond the prescribed timelines attracts appropriation of the bidder's bank guarantee to the extent of 1% for each month or part of a month.
Consider the following statements about mineral block auctions as described by the Ministry of Mines in October 2025: 1. All 585 major mineral blocks auctioned since 2015 are critical mineral blocks. 2. For a mining lease auction, the total penalty-free timeline from LoI to lease execution is 7 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: of 585 major mineral blocks auctioned, 34 are critical mineral blocks auctioned by the Centre; the penalty-free timeline is 3 years for a mining lease and 7 years for a composite licence.
Of the ₹1,950.80 crore SDRF advance approved in October 2025, which state received the larger share?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
PIB: Maharashtra was approved ₹1,566.40 crore and Karnataka ₹384.40 crore out of ₹1,950.80 crore.
As of 19 October 2025, how much had the Centre released to states under SDRF during 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states
PIB: the Centre released ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states under SDRF; the other figures relate to NDRF (₹2,189.28 crore), SDMF (₹4,571.30 crore) and NDMF (₹372.09 crore).
Consider the following statements about disaster response funding and deployment in 2025: 1. The advance release to Karnataka and Maharashtra was the second instalment of the Central share of SDRF for 2025-26. 2. During the 2025 monsoon, NDRF teams were deployed in only 15 States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the ₹1,950.80 crore was the 2nd instalment of the Central share of SDRF; up to 199 NDRF teams were deployed in 30 States/UTs (15 is the number of states that received NDRF funds).
Under which Article of the Constitution does the Election Commission exercise the plenary powers used to appoint Central Observers?
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Correct answer: C — Article 324
PIB: the Commission appoints Central Observers under the plenary powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the RP Act, 1951.
Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the appointment of observers by the Election Commission?
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Correct answer: A — Section 20B
PIB: Central Observers are appointed under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements about observers for the Bihar elections 2025: 1. 121 General Observers were deployed for Phase 2. 2. 8 General and 8 Police Observers were deployed for the bye-elections in 8 Assembly constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: Phase 1 had 121 General Observers and Phase 2 had 122; 8 General and 8 Police Observers were deployed for the 8 bye-elections.
Under the Notaries (Amendment) Rules, 2025, the maximum number of notaries in which state was raised from 2,900 to 6,000?
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Correct answer: B — Gujarat
PIB: for Gujarat the figure 2,900 was replaced by 6,000; Tamil Nadu went from 2,500 to 3,500 and Rajasthan from 2,000 to 3,000.
The Notaries (Amendment) Rules, 2025 were made under which provision?
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Correct answer: D — Section 15 of the Notaries Act, 1952
PIB: the rules were notified in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 15 of the Notaries Act, 1952, amending the Notaries Rules, 1956.
Consider the following statements about the Notaries (Amendment) Rules, 2025: 1. The maximum number of notaries in Nagaland was doubled. 2. Tamil Nadu's limit was raised by 1,000. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Nagaland went from 200 to 400 (doubled) and Tamil Nadu from 2,500 to 3,500 (an increase of 1,000).
Which provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 entitles employed voters to a paid holiday on polling day?
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Correct answer: B — Section 135B
PIB (ECI): as per Section 135B of the RP Act, 1951, every employed person entitled to vote in a Lok Sabha or State/UT Assembly election shall be granted a paid holiday on the day of poll.
Consider the following statements about the paid holiday on polling day for the Bihar elections, 2025, as clarified by the ECI: 1. Daily wage and casual workers are also entitled to a paid holiday. 2. Voters employed outside their constituency are not entitled to the paid holiday even if registered in a constituency going to the polls. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (ECI): daily wage and casual workers are entitled; electors working outside their constituency but registered in a constituency going to the polls are also entitled to the paid holiday.
According to NCRB's Prison Statistics India 2022, cited at the NHRC conference, what was the occupancy rate of Indian prisons in 2022?
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Correct answer: B — 131.4%
PIB: the occupancy rate rose to 131.4% of the actual capacity of 1,330 prisons in 2022, from 118% in 2020.
Consider the following statements in the context of the NHRC conference on prison inmates (October 2025): 1. The Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act was prepared by the Union Government in 2023. 2. Justice V. Ramasubramanian is the Chairperson of the NHRC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Justice Ramasubramanian, NHRC Chairperson, cited the 'Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act' prepared by the Union Government in 2023.
On which date was the National Human Rights Commission of India set up, as recalled at its 32nd Foundation Day in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 12 October 1993
PIB: the Commission was set up on 12 October 1993.
Who was the chief guest at the NHRC's 32nd Foundation Day function in New Delhi on 16 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Former President Ram Nath Kovind
PIB: former President of India Ram Nath Kovind addressed the function as the chief guest.
As per the MHA on 15 October 2025, which are now the only three districts 'most affected' by Left Wing Extremism?
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Correct answer: C — Bijapur, Sukma and Narayanpur
PIB (MHA): now only Bijapur, Sukma and Narayanpur in Chhattisgarh are the most affected districts by LWE.
According to the MHA's October 2025 update, the number of LWE-affected districts has been brought down from 18 to how many?
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Correct answer: A — 11
PIB (MHA): in the category of LWE-affected districts, the number has been brought down to just 11 from 18.
Consider the following statements from the MHA's 15 October 2025 release: 1. 312 LWE cadres were eliminated this year, including the CPI (Maoist) General Secretary. 2. In 2013, 126 districts from different states reported Naxal-related violence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per PIB: 312 LWE cadres were eliminated this year, including the CPI (Maoist) General Secretary and 8 other PB/CC members; in 2013, 126 districts reported Naxal-related violence.
For the Bihar Assembly election 2025, political advertisements on social media must be pre-certified by which committee?
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Correct answer: A — Media Certification and Monitoring Committee (MCMC)
PIB (ECI): every party and contesting candidate must apply to the Media Certification and Monitoring Committee (MCMC) for pre-certification of political advertisements on electronic media, including social media.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's October 2025 directions: 1. Under Section 77(1) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and Supreme Court directions, parties must submit their internet and social media campaign expenditure within 75 days of completion of the election. 2. Candidates must share details of their authentic social media accounts at the time of filing nomination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (ECI): parties should submit a statement of internet/social media campaign expenditure within 75 days of completion of the election under Section 77(1) RPA 1951 and SC directions; candidates must share their authentic social media accounts at nomination.
In October 2025, Amit Shah performed the ground-breaking in Jaipur for investment proposals worth how much in Rajasthan?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4 lakh crore
PIB: Amit Shah performed the ground-breaking for investment proposals worth ₹4 lakh crore in Jaipur. ₹35 lakh crore is the total MoUs signed and ₹7 lakh crore the amount grounded.
According to Amit Shah in Jaipur in October 2025, Rajasthan's conviction rate after implementation of the three new criminal laws rose from 42% to:
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Correct answer: C — 60%
PIB: after the implementation of the three new laws, the conviction rate in Rajasthan has gone up from 42% to 60%, and is expected to reach 90% once fully implemented.
Which birth anniversary of Lok Nayak Jayaprakash Narayan was marked on 11 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 123rd
PIB: the Vice-President said the 123rd birth anniversary of Lok Nayak Jayaprakash Narayan was an occasion to celebrate an ideal that placed the nation above self.
Jayaprakash Narayan's ancestral home and National Memorial at Sitab Diara, visited by the Vice-President in October 2025, are in which district of Bihar?
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Correct answer: D — Saran
PIB: the Vice-President visited the ancestral home and National Memorial of Lok Nayak Jayaprakash Narayan in Saran district.
Under the ECI notification of 7 October 2025, how many alternative photo identity documents can an elector use if they cannot produce the EPIC?
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Correct answer: B — 12
PIB: ECI's notification of 7 October 2025 permits electors on the roll who cannot produce their EPIC to show any one of 12 alternative photo identity documents.
Consider the following statements: 1. ECI directs the issue of EPICs under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 read with the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960. 2. The UDID card issued by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment is one of the alternative documents allowed for voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: ECI is empowered under the RP Act, 1951 read with the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 to direct the issue of EPICs; the Unique Disability ID (UDID) card is among the 12 alternative photo IDs.
Where was the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference, attended by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla in October 2025, held?
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Correct answer: A — Bridgetown, Barbados
PIB: the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference was held in Bridgetown, Barbados, where Om Birla led the Indian Parliamentary Delegation.
In which year did the Government of India gift the Speaker's chair in the Barbados Parliament, to mark Barbados' independence?
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Correct answer: D — 1966
PIB: the historic Speaker's chair was a gift from the Government of India in 1966 to mark Barbados' independence.
About how many officials did the Election Commission deploy for the 2025 Bihar Assembly election?
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Correct answer: A — 8.5 lakh
PIB: around 8.5 lakh election officials have been deployed, including nearly 4.53 lakh polling personnel and 2.5 lakh police officials.
Consider the following statements about the 2025 Bihar Assembly election arrangements: 1. For the first time, one General Observer has been deployed for each of Bihar's 243 constituencies. 2. Personnel deployed are deemed to be on deputation to the Election Commission under Section 28A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: in a first, one General Observer has been deployed for each of the 243 constituencies; all deployed personnel are deemed to be on deputation to ECI under Section 28A of the RP Act, 1951.
What did the Election Commission direct parties, candidates and star campaigners to do with AI-generated or synthetic campaign content during the Bihar elections?
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Correct answer: D — Label it prominently
PIB: parties, leaders, candidates and star campaigners shall take necessary measures for prominent labelling of AI-generated/synthetic content shared for campaigning.
How much did Andhra Pradesh's rural local bodies receive as the first instalment of XV Finance Commission untied grants for 2025–26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹410.76 crore
PIB: the first instalment of untied grants for Andhra Pradesh, amounting to ₹410.76 crore, has been disbursed; ₹680.71 crore went to West Bengal.
Consider the following statements about XV Finance Commission grants released in October 2025: 1. Untied grants may be used by rural local bodies to pay salaries and establishment costs. 2. The Andhra Pradesh instalment benefits all 13,327 gram panchayats of the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: untied grants are for location-specific needs under the 29 Eleventh Schedule subjects, except salaries and establishment costs; the Andhra instalment benefits 13,092 eligible gram panchayats out of 13,327.
The draft Shram Shakti Niti 2025 is described as rooted in which civilisational ethos?
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Correct answer: B — Śrama dharma
PIB: the policy is rooted in India's civilisational ethos of śrama dharma — the dignity and moral value of work.
Under the draft National Labour & Employment Policy – Shram Shakti Niti 2025, which platform is to serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment?
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Correct answer: D — National Career Service (NCS)
PIB: the National Career Service (NCS) platform will serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment, enabling job matching, credential verification and skill alignment.
Which form do electors above 85 years and electors with benchmark disabilities use to opt for postal ballot in the Bihar Assembly election 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Form 12D
PIB (ECI): such electors can avail the facility using Form 12D, submitted to the Returning Officer through their BLO within 5 days of the notification.
Consider the following statements regarding postal ballots in the Bihar Assembly election 2025: 1. The facility for electors above 85 years and those with benchmark disabilities is notified under Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. Service voters receiving ballots through ETPBS must bear the cost of postal services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (ECI): the Commission notified the facility as per Section 60(c) of the RP Act, 1951; service voters are not required to bear the cost of postal services.
Of the ₹903.67 crore approved by the High-Level Committee in October 2025 for expansion and modernisation of fire services, which state received the largest amount?
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Correct answer: D — Madhya Pradesh
PIB: of ₹903.67 crore, ₹117.19 crore was approved for Haryana, ₹397.54 crore for Madhya Pradesh and ₹388.94 crore for Rajasthan.
Consider the following statements about the High-Level Committee decision of 7 October 2025: 1. The additional assistance to Assam and Gujarat from the NDRF is subject to adjustment of 50% of the opening balance in their SDRF. 2. During 2025-26, the Centre released SDRF funds to all 36 States and UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the assistance is provided from the NDRF subject to adjustment of 50% of the opening balance available in the SDRF; in 2025-26 the Centre released ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states under the SDRF.
Which section of the IT Act, 2000 empowers the Government, in its executive capacity, to block online content that threatens national security, public order or friendly relations with foreign States?
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Correct answer: C — Section 69A
PIB: MeitY Secretary S. Krishnan explained that Section 69A empowers the Government, in its executive capacity, to block online content in such cases; Section 79(3)(b) deals with notices to intermediaries.
Consider the following statements: 1. Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, read with Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021, empowers ministries, departments and States/UTs to send notices to intermediaries. 2. Under Section 79, final adjudication of an intermediary's liability rests with the executive. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Section 79(3)(b) read with Rule 3(1)(d) empowers ministries, departments and States/UTs to send notices to intermediaries; Section 79 places intermediaries on notice, while final adjudication rests with the judiciary.
How many of the 243 seats in the Bihar Legislative Assembly are reserved for Scheduled Castes, as per the ECI press note of 6 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 38
PIB (ECI): the Bihar Assembly has 243 constituencies, of which 38 are reserved for SCs and 2 for STs.
On which date was counting of votes scheduled for the Bihar Assembly election 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 14 November 2025
ECI schedule (Annexure-I): polling on 6 November (121 ACs) and 11 November (122 ACs); counting on 14 November 2025; election to be completed by 16 November.
Consider the following statements about the Bihar Assembly election 2025: 1. With a cap of 1,200 electors per polling station, Bihar's polling stations rose from 77,462 (Lok Sabha 2024) to 90,712. 2. The final electoral roll, after a Special Intensive Revision with 1 July 2025 as qualifying date, was published on 30 September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (ECI): a maximum of 1,200 electors per polling station took the count from 77,462 to 90,712; the SIR used 01.07.2025 as the qualifying date and the final roll was published on 30.09.2025.
The ECI conducts elections to the Bihar Legislative Assembly under which Article of the Constitution read with Article 172(1)?
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Correct answer: A — Article 324
PIB (ECI): the Commission conducts the election in exercise of powers under Article 324 read with Article 172(1) of the Constitution and Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
The Ghatsila (ST) Assembly constituency, where a bye-election was announced on 6 October 2025, is in which state?
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Correct answer: C — Jharkhand
PIB (ECI): 45-Ghatsila (ST) in Jharkhand fell vacant on the death of Ramdas Soren.
Consider the following statements about the bye-elections announced on 6 October 2025: 1. The Budgam seat in Jammu and Kashmir fell vacant on the resignation of Omar Abdullah. 2. The Anta seat in Rajasthan fell vacant on the death of the sitting member. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (ECI): 27-Budgam fell vacant on the resignation of Omar Abdullah; 193-Anta fell vacant on the disqualification of Kanwarlal.
In the investigation following child deaths in Chhindwara (October 2025), the cough syrup 'Coldrif' was found to contain which substance beyond the permissible limit?
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Correct answer: B — Diethylene glycol (DEG)
PIB (MoHFW): of 10 samples analysed, 9 met quality standards, but the cough syrup 'Coldrif' contained DEG (diethylene glycol) beyond the permissible limit; Tamil Nadu FDA acted against the unit in Kancheepuram.
The 'Revised Schedule M', whose strict compliance the Union Health Secretary stressed in October 2025, deals with which of the following?
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Correct answer: D — Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) for drug manufacturing units
PIB (MoHFW): the DCGI reiterated that drug manufacturing units must strictly comply with the Revised Schedule M for Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP).
Consider the following statements about the Chhindwara cough syrup case (October 2025): 1. The cluster of cases and deaths was reported to IDSP, NCDC by the Metropolitan Surveillance Unit, Nagpur, set up under PM-ABHIM. 2. Risk-based inspections were initiated across 19 drug manufacturing units in six States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (MoHFW): the MSU Nagpur, established under PM-ABHIM, reported the cluster to IDSP, NCDC; Risk-Based Inspections have been initiated across 19 manufacturing units in six States.