Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The proposed mandatory 'Country of Origin' filter for e-commerce platforms is to be introduced by amending which rules?
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Correct answer: C — Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011
The draft amends rule 6(10) of the Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011.
Consider the following statements about the draft 'Country of Origin' filter rules of November 2025: 1. The filter must be provided by every e-commerce entity selling imported products. 2. The draft was issued by the Department of Commerce. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The proviso applies to every e-commerce entity selling imported products. The draft was issued by the Department of Consumer Affairs, not the Department of Commerce.
Which institution co-hosted the National Conference on the three new criminal laws with the Ministry of Home Affairs in Bhopal on 8–9 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — National Judicial Academy
The MHA and the National Judicial Academy, Bhopal, hosted the two-day conference.
As per the MHA in November 2025, how many states/UTs had issued notifications on e-Sakshya under the new criminal laws?
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Correct answer: B — 26
Notifications on e-Sakshya had been issued by 26 states/UTs and on e-Summons by 24; Nyaya-Shruti (videoconferencing) had been notified by 16 High Courts.
Consider the following statements about the implementation of the new criminal laws, as reported by the MHA in November 2025: 1. Around 50 lakh FIRs had been registered under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. 2. More than 38,000 Zero FIRs had been registered since 1 July 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The MHA said around 50 lakh FIRs were registered under the BNS and more than 38,000 Zero FIRs had been registered since 1 July 2024, when the new laws came into force.
How much revenue did the Special Swachhata campaigns in central government offices earn from scrap disposal since 2021, as per Dr Jitendra Singh in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — About ₹4,085 crore
Dr Jitendra Singh said ₹4,085 crore 24 lakh had been earned through five annual campaigns since 2021.
How much office space was freed through the Special Swachhata campaigns since 2021?
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Correct answer: B — 231.75 lakh sq ft
231.75 lakh sq ft of space that had been blocked with waste, worn-out furniture and scrap was freed for productive use.
Which training module did PM Narendra Modi launch at the National Conference on Strengthening Legal Aid Delivery Mechanisms on 8 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Community Mediation Training Module
PM Modi launched NALSA's Community Mediation Training Module, saying it revives the tradition of resolving disputes through dialogue.
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid. 2. National Legal Services Day is observed on 9 November because the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, came into force on that date in 1995. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Article 39A provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections (Law Ministry backgrounder). The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, came into force on 9 November 1995, which is why 9 November is National Legal Services Day.
Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is headed by whom?
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Correct answer: D — Chief Justice of India
The PIB backgrounder says the Act set up a three-tier system, with NALSA headed by the Chief Justice of India and State Legal Services Authorities headed by the Chief Justice of the High Court.
In the ECI's post-poll scrutiny for Bihar Phase-I in November 2025, what is Form 17A?
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Correct answer: A — Register of Voters
The ECI described Form 17A as the Register of Voters, scrutinised along with other poll-day documents.
How many Assembly constituencies went to the polls in Phase-I of the Bihar Assembly elections 2025, where no re-poll was recommended?
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Correct answer: C — 121
Scrutiny was conducted in all 121 Assembly constituencies that voted in Phase-I, and no re-poll was recommended.
The Supreme Court's 6 November 2025 ruling that grounds of arrest must be given in writing to every arrestee was based on which constitutional provision?
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Correct answer: B — Article 22(1)
The court held that the Article 22(1) requirement to inform an arrested person of the grounds of arrest applies to all offences and must be met in writing.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's 6 November 2025 judgment in Mihir Rajesh Shah vs State of Maharashtra: 1. Grounds of arrest must be supplied in writing, in a language the arrestee understands, for offences under all statutes. 2. Where written grounds cannot be given at the time of arrest, they must be supplied at least 24 hours before production for remand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The court required written grounds in the arrestee's language for all offences; if not given at arrest, they must be supplied at least two hours (not 24 hours) before production for remand.
Who authored the Supreme Court judgment of 6 November 2025 making written grounds of arrest mandatory for all offences?
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Correct answer: D — Justice Augustine George Masih
The Bench of CJI B.R. Gavai and Justice Augustine George Masih delivered the verdict; Justice Masih wrote the 52-page judgment.
What was the final voter turnout in the first phase of the Bihar Assembly election held on 6 November 2025, described as the highest in the state's history?
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Correct answer: D — 65.08%
The final Phase I turnout was 65.08%, above the 1998 record of 64.6%; the provisional figure at 8:15 pm was 64.66%, and 2020 saw 57.29%.
Consider the following statements about Phase I of the Bihar Assembly election on 6 November 2025: 1. For the first time in Bihar, 100% of polling stations had live webcasting. 2. International Election Visitors' Programme delegates included representatives from Belgium and Colombia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ECI said 100% live webcasting was done for the first time in Bihar, and 16 IEVP delegates from South Africa, Indonesia, Thailand, the Philippines, Belgium and Colombia observed the poll.
How many Assembly constituencies went to the polls in Phase I of the Bihar election on 6 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 121
Phase I covered 121 Assembly constituencies spread over 18 districts.
The Election Commission of India, which conducted the Bihar polls of November 2025, was established in accordance with the Constitution on which date?
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Correct answer: B — 25 January 1950
The ECI is a permanent constitutional body established on 25 January 1950; it celebrated its Golden Jubilee in 2001.
The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues (Amendment) Rules, 2025, notified on 6 November 2025, were framed under which Act?
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Correct answer: C — Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994
The Health Ministry notified the amendment rules under the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994 on 6 November 2025.
Which mandatory requirement for Corneal Transplantation Centres was removed by the THOTA (Amendment) Rules, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Clinical Specular equipment
The amendment removed the mandatory requirement of Clinical Specular equipment in Corneal Transplantation Centres.
According to the Health Ministry, the THOTA (Amendment) Rules notified in November 2025 further strengthen which programme?
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Correct answer: D — National Organ Transplant Programme
The ministry said the amendment further strengthens the National Organ Transplant Programme (NOTP).
Who formally unveiled the India AI Governance Guidelines on 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood, Principal Scientific Adviser
The guidelines were formally unveiled by Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood, Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
The India AI Governance Guidelines released in November 2025 were drafted by a high-level committee chaired by whom?
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Correct answer: A — Prof. Balaraman Ravindran, IIT Madras
The guidelines were drafted by a high-level committee under the chairmanship of Prof. Balaraman Ravindran, IIT Madras.
Consider the following statements about the India AI Governance Guidelines (November 2025): 1. The framework includes seven guiding principles (Sutras) and recommendations across six pillars of AI governance. 2. The guidelines propose a new standalone AI law to replace existing legislation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The framework has seven Sutras and six pillars; MeitY Secretary S. Krishnan said the focus remains on using existing legislation wherever possible, so statement 2 is wrong.
The IndiaAI Mission, under which the AI Governance Guidelines were released, was approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 March 2024 with what outlay?
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,371.92 crore
The Cabinet approved the IndiaAI Mission on 7 March 2024 with a budget outlay of ₹10,371.92 crore.
The launch of the India AI Governance Guidelines in November 2025 was described as a key milestone ahead of which event?
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Correct answer: C — India–AI Impact Summit 2026
MeitY said the launch marks a key milestone ahead of the India–AI Impact Summit 2026.
What is the month-long target of the nationwide Digital Life Certificate Campaign 4.0 (1–30 November 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 2 crore
Campaign 4.0 has a month-long target of two crore DLCs; over 22 lakh were generated in its first four days.
Who formally launched the nationwide Digital Life Certificate Campaign 4.0 on 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Jitendra Singh
Union Minister Dr Jitendra Singh, MoS (Independent Charge) and MoS for Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, formally launched the campaign.
The Chhattisgarh Rajat Mahotsav that closed on 5 November 2025 marked 25 years since the state was created on which date?
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Correct answer: B — 1 November 2000
The Vice-President recalled that Chhattisgarh was created on 1 November 2000 under PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Where was the closing ceremony of the Chhattisgarh Rajat Mahotsav held on 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nava Raipur
Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan attended the closing ceremony held in Nava Raipur as chief guest.
On 5 November 2025, Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan attended a 'Lakhpati Didi Sammelan' in which district of Chhattisgarh?
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Correct answer: B — Rajnandgaon
The Vice-President attended the Lakhpati Didi Sammelan at Rajnandgaon, Chhattisgarh.
Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, which began on 4 November 2025, covers how many States and Union Territories?
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Correct answer: B — 9 States and 3 UTs
SIR Phase II covers 9 States and 3 UTs (Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry).
Consider the following statements about SIR Phase II (November 2025): 1. The Election Commission ordered it under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 2. Its enumeration period runs until 4 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ECI ordered the SIR under Article 324 and Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950, and the enumeration period runs from 4 November to 4 December 2025.
Approximately how many electors are covered by Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision that began in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 51 crore
Phase II covers nearly 51 crore electors across 321 districts and 1,843 Assembly constituencies.
Which of the following is NOT among the States/UTs covered by SIR Phase II, which began on 4 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Assam
Phase II covers Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry; Assam is not in the list.
In November 2025, the Union Government released over how much in XV Finance Commission grants to rural local bodies in Odisha?
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Correct answer: A — ₹444 crore
The Centre released over ₹444 crore: ₹342.60 crore as the second instalment of Untied Grants and ₹101.78 crore withheld from the first instalment.
Who chaired the Fifteenth Finance Commission, whose grants were released to Odisha's rural local bodies in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — N.K. Singh
The Fifteenth Finance Commission was headed by N.K. Singh.
The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 27 November 2017 under which Article of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: D — Article 280
The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted in pursuance of clause (1) of Article 280 of the Constitution with effect from 27 November 2017.
Within how many minutes are C-VIGIL complaints to be attended to by flying squads during the Bihar Assembly election 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 100 minutes
ECI deployed 824 flying squads across Bihar to ensure C-VIGIL complaints are attended to within 100 minutes.
As of 3 November 2025, which category accounted for the largest value among illicit inducements seized in connection with the Bihar elections?
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Correct answer: B — Liquor
Liquor worth ₹42.14 crore (9.6 lakh litres) was the largest item, ahead of drugs (₹24.61 crore) and cash (₹9.62 crore).
President Droupadi Murmu attended a function on 3 November 2025 marking how many years since the establishment of Raj Bhavan, Nainital?
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Correct answer: C — 125 years
The President graced the commemoration of 125 years of the establishment of Raj Bhavan, Nainital.
Where did President Murmu address the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly on 3 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dehradun
The President addressed the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly at Dehradun on the Silver Jubilee of the state's formation.
On 3 November 2025, President Murmu addressed the Legislative Assembly of which state on the Silver Jubilee of its formation?
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Correct answer: B — Uttarakhand
The President addressed the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly on the occasion of the Silver Jubilee of the formation of Uttarakhand.
Where is the new Chhattisgarh Vidhan Sabha building inaugurated by PM Modi on 1 November 2025 located?
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Correct answer: B — Nava Raipur
The PM inaugurated the new building of the Chhattisgarh Vidhansabha at Nava Raipur.
In which year was the state of Chhattisgarh established, as recalled by PM Modi at the new Assembly building on 1 November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 2000
PM Modi recalled that when the state was established in 2000, the first Assembly session was held at Jashpur Hall in Rajkumar College, Raipur.
Who is the Speaker of the Chhattisgarh Legislative Assembly, as noted at the inauguration of its new building in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Raman Singh
The PM noted that the Speaker's Chair is graced by Dr Raman Singh; Vishnu Deo Sai is CM and Ramen Deka is Governor.
Consider the following statements about the Shaheed Veer Narayan Singh Memorial-cum-Tribal Freedom Fighters Museum inaugurated on 1 November 2025: 1. It has been built at a cost of ₹50 crore. 2. It houses around 650 sculptures across 14 galleries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the museum cost ₹50 crore and houses around 650 sculptures across 14 galleries.
Haryana, which celebrates Haryana Day on 1 November, was formed in 1966 under which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
Section 3 of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 formed the State of Haryana on the appointed day, 1 November 1966.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Union Territory of Chandigarh was formed on 1 November 1966 under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966. 2. 1 November 2000 was notified as the appointed day of the Madhya Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000, which created Chhattisgarh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Section 4 of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 formed the UT of Chandigarh on 1 November 1966, and MHA notified 1 November 2000 as the appointed day of the Madhya Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000.
Under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, the new State of Kerala was formed on 1 November 1956 from which existing State?
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Correct answer: D — Travancore-Cochin
The Act defines the new State of Kerala as corresponding to the existing State of Travancore-Cochin.
At the Chhattisgarh Rajat Mahotsav in Nava Raipur on 1 November 2025, marking 25 years of the state, the PM inaugurated and laid foundation stones for projects worth over:
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Correct answer: A — ₹14,260 crore
PIB reported that the PM inaugurated and laid foundation stones for projects worth over ₹14,260 crore covering roads, industry, healthcare and energy.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on each of Dikshant IAS and Abhimanu IAS, as announced on 1 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹8 lakh
The CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹8,00,000 each on the two coaching centres.
Under which law did the Central Consumer Protection Authority penalise coaching centres for misleading advertisements in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Consumer Protection Act, 2019
The penalties were imposed for violations of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
The Model Youth Gram Sabha initiative launched on 30 October 2025 is led by which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Panchayati Raj
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj launched it in collaboration with the Ministry of Education and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
The Model Youth Gram Sabha will be implemented in how many schools initially?
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Correct answer: A — Over 1,000
It will be implemented across over 1,000 schools, including JNVs, EMRSs and state government schools.
What document did delegates adopt at the third National Conference on NeVA on 30 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — New Delhi Resolution on NeVA 2025
Delegates unanimously adopted the New Delhi Resolution on NeVA 2025 to speed up the move to digital legislatures.
As of 30 October 2025, how many Legislative Houses were live on the National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA)?
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Correct answer: B — 20
28 Legislative Houses had signed MoUs for NeVA, and 20 Houses were live on it.
Which SCO member state hosted the Expert Working Group meetings that finalised the Joint Statement of the 12th SCO Justice Ministers' Meeting (29 October 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Russia
PIB says three Expert Working Group meetings, hosted by member state Russia, finalised the Joint Statement signed at the JMM on 29 October 2025.
Which country will host the next (13th) SCO Justice Ministers' Meeting in 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Tajikistan
PIB states that the next session of the SCO Justice Ministers' Meeting will be hosted by Tajikistan in 2026.
Who heads the 8th Central Pay Commission, whose Terms of Reference were approved by the Union Cabinet on 28 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai
Indian Express and BusinessLine report that the Commission is headed by former Supreme Court judge Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai.
Within what period of its constitution must the 8th Central Pay Commission make its recommendations?
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Correct answer: D — 18 months
PIB: the Commission will make its recommendations within 18 months of the date of its constitution.
Consider the following statements about the 8th Central Pay Commission: 1. It is a temporary body comprising a Chairperson, one part-time Member and a Member-Secretary. 2. Going by the usual ten-year trend, its recommendations would normally take effect from 1 January 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB says the effect of the 8th CPC recommendations would normally be expected from 01.01.2026, not 2027.
The ₹20 crore released in advance to Nagaland in October 2025 was the second instalment of the Central share of which fund?
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Correct answer: D — State Disaster Response Fund
PIB: ₹20 crore was released as the 2nd instalment of the Central share of SDRF to Nagaland for 2025-26.
Under which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 did the ECI prohibit exit polls for the Bihar elections from 6 to 11 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Section 126A
PIB: the Commission notified the exit poll prohibition under Section 126A of the RP Act, 1951.
What is the length of the 'silence period' under Section 126(1)(b) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951?
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Correct answer: A — 48 hours
PIB: Section 126(1)(b) prohibits displaying election matter during the 48 hours ending with the hour fixed for conclusion of the poll.
A violation of Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (silence period) is punishable with imprisonment of up to:
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Correct answer: D — Two years
PIB: violation of Section 126 of the RP Act, 1951 is punishable with imprisonment up to two years, or with fine, or both.
In the 127th episode of Mann Ki Baat, the PM mentioned 'Garbage Cafes' where people get a meal in exchange for plastic waste. In which city are they run?
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Correct answer: C — Ambikapur
The PM said Garbage Cafes are being run in Ambikapur, Chhattisgarh: 1 kg of plastic gets lunch or dinner, half a kg gets breakfast.
According to Mann Ki Baat (26 October 2025), mangroves have spread over about 3,500 hectares on the Dholera coast in five years. Dholera is in which state?
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Correct answer: D — Gujarat
The PM said Gujarat's Forest Department planted mangroves near Dholera near Ahmedabad; a Mangrove Learning Centre has also been set up at Kori Creek, Kutch.
As stated in Mann Ki Baat (October 2025), from which date does India enter the 150th year of the national song 'Vande Mataram'?
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Correct answer: B — 7 November 2025
The PM said that on 7 November India will enter the 150th year of 'Vande Mataram'; Tagore first sang it in 1896.
Koraput coffee, praised by the PM in the 127th Mann Ki Baat, is grown in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Odisha
The PM said people from Odisha had written to him about Koraput coffee and praised its taste.
Where was the national 'Training cum Workshop on NAKSHA' for District Collectors held on 27-28 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — LBSNAA, Mussoorie
PIB: DoLR and LBSNAA's B N Yugandhar Centre for Rural Studies held the workshop in Mussoorie.
The NAKSHA programme for urban land records is being piloted across:
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Correct answer: D — 28 states and 3 UTs
PIB: the workshop prepares District Collectors for NAKSHA pilot implementation across 28 states and 3 UTs.
Who chaired the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) meeting on 25 October 2025 that reviewed preparedness for the impending cyclone in the Bay of Bengal?
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Correct answer: B — Cabinet Secretary Dr. T. V. Somanathan
PIB: Cabinet Secretary Dr. T. V. Somanathan chaired the NCMC meeting; the Union Home Secretary and NDMA officials attended.
Consider the following statements about the NCMC review of 25 October 2025: 1. Fishermen were advised not to venture into the sea off Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Yanam and Odisha from 26 to 29 October. 2. The Indian Coast Guard had shepherded over 900 ships to jetties and shores. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PIB release on the NCMC meeting.
The NCMC on 25 October 2025 reviewed cyclone preparedness of several state/UT governments. Which one of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: C — West Bengal
PIB: the Cabinet Secretary reviewed the preparedness of Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry. West Bengal was not part of the review.
According to the PIB backgrounder of October 2025, by when does the Union Government aim to make all affected districts Naxal-free?
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Correct answer: B — March 2026
PIB backgrounder: the unified plan aims to make all affected districts Naxal-free by March 2026.
Consider the following statements based on the PIB backgrounder on Naxalism (October 2025): 1. The number of Naxal-affected districts fell from 126 in 2014 to 18 in 2024. 2. Twelve districts are now categorised as most-affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: affected districts fell from 126 in 2014 to 18 in 2024, with only 6 (not 12) now categorised as most-affected.
The Bastariya Battalion, cited in the PIB backgrounder on Naxalism as a symbol of local participation, was formed in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2018
PIB backgrounder: the Bastariya Battalion, formed in 2018, comprises 1,143 recruits, including 400 youth from Bijapur, Sukma and Dantewada districts.
Which department integrated the Legal Information Management and Briefing System (LIMBS) with the Public Financial Management System (PFMS) for paperless payment of advocates' fees in 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Legal Affairs
PIB: the Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law & Justice, integrated LIMBS with PFMS under Special Campaign 5.0.
Under the LC75 option extended to Central Government employees in October 2025, the maximum equity allocation is:
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Correct answer: C — 75%
PIB: LC75 allows a maximum equity allocation of 75%, tapering gradually from age 35 to 55 (to 15% by age 55).
Under the Balanced Life Cycle (BLC) option for NPS/UPS subscribers, the equity allocation starts tapering from which age?
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Correct answer: D — 45 years
PIB: BLC is a modified version of LC50, with equity allocation tapering from age 45, letting employees stay in equities longer; equity is 35% by age 55.
Consider the following statements about investment options for Central Government employees (October 2025): 1. LC75 and BLC options have been extended under both NPS and the Unified Pension Scheme. 2. Scheme G invests 100% in Government securities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: LC75 and BLC were extended under both NPS and UPS; Scheme G means 100% investment in Government securities.