Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How much in XV Finance Commission untied grants did Haryana's rural local bodies receive (announced 5 November 2024)?
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Correct answer: C — ₹194.87 crore
PIB (Panchayati Raj): Haryana's PRIs were given untied grants of ₹194.867 crore as the 1st instalment.
XV Finance Commission untied grants to rural local bodies can be used for location-specific needs under the subjects listed in:
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Correct answer: A — The Eleventh Schedule (29 subjects)
PIB (Panchayati Raj): untied grants are used for felt needs under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution, except salaries and establishment costs.
Who was elected the first Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir on 4 November 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Abdul Rahim Rather
J&K DIPR (4 Nov 2024): NC leader Abdul Rahim Rather was unanimously elected first Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of the UT of J&K.
Abdul Rahim Rather, elected Speaker of the J&K Legislative Assembly in November 2024, is a seven-time MLA from which constituency?
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Correct answer: B — Charar-e-Sharief
J&K DIPR: Rather is a seven-time MLA from Charar-e-Sharief.
Who was the pro-tem Speaker who conducted the session in which the J&K Assembly Speaker was elected on 4 November 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Mubarak Gul
J&K DIPR: pro-tem Speaker Mubarak Gul conducted the session; Javed Ahmad Dar moved and Arjun Singh Raju seconded the motion.
Which meeting of the Kendriya Hindi Samiti did Amit Shah chair in New Delhi on 4 November 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 32nd
PIB (MHA): Amit Shah chaired the 32nd meeting of the 'Kendriya Hindi Samiti' in New Delhi.
Which dictionary did Amit Shah say will become the largest and most comprehensive dictionary in the world?
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Correct answer: A — Hindi Shabdsindhu
PIB (MHA): Shah said the 'Hindi Shabdsindhu' dictionary will become the largest and most comprehensive dictionary in the world.
At the Kendriya Hindi Samiti meeting (November 2024), Amit Shah said India is the only country in the world with how many classical languages?
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Correct answer: B — 11
PIB (MHA): 'India is the only country in the world which has 11 classical languages.'
What is the 'appointed day' under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, marked each year as the formation day of Kerala, Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh?
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Correct answer: C — 1 November 1956
States Reorganisation Act, 1956, s. 2(a): 'appointed day' means the 1st day of November, 1956. PIB carried the PM's greetings to these states on 1 Nov 2024.
Under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, Kerala was formed from Travancore-Cochin, Kasaragod taluk of South Kanara and which district?
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Correct answer: A — Malabar
States Reorganisation Act, 1956, s. 5: Kerala comprised Travancore-Cochin (minus territories transferred to Madras), Malabar district (excluding Laccadive and Minicoy) and Kasaragod taluk of South Kanara.
Kannada Rajyotsava marks 1 November 1956, when the States Reorganisation Act formed a new State known as:
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Correct answer: B — Mysore
States Reorganisation Act, 1956, s. 7: a new State to be known as the State of Mysore was formed from the appointed day (1 November 1956).
Under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, territories of Hyderabad were added to which State, which was then renamed Andhra Pradesh?
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Correct answer: D — Andhra
States Reorganisation Act, 1956, s. 3: Hyderabad territories were added to the State of Andhra, which became known as the State of Andhra Pradesh.
Under which law was the State of Haryana formed on 1 November 1966?
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Correct answer: B — Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966: s. 2(b) appointed day is 1 November 1966; s. 3 forms the State of Haryana from territories of the existing State of Punjab.
Besides Haryana, which new Union territory was formed on 1 November 1966 under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966?
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Correct answer: D — Chandigarh
Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966, s. 4: a new Union territory to be known as Chandigarh was formed on and from the appointed day.
On which date was the State of Chhattisgarh created?
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Correct answer: C — 1 November 2000
PIB (Vice-President's Secretariat, 2025): the State of Chhattisgarh was created on 1st November 2000; the PM greeted it on its Foundation Day on 1 Nov 2024.
How many personnel were awarded the 'Kendriya Grihmantri Dakshata Padak' for 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 463
PIB (MHA), 31 Oct 2024: the medal was awarded to 463 personnel of various States/UTs/CAPFs/CPOs for 2024.
The 'Kendriya Grihmantri Dakshata Padak' was instituted by an MHA notification dated:
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Correct answer: B — 1 February 2024
PIB (MHA), 31 Oct 2024: instituted vide Ministry of Home Affairs' Notification dated 1st February, 2024.
Consider the following about the 'Kendriya Grihmantri Dakshata Padak': 1. It recognises excellent work in Special Operation, Investigation, Intelligence and Forensic Science. 2. It is announced every year on 15 August. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MHA), 31 Oct 2024: the four fields are Special Operation, Investigation, Intelligence and Forensic Science; the medal is announced on 31 October every year, Sardar Patel's birth anniversary.
MeitY's advisory of 26 October 2024 on hoax bomb threats warned that intermediaries failing in due diligence would lose protection under which section of the IT Act, 2000?
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Correct answer: D — Section 79
PIB, 26 Oct 2024: non-compliance with due diligence requirements shall revoke protection under section 79 and may invite consequential action under any law.
As restated in MeitY's advisory of 26 October 2024, social media platforms must assist authorised government agencies in investigations under the IT Rules, 2021 in a timely manner, but not later than:
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Correct answer: B — 72 hours
PIB, 26 Oct 2024: social media platforms are obligated under IT Rules, 2021 to timely assist authorised government agencies in investigations and cybersecurity, but not later than 72 hours.
Under the Quality Control Order cited in the Department of Consumer Affairs' helmet drive (26 October 2024), all helmets must comply with which BIS standard?
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Correct answer: C — IS 4151:2015
PIB, 26 Oct 2024: the QCO mandates that all helmets comply with the BIS standard IS 4151: 2015.
From which date has the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways enforced the Quality Control Order for helmets, as stated in the release of 26 October 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 1 June 2021
PIB, 26 Oct 2024: MoRTH has enforced the Quality Control Order (QCO) as of June 1, 2021, mandating that all helmets comply with IS 4151: 2015.
The National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) concluded its first Mid-Career Training Programme on 25 October 2024 for 36 civil servants from which grouping's member nations?
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Correct answer: C — BIMSTEC
PIB, 26 Oct 2024: NCGG concluded its first Mid-Career Training Programme for civil servants from BIMSTEC nations, organised from October 14 to October 25; 36 civil servants participated.
What new facility does the ECI's upgraded Suvidha 2.0 mobile app (launched 24 October 2024) offer candidates and parties?
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Correct answer: D — Applying for campaign-related permissions
PIB, 24 Oct 2024: candidates and parties can now apply for campaign related permissions also in the new Suvidha 2.0 mobile application; earlier they could only track status and download approvals on the app.
What milestone did Government e Marketplace (GeM) achieve with its MoU with Sikkim signed in Gangtok on 24 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Coverage of all States and UTs of India
PIB, 24 Oct 2024: with this MoU, GeM has achieved the coverage of all the States and UTs of India.
As of 23 October 2024, buyers from the Government of Sikkim had procured goods and services worth approximately how much through GeM (PIB, 24 October 2024)?
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Correct answer: C — ₹90 crore
PIB, 24 Oct 2024: as of 23rd Oct 2024, buyers from Government of Sikkim have done procurement worth approximately ₹90 crore.
On 23 October 2024, Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya held a consultation with athletes and coaches on which draft legislation?
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Correct answer: A — Draft National Sports Governance Bill 2024
PIB, 23 Oct 2024: Dr Mandaviya chaired a stakeholders' consultation meeting to discuss the Draft National Sports Governance Bill 2024 in New Delhi.
About how many sportspersons and coaches attended the 23 October 2024 consultation on the Draft National Sports Governance Bill in person?
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Correct answer: B — About 40
PIB, 23 Oct 2024: approximately 40 sportspersons and coaches attended the meeting in person.
Under the NFRA-IICA MoU signed on 22 October 2024, what is planned for the first batch of professionals?
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Correct answer: B — A four-month course starting in the last week of December 2024
PIB (released 23 Oct 2024): 'A four-month course to commence from last week of December 2024 for the 1st batch under this MoU.'
Consider the following statements about the NFRA-IICA MoU: 1. It was signed on 22 October 2024 in Delhi. 2. It targets capacity building for early and mid-career auditing and accounting professionals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per PIB: the MoU was signed on 22 October 2024 in Delhi, and its key deliverable is capacity-building programmes for early and mid-career auditing and accounting professionals.
The nationwide Digital Life Certificate Campaign 3.0 announced by DoPPW on 22 October 2024 was scheduled for:
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Correct answer: A — 1-30 November 2024
PIB, 22 Oct 2024: DoPPW will conduct the 3rd nationwide DLC campaign in 800 cities/districts from November 1-30, 2024.
In how many districts/cities was DLC Campaign 3.0 (November 2024) planned, as per DoPPW?
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Correct answer: C — 800
PIB, 22 Oct 2024: camps to be held at 800 districts/cities. (597 locations in 100 cities was DLC 2.0; 785 is the number of district post offices taking part.)
What is the target of DLC Campaign 3.0 (November 2024), as stated by DoPPW?
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Correct answer: B — 2 crore DLCs, including 1 crore face-authenticated DLCs
PIB, 22 Oct 2024: 'Saturation model adopted to achieve 2 crore DLCs with 1 crore Face Authenticated DLCs.'
Who chaired the National Crisis Management Committee meeting on 21 October 2024 that reviewed preparedness for the impending Bay of Bengal cyclone?
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Correct answer: B — Cabinet Secretary Dr T.V. Somanathan
PIB, 21 Oct 2024: Cabinet Secretary Dr T.V. Somanathan chaired the NCMC meeting; the DG of IMD briefed the Committee.
Where did PM Modi launch 'Karmayogi Saptah' on 19 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Dr Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi
PIB, 19 Oct 2024: the PM launched 'Karmayogi Saptah' - National Learning Week at Dr Ambedkar International Centre in New Delhi.
'Karmayogi Saptah', launched by the PM on 19 October 2024, is also called:
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Correct answer: A — National Learning Week
PIB, 19 Oct 2024: 'Karmayogi Saptah' - National Learning Week.
Who was the Chief Information Commissioner of India who called on Dr Jitendra Singh on 19 October 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Heeralal Samariya
PIB, 19 Oct 2024: Chief Information Commissioner of India Shri Heeralal Samariya called on Dr Jitendra Singh.
As reported on 19 October 2024, what RTI disposal rate did the Central Information Commission achieve in the first six months of the current financial year?
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Correct answer: B — 100%
PIB, 19 Oct 2024: the Central Information Commission has achieved 100% disposal rate of RTIs during the first six months of the current financial year.
Which Foundation Day did the NHRC celebrate on 18 October 2024 at Vigyan Bhawan?
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Correct answer: C — 31st
PIB, 18 Oct 2024: NHRC organised a function and national conference on the rights of older persons to celebrate its 31st Foundation Day.
On which date was the National Human Rights Commission set up?
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Correct answer: B — 12 October 1993
PIB, 18 Oct 2024: 'The Commission was set up on 12th October in 1993.'
Who was the NHRC Acting Chairperson at the Commission's Foundation Day function on 18 October 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Vijaya Bharathi Sayani
PIB, 18 Oct 2024: NHRC Acting Chairperson, Smt Vijaya Bharathi Sayani, addressed the function.
Which department invited public comments on the draft Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Bill, 2024 on 18 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Legal Affairs
PIB, 18 Oct 2024: the Department of Legal Affairs invites comments/feedback from the public on the draft amendment Bill.
Which of the following is a stated aim of the draft Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Bill, 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Reducing court intervention in arbitrations
PIB, 18 Oct 2024: the aim is to boost institutional arbitration, reduce court intervention in arbitrations and ensure timely conclusion of arbitration proceedings.
Where did Nayab Singh Saini take oath as Chief Minister of Haryana on 17 October 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Dussehra Ground, Panchkula
Lok Bhavan Haryana, 17 Oct 2024: Nayab Singh Saini took oath as the new Chief Minister of Haryana at Dusshera ground in Panchkula.
Who administered the oath of office to Nayab Singh Saini on 17 October 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Governor Bandaru Dattatraya
Lok Bhavan Haryana: Haryana Governor Sh Bandaru Dattatraya administered him the oath of office and secrecy.
From which assembly constituency was Nayab Singh Saini elected MLA before taking oath as Haryana CM on 17 October 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Ladwa
Lok Bhavan Haryana: elected as an MLA from the Ladwa assembly constituency. He had earlier represented Karnal as CM and Nariangarh as MLA (2014), and was MP from Kurukshetra.
Consider the following statements about the Haryana swearing-in of 17 October 2024: 1. Along with the Chief Minister, 11 Cabinet Ministers and 2 Ministers of State took oath. 2. The Haryana Gazette notified that the Chief Minister entered upon his duties with effect from 17 October 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both correct. Lok Bhavan Haryana: the Governor also administered the oath to 11 Cabinet Ministers and 2 Ministers of State. The Gazette notification of 17 Oct 2024 says he entered upon the duties of his office with effect from 17 October 2024.
As reported on 17 October 2024, CJI D.Y. Chandrachud recommended which judge as the next Chief Justice of India?
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Correct answer: C — Justice Sanjiv Khanna
The Hindu and The Indian Express, 17 Oct 2024: CJI Chandrachud recommended Justice Sanjiv Khanna, the second-most senior judge, as his successor.
If appointed, Justice Sanjiv Khanna would become the ______ Chief Justice of India.
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Correct answer: A — 51st
The Hindu and The Indian Express: Justice Khanna would be the 51st Chief Justice of India.
Consider the following statements (as reported on 17 October 2024): 1. CJI D.Y. Chandrachud is due to retire on 10 November 2024. 2. Justice Sanjiv Khanna is due to retire on 13 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both correct per The Hindu and The Indian Express: Chief Justice Chandrachud retires on November 10; Justice Khanna is due to retire on May 13, 2025.
The 149th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union, which concluded on 17 October 2024, was held in:
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Correct answer: C — Geneva
PIB: Om Birla led a Parliamentary Delegation to the 149th IPU Assembly in Geneva, held from 13 to 17 October 2024.
Who led the Indian Parliamentary Delegation to the 149th IPU Assembly (13-17 October 2024)?
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Correct answer: B — Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla
PIB: Lok Sabha Speaker Shri Om Birla led a Parliamentary Delegation (IPD) to the 149th Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) Assembly in Geneva.
The 'Scam se Bacho' national user awareness campaign launched on 17 October 2024 is a collaboration of the Government with:
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Correct answer: D — Meta
PIB, 17 Oct 2024: Government and Meta join forces for 'Scam se Bacho' campaign to tackle rising online scams.
At the 'Scam se Bacho' launch on 17 October 2024, how many cyber fraud cases were cited as reported in India in 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 1.1 million
PIB, 17 Oct 2024: rising cyber frauds, with 1.1 million cases reported in 2023.
Under CBDT's revised compounding guidelines of 17 October 2024, the multiple rates of compounding charges for TDS defaults were replaced by a single rate of:
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Correct answer: D — 1.5% per month
PIB, 17 Oct 2024: for TDS defaults, multiple rates of 2%, 3% and 5% have been reduced to single rate of 1.5% per month.
Consider the following statements about CBDT's revised compounding guidelines issued on 17 October 2024: 1. They apply only to new applications filed after the date of issue. 2. Interest chargeable on delayed payment of compounding charges has been abolished. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: PIB says the guidelines apply to pending as well as new applications. Statement 2 is correct: interest chargeable on delayed payment of compounding charges has been abolished.
Where did Omar Abdullah take oath as Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir on 16 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Sher-i-Kashmir International Conference Centre (SKICC), Srinagar
The Hindu and The Indian Express, 16 Oct 2024: Omar Abdullah took oath at the Sher-i-Kashmir International Conference Centre (SKICC) in Srinagar.
Omar Abdullah, sworn in on 16 October 2024, holds which distinction?
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Correct answer: D — First Chief Minister of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir
The Hindu and The Indian Express: Omar Abdullah became the first Chief Minister of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Who administered the oath of office to Omar Abdullah as Chief Minister on 16 October 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha
The Indian Express, 16 Oct 2024: Abdullah and his ministers were administered the oath of office and secrecy by J-K Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha.
Consider the following statements about the Jammu and Kashmir swearing-in of 16 October 2024: 1. Surinder Kumar Choudhary was sworn in as Deputy Chief Minister. 2. It is Omar Abdullah's second term as Chief Minister, his first having begun in 2009. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both correct. The Hindu and The Indian Express: Surinder Kumar Choudhary was sworn in as Deputy CM. The Hindu: it is the second term of Omar Abdullah as Chief Minister after 2009.
The additional DA/DR instalment approved by the Cabinet on 16 October 2024 is effective from:
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Correct answer: C — 1 July 2024
PIB, 16 Oct 2024: additional instalment of DA and DR w.e.f. 01.07.2024, an increase of 3% over the existing rate of 50%.
What is the combined annual impact on the exchequer of the 3% DA/DR hike approved on 16 October 2024?
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Correct answer: A — ₹9,448.35 crore
PIB, 16 Oct 2024: the combined impact on the exchequer on account of both DA and DR would be Rs.9,448.35 crore per annum.
On which date is polling for the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly election, as announced by the ECI on 15 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 20 November 2024
ECI Press Note ECI/PN/158/2024: poll is scheduled to be held in a single phase in Maharashtra on 20.11.2024.
As per the ECI schedule announced on 15 October 2024, polling in Jharkhand will be held in:
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Correct answer: D — Two phases on 13 and 20 November 2024
ECI Press Note ECI/PN/158/2024: poll is scheduled to be held in 02 phases in Jharkhand on 13.11.2024 and 20.11.2024.
The bye-elections announced by the ECI on 15 October 2024 cover:
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Correct answer: A — 48 Assembly constituencies and 2 Parliamentary constituencies in 15 States
ECI Press Note ECI/PN/150/2024 (15 Oct 2024): schedule for bye-election to 48 Assembly Constituencies and 2 Parliamentary Constituencies of 15 States.
Consider the following statements about the bye-elections announced by the ECI on 15 October 2024: 1. The Wayanad Parliamentary constituency fell vacant due to the resignation of Rahul Gandhi. 2. Polling for the Nanded Parliamentary constituency and the Kedarnath Assembly constituency is on 20 November 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both correct per ECI Press Note ECI/PN/150/2024: 4-Wayanad PC - resignation of Rahul Gandhi; poll for 16-Nanded PC and 07-Kedarnath AC is on 20.11.2024 (other bye-elections on 13.11.2024).
Which body issued the 'Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Greenwashing or Misleading Environmental Claims, 2024' on 15 October 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Central Consumer Protection Authority
PIB, 15 Oct 2024: the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) unveiled the guidelines titled 'Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Greenwashing or Misleading Environmental Claims, 2024'.
Consider the following statements about the CCPA greenwashing guidelines of 15 October 2024: 1. Words such as 'sustainable', 'natural' and 'organic' may be used freely without any qualifier. 2. Specific environmental claims must be supported by credible certification or reliable scientific evidence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: such words shall not be used without adequate, accurate and accessible qualifier. Statement 2 is correct per PIB. So statement 2 is correct.
On 15 October 2024, MLAs of which state, representing the Kuki-Zo-Hmar, Meitei and Naga communities, met in New Delhi and appealed to all communities to shun violence?
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Correct answer: C — Manipur
PIB, 15 Oct 2024: a group of elected members of Manipur Assembly, representing Kuki-Zo-Hmar, Meitei and Naga communities, met in New Delhi ... resolved to appeal to the people of the State ... to shun the path of violence.
During his October 2024 Nagaland visit, Union Tribal Affairs Minister Jual Oram visited an Eklavya Model Residential School at:
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Correct answer: D — Diphupar
PIB (14 Oct 2024): Shri Oram also visited the Eklavya Model Residential School (EMRS) in Diphupar.