Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Presidential Order of 13 October 2024 revoking President's Rule in the UT of Jammu and Kashmir was issued under which section of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
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Correct answer: B — Section 73
Gazette S.O. 4484(E), 13 Oct 2024: the Order was issued in exercise of powers conferred by section 73 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019; section 54 concerns the CM's appointment.
The 13 October 2024 Order revoked the earlier Order in relation to the UT of Jammu and Kashmir dated:
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Correct answer: D — 31 October 2019
Gazette S.O. 4484(E): the Order dated the 31st October, 2019 in relation to the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir shall stand revoked.
The revocation Order of 13 October 2024 for the UT of Jammu and Kashmir was issued under the Reorganisation Act read with which Articles of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: A — Articles 239 and 239A
Gazette S.O. 4484(E): section 73 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 read with articles 239 and 239A of the Constitution of India.
Consider the following statements about Gazette notification S.O. 4484(E) of 13 October 2024: 1. It was issued by the Department of Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh Affairs, Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. The revocation takes effect immediately before the appointment of the Chief Minister under Section 54 of the Reorganisation Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both correct per the Gazette: notification of MHA (Department of Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh Affairs); the Order stands revoked immediately before the appointment of the Chief Minister under section 54.
Under the CCPA direction announced on 13 October 2024, Ola consumers can choose their refund as:
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Correct answer: D — Bank account refund or a coupon
PIB (13 Oct 2024): CCPA directed Ola to let consumers choose their preferred method of refund, either directly to their bank account or via coupon.
Who headed the Central Consumer Protection Authority as Chief Commissioner when it issued directions to Ola in October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Nidhi Khare
PIB (13 Oct 2024): the Authority is headed by Chief Commissioner Smt. Nidhi Khare.
As noted by the CCPA in the Ola case, not issuing a bill or invoice for services rendered is an 'unfair trade practice' under:
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Correct answer: A — The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
PIB (13 Oct 2024): not issuing bill or invoice or receipt for services rendered constitutes an 'unfair trade practice' under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
How much did Rajasthan receive as the first instalment of XV Finance Commission grants for rural local bodies for 2024-25, released on 12 October 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Over ₹1,267 crore
PIB (12 Oct 2024): over Rs.1267 crores for Rajasthan and over Rs.988 crores for Andhra Pradesh released as the first instalment.
Untied XV Finance Commission grants to Panchayats can be used across how many subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule?
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Correct answer: C — 29
PIB (12 Oct 2024): untied grants enable Panchayats to address local needs across 29 subjects under the Eleventh Schedule.
Which of the following is NOT a permitted use of untied XV Finance Commission grants for rural local bodies?
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Correct answer: D — Salaries and establishment costs
PIB (12 Oct 2024): untied grants cover subjects from agriculture and rural housing to education and sanitation, but cannot be used for salaries or establishment costs.
From which fund did the PM approve ex-gratia of ₹2 lakh per deceased for the Kaithal and Mehsana incidents on 12 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Prime Minister's National Relief Fund (PMNRF)
PIB (12 Oct 2024): an ex-gratia of Rs. 2 lakhs from PMNRF for the next of kin of each deceased; Rs. 50,000 for the injured.
How much tax devolution did the Union Government release to States on 10 October 2024?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1,78,173 crore
Finance Ministry via PIB (10 Oct 2024): the Union Government released tax devolution of ₹1,78,173 crore to State Governments on 10 October 2024.
Which state received the largest amount in the tax devolution released on 10 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Uttar Pradesh
PIB state-wise table (10 Oct 2024): Uttar Pradesh received ₹31,962 crore, the largest, followed by Bihar with ₹17,921 crore.
Consider the following statements about the tax devolution released on 10 October 2024: 1. It included one advance instalment in addition to the regular instalment due in October 2024. 2. Bihar received the largest share among the States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is wrong. PIB (10 Oct 2024): the release includes one advance instalment in addition to the regular October 2024 instalment; Uttar Pradesh (₹31,962 crore) received the largest share, with Bihar (₹17,921 crore) second.
Which body does the Draft National Sports Governance Bill, 2024 propose as the central regulatory authority to recognise National Sports Federations?
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Correct answer: A — Sports Regulatory Board of India
PIB (10 Oct 2024): the draft Bill proposes a Sports Regulatory Board of India as the central regulatory authority for granting recognition to NSFs.
The Draft National Sports Governance Bill, 2024 restricts the size of executive committees of IOA/PCI/NSFs to how many members?
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Correct answer: D — 15
PIB (10 Oct 2024): the Bill restricts the size of the EC to 15 members.
Consider the following statements about the Draft National Sports Governance Bill, 2024: 1. It proposes an Appellate Sports Tribunal to handle sports-related disputes. 2. It requires 10% of voting members in the General Body of the NOC, NPC and NSFs to be sportspersons of outstanding merit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PIB (10 Oct 2024): a dedicated Appellate Sports Tribunal will handle sports disputes, and 10% of General Body voting members are to be sportspersons of outstanding merit elected by the Athletes Commission.
How many seats did the BJP win in the Haryana Assembly election, as per ECI results declared on 8 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 48
ECI party-wise results (Haryana, October 2024): Bharatiya Janata Party won 48 of 90 seats.
How many seats did the Indian National Congress win in the 2024 Haryana Assembly election, as per ECI?
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Correct answer: D — 37
ECI party-wise results (Haryana, October 2024): Indian National Congress won 37 seats.
How many seats did the Indian National Lok Dal (INLD) win in the 2024 Haryana Assembly election, as per ECI?
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Correct answer: A — 2
ECI party-wise results (Haryana, October 2024): Indian National Lok Dal won 2 seats.
Consider the following statements about the 2024 Haryana Assembly election results (ECI): 1. Independent candidates won 3 seats. 2. Results were declared for all 90 seats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. ECI party-wise results (Haryana): Independents won 3; the total shows 90 won and 0 leading, i.e. all 90 seats declared.
How many seats did the Jammu & Kashmir National Conference win in the 2024 J&K Assembly election, as per ECI?
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Correct answer: C — 42
ECI party-wise results (Jammu & Kashmir, October 2024): Jammu & Kashmir National Conference won 42 seats.
How many seats did the BJP win in the 2024 Jammu & Kashmir Assembly election, as per ECI?
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Correct answer: A — 29
ECI party-wise results (Jammu & Kashmir, October 2024): Bharatiya Janata Party won 29 seats.
How many seats did the Indian National Congress win in the 2024 Jammu & Kashmir Assembly election, as per ECI?
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Correct answer: D — 6
ECI party-wise results (Jammu & Kashmir, October 2024): Indian National Congress won 6 seats.
Consider the following statements about the 2024 Jammu & Kashmir Assembly election results (ECI): 1. The JKPDP won 5 seats. 2. Independent candidates won 7 seats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. ECI party-wise results (Jammu & Kashmir): JKPDP won 3 seats and Independents won 7.
Under which constitutional provision were three advocates appointed Judges of the Gujarat High Court by notification dated 8 October 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Article 217(1)
PIB Press Communiqué (8 Oct 2024): in exercise of the power conferred by clause (1) of Article 217, the President, after consulting the CJI, appointed three advocates as Judges of the Gujarat High Court.
The internal committee formed by CBDT in October 2024 will comprehensively review which law?
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Correct answer: A — Income-tax Act, 1961
PIB (7 Oct 2024): CBDT has formed an internal committee to oversee a comprehensive review of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Consider the following about the review of the Income-tax Act announced on 7 October 2024: 1. The internal committee was formed by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC). 2. 'Compliance Reduction' is one of the four categories in which suggestions are invited. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the committee was formed by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). Statement 2 is correct: the four categories are simplification of language, litigation reduction, compliance reduction, and redundant/obsolete provisions.
In how many phases was polling held for the 90-member Haryana Assembly on 5 October 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Single phase
ECI via PIB (5 Oct 2024): the single phase polling for 90 Assembly Constituencies in Haryana concluded largely peacefully.
According to the ECI, seizures worth how much were made in Haryana after the announcement of the 2024 Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: A — Rs 75.72 crore
ECI via PIB (5 Oct 2024): seizures worth Rs 75.72 crore were made in Haryana since the announcement of elections, against Rs 19.03 crore in 2019; Rs 31.5 crore was the cash component.
How many Central Observers did the ECI deploy for the Haryana Assembly election held on 5 October 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 97
ECI via PIB (5 Oct 2024): 97 Central Observers were deployed by the Commission for on-the-field monitoring.
According to DoT on 4 October 2024, about how many spoofed international calls with Indian numbers are being blocked daily by telecom operators?
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Correct answer: C — 45 lakh
PIB (4 Oct 2024): 45 lakh spoof international calls with Indian phone numbers are being blocked by TSPs daily (4.5 million, about one-third of spoofed calls).
Which facility did DoT advise citizens to use to report suspected spam and fraud calls, in its release of 4 October 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Chakshu
PIB (4 Oct 2024): citizens are advised to use 'Chakshu' to report spam calls.
The National Centre for Good Governance concluded its 6th Training Programme on Public Policy and Governance on 4 October 2024 for civil servants of which country?
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Correct answer: B — Cambodia
PIB (5 Oct 2024): NCGG concluded the 6th Training Programme on Public Policy and Governance for the civil servants of Cambodia on Friday (4 October) in New Delhi.
On 3 October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved Classical Language status for which group of languages?
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Correct answer: B — Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali
PIB (3 Oct 2024): Cabinet approves conferring status of Classical Language to Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali languages.
Which language was declared India's first Classical Language when the category was created on 12 October 2004?
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Correct answer: D — Tamil
PIB (3 Oct 2024): the Government created the category of 'Classical Languages' on 12 October 2004, declaring Tamil as Classical Language.
Which body has been appointed the nodal agency for Classical Languages, as per the Cabinet release of 3 October 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Sahitya Akademi
PIB (3 Oct 2024): the Linguistics Experts Committee (under Sahitya Akademi) revised the criteria on 25.07.2024, and Sahitya Akademi has been appointed as nodal agency.
Before October 2024, which language was the most recent to be notified as a Classical Language, on 01/03/2014?
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Correct answer: C — Odia
PIB (3 Oct 2024) lists notification dates: Tamil 12/10/2004, Sanskrit 25/11/2005, Telugu and Kannada 31/10/2008, Malayalam 08/08/2013 and Odia 01/03/2014.
Consider the following about Classical Language status, as per the Cabinet release of 3 October 2024: 1. The Linguistic Experts Committee under Sahitya Akademi revised the criteria in a meeting on 25.07.2024. 2. The Maharashtra Government sent its proposal for Classical Language status for Marathi in 2013. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (3 Oct 2024): the LEC (under Sahitya Akademi) unanimously revised the criteria in a meeting on 25.07.2024, and a proposal from the Maharashtra Government in 2013 requested Classical Language status for Marathi.