Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Rajiv Kumar, who was given a farewell by the Election Commission on 17 February 2025, was India's which Chief Election Commissioner?
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Correct answer: C — 25th
Rajiv Kumar assumed charge as the 25th Chief Election Commissioner on 15 May 2022 and demitted office on 18 February 2025.
Under which section of the Telecommunications Act, 2023 is an authorisation needed to establish, operate, maintain or expand a telecommunication network, the subject of TRAI's recommendations of 17 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Section 3(1)(b)
Section 3(1)(b) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023 requires such an authorisation; Section 11(1)(a) of the TRAI Act is the provision under which DoT sought TRAI's recommendations.
Which municipal corporation in Gujarat went to the polls on 16 February 2025 along with 68 municipalities?
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Correct answer: D — Junagadh
Voting was held for the Junagadh Municipal Corporation, 68 municipalities and three taluka panchayats; the BJP later won 48 of its 60 seats.
How many seats were declared uncontested in the Gujarat local body elections held on 16 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 213
213 seats were declared uncontested as only one candidate remained after all others withdrew; 124 was the number of vacant seats in by-elections.
In the Gujarat local body elections held on 16 February 2025, how many of the 68 municipalities did the BJP win when votes were counted on 18 February?
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Correct answer: D — 60
According to State Election Commission data reported by NDTV, the BJP won 60 of the 68 municipalities, 48 of the 60 seats in Junagadh and all three taluka panchayats.
From which date was the new-format Change of Guard ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan opened to a larger number of visitors?
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Correct answer: B — 22 February 2025
After the President witnessed the inaugural show on 16 February, the ceremony was opened to more visitors from Saturday, 22 February 2025.
Which units perform the military drills in the new-format Change of Guard ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan?
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Correct answer: A — President's Bodyguard and the Ceremonial Guard Battalion
The new format features drills by the troops and horses of the President's Bodyguard and the troops of the Ceremonial Guard Battalion, with the Ceremonial Military Brass Band.
Along with Dharmendra Pradhan and Yogi Adityanath, which Union Minister of State inaugurated Kashi Tamil Sangamam 3.0 in Varanasi on 15 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — L. Murugan
KTS 3.0 was inaugurated by Dharmendra Pradhan, Yogi Adityanath and Union MoS for Information & Broadcasting and Parliamentary Affairs L. Murugan.
About how many delegates from Tamil Nadu were to attend Kashi Tamil Sangamam 3.0?
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Correct answer: B — 1,200
Nearly 1,200 delegates from Tamil Nadu were to attend the 10-day event.
The Tamil verse 'Neerellam Gangai, Nilamellam Kashi', quoted by Dharmendra Pradhan at KTS 3.0, is attributed to which ruler?
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Correct answer: D — Pandya king Parakrama Pandiyan
Pradhan quoted the verse by Pandya king Parakrama Pandiyan, meaning all water is as sacred as the Ganga and every land as revered as Kashi.
What did the Himachal Pradesh Cabinet decide on 15 February 2025 for the state's entry toll barriers?
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Correct answer: A — Introduce FASTag at all entry toll barriers in phases
The Cabinet decided to implement FASTag at all entry toll barriers in a phased manner, beginning with Garamaura, Parwanoo, Baddi and others.
Into how many categories did the Himachal Cabinet decide to classify the state's 135 police stations in February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 6
All 135 police stations are to be categorised into six categories based on population, area, crime, traffic, inter-state borders and tourist flow.
How much additional entry-tax revenue over 2024-25 does Himachal Pradesh expect from the auction-cum-tender process approved for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 11.56 crore rupees
The Cabinet approved the auction-cum-tender process for entry tax in 2025-26, expecting ₹11.56 crore more than in 2024-25.
In how many categories were nominations invited for the National Awards for e-Governance 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 6
Nominations were invited in six categories, from government process re-engineering to data analytics; the deadline was extended to 28 February 2025.
At the ET Now Global Business Summit 2025, PM Modi described the government's financial inclusion strategy as:
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Correct answer: A — Banking the unbanked, securing the unsecured and funding the unfunded
The Prime Minister said 'Banking the unbanked, Securing the unsecured and Funding the unfunded' has been the government's strategy.
At his review of the new criminal laws in Maharashtra on 14 February 2025, Amit Shah asked the state to set up a model version of which system?
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Correct answer: A — Directorate of Prosecution
Shah said Maharashtra should establish a model Directorate of Prosecution system in line with the new criminal laws.
Which publication did Jitendra Singh launch at the IIAS-DARPG India Conference 2025, which concluded on 14 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Viksit Bharat@2047: Governance Transformed
Jitendra Singh launched the 710-page volume 'Viksit Bharat@2047: Governance Transformed' at the conference, held from 10 to 14 February 2025.
Under which Article of the Constitution was President's Rule imposed in Manipur on 13 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Article 356
President Droupadi Murmu issued the proclamation under Article 356, which deals with failure of constitutional machinery in a state.
On whose report did the President proclaim President's Rule in Manipur in February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Governor Ajay Kumar Bhalla
The proclamation followed a report from Manipur Governor Ajay Kumar Bhalla; the notification itself was issued by the Home Ministry.
What happened to the Manipur Legislative Assembly when President's Rule was imposed on 13 February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — It was placed under suspended animation
The Assembly was placed under suspended animation, not dissolved, and its powers became exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament.
Consider the following statements about President's Rule in Manipur (February 2025): 1. It was imposed four days after Chief Minister N. Biren Singh resigned. 2. Before it, the Governor declared the order summoning the Assembly on 10 February null and void. 3. Under the proclamation, the powers of the state legislature became exercisable by the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
President's Rule came four days after Biren Singh resigned, and the Governor had annulled the order summoning the Assembly on 10 February. The legislature's powers passed to Parliament, not the Governor, so the third statement is wrong.
Who chaired the Joint Parliamentary Committee whose report on the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 was tabled on 13 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jagdambika Pal
BJP MP Jagdambika Pal chaired the committee and tabled the report in the Lok Sabha; Medha Vishram Kulkarni laid it in the Rajya Sabha.
How many members did the Joint Committee on the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 have?
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Correct answer: A — 31
The committee had 31 members, 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.
How much in pending arrears for employees and pensioners did the Punjab Cabinet approve on 13 February 2025 (in crore rupees)?
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Correct answer: C — 14,000
The Cabinet approved release of ₹14,000 crore in arrears in stages, benefiting about three lakh employees and three lakh pensioners.
For how many new Lok Adalats did the Punjab Cabinet create posts on 13 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 22
The Cabinet created posts in the Punjab State Legal Services Authority for 22 new Lok Adalats.
Which of the following districts was NOT among those where the Punjab Cabinet approved special fast-track NRI courts in February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Amritsar
The NRI courts were approved for Jalandhar, Hoshiarpur, Kapurthala, Shaheed Bhagat Singh Nagar, Moga and Ludhiana; Amritsar was not on the list.
Who is the Speaker of the Odisha Legislative Assembly who, with CM Mohan Charan Majhi, unveiled its NeVA 'Digital House' on 13 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Surama Padhy
Speaker Surama Padhy and Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi unveiled the Digital House of Odisha under NeVA.
To whom did N. Biren Singh tender his resignation as Manipur Chief Minister on 9 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Governor Ajay Kumar Bhalla
He handed his resignation to Governor Ajay Kumar Bhalla at Raj Bhavan, Imphal.
After accepting N. Biren Singh's resignation on 9 February 2025, what did the Manipur Governor ask him to do?
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Correct answer: B — Continue in office until alternative arrangements are made
The Governor accepted the resignation and asked him to continue in office until alternative arrangements were made.
N. Biren Singh's resignation on 9 February 2025 came nearly two years after ethnic violence broke out in Manipur in:
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Correct answer: A — May 2023
Ethnic violence broke out in Manipur in May 2023, nearly two years before the resignation.
Consider the following statements about N. Biren Singh's resignation (February 2025): 1. He tendered it at Raj Bhavan in Imphal. 2. The Governor accepted the resignation of his council of ministers as well. 3. He resigned after losing a floor test in the Manipur Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
He resigned at Raj Bhavan, Imphal, and the Governor accepted the council of ministers' resignation too. There was no floor test; he quit a day before the Assembly was to meet, where the Congress had planned a no-confidence motion.
Under which provision did the Lt Governor dissolve the Seventh Legislative Assembly of Delhi with effect from 8 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Section 6(2)(b) of the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991
The Assembly Secretariat's notification cited the LG's power under Section 6(2)(b) of the GNCTD Act, 1991.
Which Assembly seat did outgoing Delhi Chief Minister Atishi retain in the February 2025 election?
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Correct answer: C — Kalkaji
Atishi retained her Kalkaji seat before resigning as Chief Minister on 9 February 2025.
Atishi, who resigned as Delhi Chief Minister on 9 February 2025, had become Chief Minister in which month after Arvind Kejriwal resigned?
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Correct answer: A — September 2024
Atishi had become Chief Minister of Delhi in September 2024 after Arvind Kejriwal resigned.
How many of the 70 Delhi Assembly seats did the BJP win in the results declared on 8 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 48
The BJP won 48 seats, the AAP 22 and the Congress none, as per the Election Commission's results.
Who defeated Arvind Kejriwal in the New Delhi Assembly constituency in the February 2025 election?
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Correct answer: B — Parvesh Sahib Singh
The BJP's Parvesh Sahib Singh won New Delhi by 4,089 votes over Arvind Kejriwal; the Congress's Sandeep Dikshit finished third.
With its win in February 2025, the BJP returned to power in Delhi for the first time since its earlier term in:
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Correct answer: A — 1993–1998
The BJP last ruled Delhi from 1993 to 1998, before the Congress and then the AAP governed the capital.
Consider the following statements about the Delhi Assembly election 2025: 1. The Aam Aadmi Party won 22 seats. 2. The Congress won one seat. 3. Polling was held in a single phase on 5 February 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
The AAP won 22 seats and polling took place on 5 February in one phase; the Congress did not win any seat.
By how many votes did the BJP's Parvesh Sahib Singh defeat Arvind Kejriwal in the New Delhi Assembly constituency in the results of 8 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 4,089
Parvesh Sahib Singh defeated former Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal in New Delhi by 4,089 votes.
Who won the Milkipur Assembly by-election in Uttar Pradesh, whose result was declared on 8 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Chandrabhanu Paswan (BJP)
The BJP's Chandrabhanu Paswan defeated the SP's Ajit Prasad by 61,710 votes.
In the Erode East by-election result declared on 8 February 2025, the DMK's V.C. Chandhirakumar defeated the candidate of which party?
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Correct answer: A — Naam Tamilar Katchi
He defeated M.K. Seethalakshmi of the Naam Tamilar Katchi by 91,558 votes; she forfeited her deposit.
The Samajwadi Party's Ajit Prasad, defeated in the Milkipur by-election result declared on 8 February 2025, is the son of which former MLA of the seat?
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Correct answer: B — Awadhesh Prasad
Ajit Prasad, who lost Milkipur to the BJP's Chandrabhanu Paswan by 61,710 votes, is the son of the former MLA Awadhesh Prasad.
What was the final polling-station voter turnout in the Delhi Assembly election held on 5 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 60.54%
Final polling-station data released by the Chief Electoral Officer, Delhi, put the turnout at 60.54%, with 94,51,997 people voting.
Which Assembly constituency recorded the highest turnout in the Delhi Assembly election of 5 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Mustafabad
Mustafabad recorded the highest turnout at 69.01%, ahead of Seelampur (68.71%) and Gokalpur (68.29%).
Consider the following statements about polling in the Delhi Assembly election on 5 February 2025: 1. The final turnout figure of 60.54% does not include postal ballots. 2. Mehrauli recorded the lowest turnout among the 70 constituencies. 3. More women than men cast their votes. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the polling-station data excludes postal and service votes, and Mehrauli was lowest at 53.02%. Statement 3 is wrong, as 50.42 lakh men and 44.08 lakh women voted.
Which Assembly constituency recorded the lowest turnout in the Delhi Assembly election of 5 February 2025, as per the CEO Delhi's final polling-station data?
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Correct answer: D — Mehrauli
As per the final polling-station data, Mehrauli recorded the lowest turnout (53.02%) and Mustafabad the highest (69.01%).
How many youths received government appointment letters from the Tripura government on 5 February 2025, at an event addressed by Amit Shah?
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Correct answer: A — 2,807
Amit Shah said Chief Minister Manik Saha's government had given government jobs to 2,807 youths with full transparency.
To how many years did the Assam Cabinet extend the licence renewal period of fair price shops on 5 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5 years
The Assam Public Distribution of Articles (Amendment) Order, 2025, extends the renewal period of fair price shop licences from 3 years to 5 years.
The Assam Cabinet approved a web portal in February 2025 to ensure what share of seats in unaided private schools for children from economically weaker sections under the RTE Act?
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Correct answer: D — 25%
The portal is meant to ensure 25% seat reservation for children from economically weaker sections in unaided private schools, as required by the RTE Act.
Which was the first language notified as a classical language by the Government of India, in 2004?
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Correct answer: D — Tamil
PIB (3 Feb 2025, Lok Sabha reply): the languages earlier notified as classical were Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Telugu (2008), Kannada (2008), Malayalam (2013) and Odia (2014).
Which of the following languages was NOT among the five notified as classical languages on 4 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Odia
PIB (3 Feb 2025): Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali were notified on 4 October 2024. Odia was notified earlier, in 2014.
Consider the following statements based on the Lok Sabha reply of 3 February 2025: 1. The Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Kannada is in Mysuru. 2. The Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Malayalam is in Thiruvananthapuram. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (3 Feb 2025): the Classical Kannada centre is located in Mysuru, Karnataka, so statement 1 is correct. The Classical Malayalam centre operates from Tirur, Malappuram, Kerala, not Thiruvananthapuram, so statement 2 is wrong. Answer: 1 only.
The National Metadata Structure (NMDS 2.0), shared with ministries for implementation, is associated with which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
PIB (3 Feb 2025): MoS (I/C) for the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation Rao Inderjit Singh said NMDS 2.0 has been shared with Ministries/Departments, and MoSPI interacts with their Statistical Advisors on it.
What fiscal deficit target for 2025-26 (as a share of GDP) was announced in the Union Budget presented on 1 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 4.4 per cent
Budget speech (para 113): the fiscal deficit for 2025-26 is estimated to be 4.4 per cent of GDP.
According to the Union Budget 2025-26, what is the Revised Estimate of the fiscal deficit for 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 4.8 per cent of GDP
Budget speech (para 111): the Revised Estimate of the fiscal deficit is 4.8 per cent of GDP.
What capital expenditure did the Union Budget 2025-26 provide for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹11.21 lakh crore
PIB Highlights (1 Feb 2025): capex is ₹11.21 lakh crore (3.1% of GDP). ₹10.18 lakh crore is the 2024-25 Revised Estimate and ₹14.82 lakh crore is gross market borrowings.
Which Budget document is mandated by Article 112 of the Constitution of India?
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Correct answer: A — Annual Financial Statement
Key to Budget Documents 2025-26: the Annual Financial Statement, Demands for Grants and Finance Bill are mandated by Articles 112, 113 and 110(a) respectively; Budget at a Glance is an explanatory document.
Consider the following statements about Union Budget documents: 1. Demands for Grants are mandated by Article 113 of the Constitution. 2. The Finance Bill is mandated by Article 110(a) of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Key to Budget Documents 2025-26: the AFS, Demands for Grants and Finance Bill are mandated by Articles 112, 113 and 110(a) respectively. Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
The ₹1 lakh crore Urban Challenge Fund announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 will finance up to what share of the cost of bankable projects?
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Correct answer: A — 25 per cent
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the fund will finance up to 25 per cent of the cost of bankable projects, with at least 50 per cent of the cost funded from bonds, bank loans and PPPs.
Until which year was the Jal Jeevan Mission extended in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 2028
PIB (1 Feb 2025): Jal Jeevan Mission extended until 2028, with the total budget outlay enhanced to ₹67,000 crore.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the President address both Houses assembled together on 31 January 2025, the first session of the year?
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Correct answer: D — Article 87(1)
PIB 2118954: this being the first session of the year, the President addressed both Houses assembled together in terms of Article 87(1) on 31 January 2025.
How many property cards had been issued under the SVAMITVA scheme, according to the President's address of 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 2.25 crore
PIB 2097836: under SVAMITVA, 2.25 crore property cards had been issued, about 70 lakh of them in the last six months.
Under the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025, which body grants final approval to an entity seeking to use Aadhaar authentication?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
PIB 2098223: applications are examined by UIDAI and MeitY issues the approval based on UIDAI's recommendation.
Consider the following statements about the Aadhaar authentication amendment rules notified on 31 January 2025: 1. They were notified under the Aadhaar Act, 2016. 2. They allow non-government entities to use Aadhaar authentication for public-interest services. 3. Entities apply directly to the Reserve Bank of India for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098223: the rules are under the Aadhaar Act, 2016 and open authentication to non-government entities; applications go to the concerned ministry or department, are examined by UIDAI and approved by MeitY, not the RBI.
'Mana Mitra', launched on 30 January 2025, is a WhatsApp-based governance initiative of which state?
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Correct answer: B — Andhra Pradesh
The Hindu and NDTV: the Andhra Pradesh government launched 'Mana Mitra' WhatsApp Governance, a first in the country.
How many civic services were made available in the first phase of Andhra Pradesh's 'Mana Mitra' WhatsApp Governance?
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Correct answer: B — 161
The Hindu and NDTV: 161 services are available in the first phase.
Which state became the first in independent India to bring a Uniform Civil Code into force, on 27 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Uttarakhand
The Hindu and The Tribune (27 January 2025): Uttarakhand became the first state after Independence to implement the UCC.
Which Article of the Constitution directs the State to endeavour to secure a uniform civil code for citizens?
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Correct answer: D — Article 44
PIB 2096679: the Vice-President cited Article 44 (Part IV, Directive Principles), which asks the State to endeavour to secure a uniform civil code.
Consider the following statements about the Uttarakhand Uniform Civil Code: 1. The date of commencement, 27 January 2025, was appointed by the Governor through a notification. 2. The Code and its rules do not apply to members of Scheduled Tribes. 3. Registration of live-in relationships is outside the scope of the UCC portal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
UCC notification and Rules (ucc.uk.gov.in): the Governor appointed 27 January 2025 and the rules exclude Scheduled Tribes. The Hindu: online registration of live-in relationships is mandatory, so statement 3 is wrong.
Who was the first person to register a marriage on the Uttarakhand UCC portal on 27 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami
The Tribune (PTI, 27 January 2025): the Chief Minister was the first to register his marriage on the UCC portal; Chief Secretary Radha Raturi handed him the certificate.
Who was the chief guest at India's 76th Republic Day celebrations on 26 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Prabowo Subianto
MEA and PIB 2096097: President of Indonesia Prabowo Subianto was the Chief Guest for India's 76th Republic Day.
What was the theme of the tableaux and celebrations at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas
PIB 2096097 and The Hindu: the theme was 'Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas'.
Consider the following statements about the Republic Day Parade 2025: 1. The celebrations had a special focus on 75 years of the enactment of the Constitution. 2. A marching contingent of the Indonesian National Armed Forces took part. 3. A total of 21 tableaux rolled down Kartavya Path. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096097: the focus was on 75 years of the Constitution's enactment and a 152-member Indonesian marching contingent took part; there were 31 tableaux, not 21.
How many members were in the Indonesian marching contingent at the Republic Day Parade 2025, according to the Defence Ministry curtain raiser?
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Correct answer: B — 152
PIB 2096097: the marching contingent had 152 members and the military band 190 members.
Which of the following gallantry award winners was listed as an Ashok Chakra awardee in the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Lt Col Jas Ram Singh
PIB 2096097: Param Vir Chakra winners Yogendra Singh Yadav and Sanjay Kumar and Ashok Chakra winner Lt Col Jas Ram Singh (all retired) featured in the parade.