Economy Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What name has the Labour Ministry given to the authorised facilitators who will guide EPFO members in accessing benefits?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — EPF Suvidha Providers
PIB 2208948: the Government will introduce EPF Suvidha Providers, authorised facilitators who guide members and act as a bridge between citizens and EPFO.
By when did the Labour Minister say India would bring 100 crore citizens under social security coverage?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — March 2026
PIB 2208948: 94 crore people are covered today and by March 2026 India will ensure coverage for 100 crore citizens.
Consider the following statements made at the EPFO event at Vatva on 26 December 2025: 1. EPFO holds a fund corpus of about ₹28 lakh crore. 2. As per the ILO, India's social security coverage rose from 19% before 2014 to 64%. 3. EPF claims of up to ₹1 lakh only are settled automatically. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208948: the corpus is ₹28 lakh crore and coverage rose from 19% to 64% as per the ILO. Settlements up to ₹5 lakh are now processed automatically, so statement 3 is wrong.
India will chair which international initiative against trade in 'conflict diamonds' from 1 January 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Kimberley Process
PIB 2208375: the Kimberley Process Plenary selected India to assume the chairpersonship of the Kimberley Process from 1 January 2026.
How many times will India have chaired the Kimberley Process when it takes over in 2026?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Third
PIB 2208375: this will be the third time India has been entrusted with the chair of the Kimberley Process.
Consider the following statements about the Kimberley Process: 1. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme came into effect on 1 January 2003. 2. It has 60 participants, with the European Union and its member states counted as one. 3. Its participants account for about three-fourths of global rough diamond trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208375: KPCS came into effect on 1 January 2003 and KP has 60 participants (EU counted as one). Participants account for over 99% of global rough diamond trade, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the railway fare rationalisation effective 26 December 2025, Second Class Ordinary fares do not increase for journeys up to:
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 215 km
PIB 2208532: in Second Class Ordinary there is no increase in fare for journeys up to 215 km.
By how much per kilometre were Mail/Express fares (AC and non-AC) revised from 26 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 2 paise
PIB 2208532: in Mail/Express trains the fare increase is 2 paise per km across non-AC and AC classes.
Consider the following statements about the railway fare rationalisation of December 2025: 1. There is no change in fares for suburban services and season tickets. 2. Reservation fees and superfast surcharges have also been raised. 3. Revised fares apply only to tickets booked on or after 26 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208532: suburban and season ticket fares are unchanged and the new fares apply only to tickets booked on or after 26 December 2025. Reservation fees and superfast surcharges are unchanged, so statement 2 is wrong.
Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust (RIIT), approved by SEBI as a public InvIT in December 2025, is sponsored by:
Show answer
Correct answer: B — National Highways Authority of India
PIB 2208143: NHAI-sponsored Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust has received SEBI approval as an InvIT.
Which investor group is the NHAI's public InvIT, RIIT, primarily meant to target?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Retail and domestic investors
PIB 2208143: the public InvIT creates a long-term investment instrument primarily targeting retail and domestic investors.
As announced by MoSPI in December 2025, what will be the base year of the new Consumer Price Index series?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 2024
PIB 2207861: the new series of CPI with base year 2024 is scheduled for release on 12 February 2026.
Consider the following statements about MoSPI's base revision plans announced in December 2025: 1. The new National Accounts (GDP) series will have 2022-23 as base year. 2. The new IIP series is scheduled for release before the new CPI series. 3. GST and PFMS data will be among the new data sources used. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2207861: GDP and IIP will have base 2022-23, and GST and PFMS are new data sources. The new CPI is due on 12 February 2026 while the new IIP is due on 28 May 2026, so statement 2 is wrong.
Where was MoSPI's first pre-release consultative workshop on the base revision of GDP, CPI and IIP held?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Mumbai
PIB 2207861: the first pre-release consultative workshop was held on 26 November 2025 at Mumbai; the second was on 23 December 2025 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Under the Colliery Control (Amendment) Rules, 2025, who now approves the opening of a coal mine or seam by a coal company?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Board of the concerned coal company
PIB 2208844: the authority to approve mine/seam opening has been vested with the board of the concerned coal company; prior CCO permission is dispensed with.
Consider the following statements about the Colliery Control (Amendment) Rules, 2025: 1. They amend Rule 9 of the Colliery Control Rules, 2004. 2. Entities other than companies no longer need any approval to open a mine. 3. The company must submit information about mine opening to the Coal Controller's Organisation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208844: Rule 9 of the 2004 Rules was amended and companies must inform the CCO. For entities other than companies, approval continues to be through the CCO, so statement 2 is wrong.
In the 14th round of commercial coal block auctions (bids opened on 23 December 2025), how many bids were received?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 49
PIB 2207831: 49 bids were received against 24 of the 41 coal blocks offered; 11 companies participated.
On which portal is the electronic auction of commercial coal blocks conducted?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — MSTC portal
PIB 2207831: technically qualified bidders will be shortlisted for the electronic auction to be conducted on the MSTC portal.
Under the India–New Zealand FTA concluded in December 2025, New Zealand will provide zero-duty access on what share of its tariff lines for Indian exports?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 100%
PIB 2207300: New Zealand will eliminate tariffs on 100% of its tariff lines, giving duty-free access to all Indian exports.
How much investment has New Zealand committed to facilitate into India under the FTA concluded in December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — USD 20 billion over 15 years
PIB 2207300: New Zealand has committed to facilitate investments of USD 20 billion into India over the next fifteen years.
Consider the following statements about the India–New Zealand FTA: 1. Negotiations were formally launched on 16 March 2025. 2. India has kept dairy products out of its market access offer. 3. The FTA provides a quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas for Indian professionals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207300: talks were launched on 16 March 2025, market access excludes dairy, and there is a quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas. All three are correct.
Which core industry recorded the highest growth in November 2025, as per the Index of Eight Core Industries?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Cement
PIB 2207434: cement production rose 14.5% in November 2025, the highest among the eight core industries.
The eight core industries together make up what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 40.27%
PIB 2207434: the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the IIP. (28.04% is refinery products' weight within the ICI; 19.85% is electricity's.)
Which of the eight core industries carries the largest weight in the Index of Eight Core Industries (base 2011-12)?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Petroleum Refinery Products
PIB 2207434: petroleum refinery products carry a weight of 28.04%, followed by electricity (19.85%), steel (17.92%) and coal (10.33%).
How many articles does the Financial Services Annex of the India–New Zealand FTA, concluded in December 2025, contain?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 18
PIB 2207641: the annex text evolved into 18 articles, a notable advancement over standard GATS commitments.
Consider the following statements about the Financial Services Annex of the India–New Zealand FTA: 1. Negotiations on the annex began in May 2025. 2. It provides for cooperation on cross-border payments through Fast Payment Systems. 3. It requires India to allow unrestricted transfer of all financial data abroad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207641: annex talks began in May 2025 and cover Fast Payment Systems cooperation. On financial information, each party keeps the right to maintain its own rules on transfer, processing and storage, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI), credited with preventing about ₹660 crore of cyber fraud losses, was developed by which body?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Department of Telecommunications
PIB 2207376: the FRI is a DoT tool available on its Digital Intelligence Platform, adopted with support from RBI and NPCI.
Which citizen platform of DoT allows users to report suspected fraud communications and lost or stolen mobile handsets?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Sanchar Saathi
PIB 2207376: citizens use the Sanchar Saathi platform to report suspected fraud communications, fraudulent connections and lost/stolen handsets.
As of 30 November 2025, what share of total order value on the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) was secured by Micro and Small Enterprises?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 44.8%
PIB 2207151: MSEs secured ₹7.44 lakh crore, 44.8% of total order value on GeM. 25% is the mandated annual procurement target.
The 'Womaniya' initiative on the Government e-Marketplace is aimed at which group?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Women entrepreneurs selling to the government
PIB 2207151: Womaniya focuses on onboarding, training and improving access to procurement opportunities for women entrepreneurs.
Consider the following statements about the Government e-Marketplace (GeM): 1. Its Forward Auction module is used to sell government assets such as scrap, e-waste and old vehicles to the highest bidder. 2. Between December 2021 and November 2025, Forward Auctions worth more than ₹2,200 crore were facilitated. 3. Women-owned MSEs on GeM have secured cumulative orders worth over ₹78,000 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207152 covers the Forward Auction module and the ₹2,200 crore figure; PIB 2207151 gives ₹78,066 crore for women-owned MSEs. All three are correct.
Under the PFRDA amendments notified on 19 December 2025, what is the maximum lump sum a non-government NPS subscriber can take at normal exit?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 80%
PIB 2206763: for the All Citizen Model and Corporate Sector, up to 80% lump sum with at least 20% annuity, up from 60%.
To what age have the maximum entry and exit ages under the NPS been raised by the PFRDA amendments of December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 85 years
PIB 2206763: entry and exit age increased to 85 years, from a maximum entry age of 70 and exit age of 75.
Consider the following statements about the NPS exit amendments notified by PFRDA on 19 December 2025: 1. Government sector subscribers can now take up to 80% as lump sum at normal exit. 2. The minimum lock-in period of five years for premature exit under the All Citizen Model has been removed. 3. A regulated lender may mark a lien of up to 25% of the subscriber's own contribution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 2 and 3 only
PIB 2206763: the five-year lock-in was removed for the All Citizen Model, and lenders may mark a lien up to 25% of the subscriber's own contribution. For the government sector, normal exit remains up to 60% lump sum, so statement 1 is wrong.
GI-tagged Indi Lime, which was exported to Oman for the first time on 19 December 2025, comes from which district of Karnataka?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Vijayapura
PIB 2206803: 3 MT of GI-tagged Indi Lime from Vijayapura district of Karnataka were exported to Oman.
Consider the following statements about GI-tagged Indi Lime exports: 1. Three metric tonnes were exported to Oman on 19 December 2025. 2. The maiden export of Indi Lime was to the United Kingdom. 3. APEDA has been supporting the promotion and export of the product. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2206803: 3 MT went to Oman on 19 December and APEDA supports promotion and export. The maiden export was 3 MT to Dubai on 24 August 2025; the UK shipment was 350 kg flagged off later, so statement 2 is wrong.
Who will co-chair the India–Netherlands Joint Trade and Investment Committee (JTIC) from the Indian side, as per the MoU announced on 19 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce
PIB 2206805: the JTIC will be co-chaired by the Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce and the Dutch Director General (Foreign Economic Relations).
Consider the following statements about the India–Netherlands JTIC announced in December 2025: 1. It will meet annually, alternately in India and the Netherlands. 2. The MoU was signed between India's Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the Dutch Ministry of Economic Affairs. 3. It was announced during the visit of Dutch Foreign Minister David van Weel. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2206805: the JTIC meets annually, alternately in each country, and was announced during David van Weel's visit. The Dutch signatory was the Ministry of Foreign Affairs, so statement 2 is wrong.
Under the India–Oman CEPA signed on 18 December 2025, Indian goods get zero-duty access on what share of Oman's tariff lines?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 98.08%
PIB 2205889: zero-duty access on 98.08% of Oman's tariff lines, covering 99.38% of India's exports by value.
Who signed the India–Oman CEPA on behalf of India on 18 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Piyush Goyal
PIB 2205889: Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal signed with Oman's Minister of Commerce, Industry and Investment Promotion Qais bin Mohammed Al Yousef.
The India–Oman CEPA is India's second Free Trade Agreement signed in six months. With which country was the earlier one signed?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — United Kingdom
PIB 2205889: the CEPA is the second FTA signed in the last six months after the United Kingdom.
Consider the following statements about the India–Oman CEPA: 1. Oman has offered 127 services sub-sectors. 2. It contains the first-ever commitment by any country on traditional medicine across all modes. 3. Oman has capped FDI by Indian companies in its services sectors at 49%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205889: Oman offered 127 sub-sectors and made the first-ever commitment by any country on traditional medicine across all modes. It committed to 100% FDI for Indian companies in major services sectors, so statement 3 is wrong.
On which principle were Regional Rural Banks consolidated with effect from 1 May 2025, before a common RRB logo was unveiled in December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — One State One RRB
PIB 2205824: on the principle of 'One State One RRB', 26 RRBs across 11 States/UTs were consolidated from 01.05.2025.
Consider the following statements about Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and their new common logo: 1. 26 RRBs across 11 States/UTs were consolidated with effect from 1 May 2025. 2. There are now 28 RRBs. 3. In the logo, the hands symbolise enlightenment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205824: 26 RRBs in 11 States/UTs were consolidated from 1 May 2025 and 28 RRBs now operate. In the logo the hands stand for nurturing and the flame for enlightenment, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under which law did the Competition Commission of India decide on 18 December 2025 to proceed in the IndiGo flight disruptions matter?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — Competition Act, 2002
PIB 2206091: the Commission decided to proceed further in accordance with the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002.
The Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament on 17 December 2025, allows FDI in insurance companies up to what limit?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 100%
PIB 2206011: a key feature of the Bill is to allow up to 100% Foreign Direct Investment in insurance companies.
Under the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha Bill, 2025, the Net Owned Fund requirement for foreign reinsurance branches has been reduced from ₹5,000 crore to:
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ₹1,000 crore
PIB 2206011: the Net Owned Fund requirement of foreign reinsurance branches has been reduced from ₹5,000 crore to ₹1,000 crore.
Which of the following Acts is NOT amended by the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972
PIB 2206011: the Bill amends three Acts: the Insurance Act, 1938, the LIC Act, 1956 and the IRDA Act, 1999. The General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act is not among them.
Consider the following statements about the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha Bill, 2025: 1. The limit for seeking prior regulatory approval for transfer of share capital has been raised from 1% to 5%. 2. A Policyholders' Education and Protection Fund will be set up. 3. IRDAI is given the power to disgorge wrongful gains from insurers and intermediaries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2206011: the share-transfer approval limit rises from 1% to 5%, a Policyholders' Education and Protection Fund will be set up, and IRDAI gets the power to disgorge wrongful gains. All three are correct.
As per the Ministry of Railways on 17 December 2025, about what share of Indian Railways' broad gauge network has been electrified?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 99.2%
PIB 2205232: about 99.2% of the broad gauge network has been electrified.
According to the UIC report of June 2025 cited by the Ministry of Railways, which of these countries has the highest share of railway electrification?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Switzerland
PIB 2205232: as per the UIC report of June 2025, Switzerland has 100% railway electrification, against China 82%, Spain 67% and Japan 64%.
Consider the following statements about railway electrification in India as per the Ministry of Railways (17 December 2025): 1. More route kilometres were electrified in 2014–25 than in about 60 years before 2014. 2. All 18 railway zones listed are 100% electrified. 3. Electrification achieved in 2024–25 was higher than in 2023–24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB 2205232: 46,900 route km were electrified in 2014–25 against 21,801 before 2014 (statement 1 correct). Only 14 zones are at 100%; North Western, Southern, Northeast Frontier and South Western are below (statement 2 wrong). Electrification was 7,188 RKM in 2023–24 and 2,701 RKM in 2024–25 (statement 3 wrong).
According to the Communications Minister's statement in the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2025, India's telecom exports in 2024–25 stood at:
Show answer
Correct answer: A — ₹18,406 crore
PIB 2205493: telecom exports rose from ₹10,000 crore in 2020–21 to ₹18,406 crore in 2024–25, a 72% rise; imports stayed at about ₹51,000 crore.
As per the Minister of Communications on 17 December 2025, how many of India's 778 districts are connected to the 5G network?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 767
PIB 2205493: out of 778 districts, 767 have been connected to the 5G network.
By what date must IRDAI-regulated entities adopt '1600' series numbers for service and transactional calls under TRAI's Direction of 16 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 15 February 2026
PIB 2205350: the last date for adoption of 1600-series numbers by IRDAI-regulated entities is 15 February 2026.
Before IRDAI, TRAI had issued similar Directions mandating 1600-series numbers for entities regulated by which regulators?
Show answer
Correct answer: A — RBI, SEBI and PFRDA
PIB 2205350: TRAI had earlier issued similar Directions for entities regulated by RBI, SEBI and PFRDA.
Which policy did Odisha Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi launch at the Odisha Pharma Summit on 16 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Odisha Pharmaceutical and Medical Devices Policy 2025
OrissaPOST, ET and The New Indian Express: the CM launched the Odisha Pharmaceutical and Medical Devices Policy 2025 at the summit.
Where is the medical devices manufacturing park unveiled at the Odisha Pharma Summit on 16 December 2025 located?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Khordha
ET and The New Indian Express: a pharmaceutical park at Khordha-Nayagarh and a medical devices manufacturing park at Khordha were unveiled.
On 15 December 2025, the Government of India and the Asian Development Bank signed how many loan agreements totalling over US$ 2.2 billion?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Five
PIB 2204373: the Government of India and ADB signed agreements for five loans totalling over $2.2 billion.
Which programme received the largest loan (US$ 846 million) among the India–ADB agreements of 15 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Upgraded Industrial Training Institutes skilling programme
PIB 2204373: the PM Skilling and Employability Transformation through Upgraded ITIs Programme got US$ 846 million, against US$ 650 million for rooftop solar, US$ 398.8 million for ASTHA and US$ 240 million for Chennai Metro.
ASTHA, one of the projects funded under the India–ADB loans signed on 15 December 2025, relates to tertiary healthcare in which State?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Assam
PIB 2204373: ASTHA is the Assam State Tertiary Health Care Augmentation Project (US$ 398.8 million).
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for November 2025, released on 15 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — (-) 0.32%
PIB 2203914: WPI inflation was (-) 0.32% (provisional) for November 2025; it was (-) 1.21% in October, and the month-on-month change was 0.71%.
Which major group has the highest weight in India's Wholesale Price Index (base year 2011–12)?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Manufactured Products
PIB 2203914: Manufactured Products carry 64.23% weight, against 22.62% for Primary Articles and 13.15% for Fuel & Power.
According to data released on 15 December 2025, India's merchandise exports in November 2025 were about:
Show answer
Correct answer: A — US$ 38.13 billion
PIB 2204071: merchandise exports were US$ 38.13 billion in November 2025, against US$ 31.94 billion in November 2024; total goods and services exports were US$ 73.99 billion.
Which of the following export categories recorded the highest year-on-year growth in November 2025 among those listed by the Commerce Ministry?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Electronic Goods
PIB 2204071: Electronic Goods rose 38.96%, Gems & Jewellery 27.80%, Engineering Goods 23.76% and Drugs & Pharmaceuticals 20.91%.
In the abbreviation LHB, used for modern Indian Railways passenger coaches, what does 'LHB' stand for?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Linke Hofmann Busch
PIB 2203714: LHB stands for Linke Hofmann Busch.
Which coach factory produced the most LHB coaches in 2025–26 up to November 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Integral Coach Factory, Chennai
PIB 2203714: ICF Chennai produced 1,659 LHB coaches, followed by RCF Kapurthala (1,331) and MCF Raebareli (1,234).
What concession in the BIS annual minimum marking fee is given to micro enterprises, as stated by the Government on 14 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 80%
PIB 2203666: concessions are 80% for micro, 50% for small and 20% for medium enterprises, with an extra 10% for North-East or women-led units.
Under the QCO relaxations for MSMEs described on 14 December 2025, how much additional time do micro enterprises get to comply?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 6 months
PIB 2203666: micro enterprises get a 6-month extension and small enterprises a 3-month extension.
What were SAIL's total sales in April–November 2025, as reported on 13 December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 12.7 million tonnes
PIB 2203613: SAIL sold 12.7 MT in April–November 2025, up 14% from 11.1 MT in the corresponding period last year.
By how much did SAIL's retail sales grow in November 2025 compared with November 2024?
Show answer
Correct answer: D — 69%
PIB 2203613: retail sales surged 69% to 0.14 MT in November 2025 from 0.084 MT; overall November sales grew 27%.
The first-ever fisheries Investors' Meet in Lakshadweep was held on 13 December 2025 at which island?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Bangaram
PIB 2203639: the Investors' Meet was held at Bangaram Island, UT of Lakshadweep.
Lakshadweep accounts for roughly what share of India's Exclusive Economic Zone, as highlighted at the fisheries investors' meet?
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 20%
PIB 2203682: Lakshadweep possesses nearly 20% of India's Exclusive Economic Zone.