Puducherry Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Where was the 31st meeting of the Southern Zonal Council held on 20 August 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Mahabalipuram
Union Home Minister Amit Shah chaired the 31st Southern Zonal Council meeting in Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu.
According to Amit Shah at the 31st Southern Zonal Council meeting, what is the record of zonal council meetings since 2014?
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Correct answer: D — 70 meetings; about 80% of 1,869 issues resolved
Shah said that in 70 meetings held since 2014, approximately 80% of 1,869 issues had been resolved.
Consider the following statements about the 31st Southern Zonal Council meeting: 1. Andhra Pradesh and Telangana agreed to resolve issues of division of assets and liabilities in consultation with the Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. Telangana was represented by its Deputy Chief Minister Bhatti Vikramarka Mallu. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The meeting was attended by four Chief Ministers, the Telangana Deputy Chief Minister and the heads of three Union Territories.
Which police force received the President's Colours from Union Home Minister Amit Shah on 9 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Puducherry Police
Amit Shah presented the President's Colours to Puducherry Police.
Who presented the President's Colours to Puducherry Police in August 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Amit Shah
Union Home Minister Amit Shah presented the President's Colours to Puducherry Police on 9 August 2026.
Across how many geographically separated regions does the Puducherry Police maintain law and order, as noted at the President's Colours ceremony in August 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Four
Amit Shah noted that the Puducherry Police maintain law and order across Puducherry's four geographically separated regions.
The historic Danish ship Oresund, the subject of an ASI–National Museum of Denmark MoU in June 2026, was wrecked near which place?
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Correct answer: D — Karaikal, Puducherry
The Oresund was wrecked off the coast near Karaikal, Puducherry, in 1619 CE.
Consider the following statements about the ASI–National Museum of Denmark MoU (June 2026): 1. The Oresund was the first Danish ship known to have reached India. 2. The project is the Underwater Archaeology Wing's first collaborative archaeological project with an international organisation. 3. The project will involve raising the entire wreck to the surface. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are in the Ministry of Culture release. Statement 3 is wrong: the project is a non-invasive survey to locate and document the remains.
Which Union Territory signed a reform-linked MoU under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Puducherry
The MoUs were signed with four States and one UT – Puducherry.
Which of the following States was NOT among those that signed reform-linked MoUs under JJM 2.0 on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
The four States were Arunachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Tamil Nadu and Nagaland; Kerala was not among them.
The reform-linked MoUs under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 signed in June 2026 mandate which model of rural water governance?
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Correct answer: B — Gram Panchayat-led, service-based and community-centred model
The MoUs mandate a Gram Panchayat-led, service-based and community-centred model of rural water governance.
Which body will develop India's first Special Economic Zone to be developed by an urban local body, notified in Puducherry in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Oulgaret Municipality
The IT/ITES SEZ at Thattanchavady will be developed by Oulgaret Municipality, the first SEZ in India by an urban local body; PIPDIC will develop the multi-sector SEZ.
Consider the following statements about the two SEZs notified in Puducherry (May 2026): 1. They were approved by the Board of Approval for SEZs at its 137th meeting. 2. Both are IT/ITES SEZs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Both were approved at the 137th BoA meeting; one is an IT/ITES SEZ and the other a multi-sector SEZ.
N. Rangasamy, sworn in as Chief Minister of Puducherry on 13 May 2026, began which term in the post?
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Correct answer: A — Fifth
Rangasamy was sworn in for a record fifth term as Puducherry Chief Minister.
Who administered the oath of office to N. Rangasamy as Chief Minister of Puducherry on 13 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Lieutenant Governor K. Kailashnathan
Lieutenant Governor K. Kailashnathan administered the oaths of office and secrecy at Lok Nivas, Puducherry.
Consider the following statements about Article 239A of the Constitution of India: 1. It enables Parliament, by law, to create a Legislature and/or a Council of Ministers for the Union Territory of Puducherry. 2. A law made under it is not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Article 239A, inserted by the Constitution (Fourteenth Amendment) Act, 1962, provides for both, and clause (2) says such a law is not an amendment for Article 368.
Which party emerged as the single largest party in the Puducherry Assembly election results of 4 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — All India N. R. Congress (AINRC)
The AINRC won 12 of 30 seats and led the NDA to 18 seats; the BJP won 4.
From which two constituencies did Chief Minister N. Rangasamy win in the 2026 Puducherry Assembly election?
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Correct answer: D — Thattanchavady and Mangalam
N. Rangasamy won both seats he contested, Thattanchavady and Mangalam.
Coast Guard District Headquarters No. 13, whose OTM Administrative Complex was inaugurated in April 2026, is responsible for:
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Correct answer: B — Puducherry and central Tamil Nadu
District HQ No. 13 at Puducherry is responsible for Puducherry and central Tamil Nadu, overseeing over 140 nautical miles.
Who inaugurated the Coast Guard OTM Administrative Complex at Puducherry on 25 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Director General, Indian Coast Guard
Director General Indian Coast Guard Paramesh Sivamani inaugurated the complex.
According to ECI's final statistical report, what was Puducherry's state polling percentage in the Assembly election held on 9 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 91.19%
ECI's Highlight report for Puducherry 2026 gives a state polling percentage of 91.19% (EVM + postal). 86.33% was Assam's figure, 79.53% Kerala's, and 86.19% Puducherry's earlier record (2011).
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Assembly elections held on 9 April: 1. Assam's final state polling percentage of 86.33% was higher than its previous highest of 84.67%, recorded in 2016. 2. In Kerala, the polling percentage of male electors was higher than that of female electors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: ECI's final report gives Assam 86.33%, and ECI had noted the previous high of 84.67% (2016). Statement 2 is wrong: in Kerala women polled 81.17% against 74.9% for men (excluding postal ballots).
How many Assembly constituencies in total went to the polls in Assam, Kerala and Puducherry on 9 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 296
ECI said 296 ACs in Assam (126), Kerala (140) and Puducherry (30) went to the polls on 9 April 2026.
Which of the following was ensured for the first time in the Assam, Kerala and Puducherry Assembly polls of 9 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Live webcasting from 100% of polling stations
ECI said live webcasting was ensured in 100% of polling stations for the first time in Assam, Kerala and Puducherry.
Under ECI's International Election Visitors' Programme (IEVP) 2026, how many delegates from how many countries observed the 9 April 2026 polls?
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Correct answer: B — 38 delegates from 22 countries
ECI said 38 delegates from 22 countries witnessed the poll proceedings in Assam, Kerala and Puducherry under IEVP 2026.
IEVP 2026 delegates saw a welcoming robot named 'Nila' at polling arrangements in which State/UT?
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Correct answer: D — Puducherry
ECI said delegates in Puducherry were impressed by vigilance measures and innovations such as the welcoming robot Nila.
Consider the following statements about IEVP 2026: 1. The delegates' two-day visit covered Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. 2. ECI describes the IEVP as its flagship initiative for engagement with Election Management Bodies and international organisations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the 8–9 April visit covered Assam, Kerala and Puducherry. Statement 2 is correct as per ECI's description of the programme.
What was the total value of seizures in the five poll-bound states and UT from 26 February to 5 April 2026, as reported by the ECI?
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Correct answer: D — ₹651.51 crore
The ECI table shows a total of ₹651.51 crore; ₹319 crore is West Bengal's share.
Within how much time are the ECI's flying squads expected to attend to complaints during the 2026 Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: B — 100 minutes
The ECI said over 5,173 flying squads were deployed to ensure complaints are attended to within 100 minutes.
Consider the following statements about election seizures reported by the ECI on 5 April 2026: 1. West Bengal accounted for the largest value of seizures among the five states and UT. 2. The Electronic Seizure Management System (ESMS) was activated on 26 February 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: West Bengal led with ₹319 crore, and the data runs from ESMS activation on 26 February 2026.
Under which provision is an employed elector entitled to a paid holiday on polling day?
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Correct answer: C — Section 135B of the RP Act, 1951
The ECI cited Section 135B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
As per the ECI schedule cited on 3 April 2026, on which date was the second phase of polling in West Bengal?
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Correct answer: A — 29 April 2026
The ECI listed West Bengal polling on 23 April (Phase I) and 29 April 2026 (Phase II).
Consider the following statements about the paid holiday on polling day, as clarified by the ECI: 1. Employers may deduct wages for the polling-day holiday if the worker is a casual or daily-wage worker. 2. Electors working outside their constituency but registered in a constituency going to polls are not entitled to the paid holiday. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct: the ECI said no wages may be deducted and casual and daily-wage workers are entitled, and electors working outside their constituency are also entitled.
The optional home voting facility for electors above 85 years and Persons with Disabilities is provided under which provision?
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Correct answer: A — Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
ECI provides the optional home voting facility under Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
As per ECI data of 30 March 2026, which state had the highest number of electors aged 85+ approved for home voting?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
Kerala had 1,45,521 electors aged 85+ approved for home voting (71.27%), compared with 19,774 in Assam and 2,066 in Puducherry.
In the 2026 Assembly elections, ECI flying squads are required to attend to complaints within:
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Correct answer: C — 100 minutes
Over 5,173 flying squads have been deployed to ensure complaints are attended to within 100 minutes.
The system used by the ECI to record seizures of illicit inducements in the 2026 elections is called:
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Correct answer: D — ESMS (Electronic Seizure Management System)
Seizures are tracked through the Electronic Seizure Management System (ESMS), activated on 26 February 2026.
Consider the following about seizures in the 2026 Assembly elections (as of 25 March 2026): 1. Total seizures crossed ₹400 crore. 2. Cash formed the largest part of the seizures. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Seizures totalled over ₹408.82 crore, but cash was only ₹17.44 crore – less than the ₹37.68 crore of liquor alone – so statement 2 is wrong.
Under which provision does the Election Commission allot free broadcast and telecast time on Doordarshan and AIR to recognised parties?
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Correct answer: B — Section 39A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
The ECI issued the directions under Section 39A of the RP Act, 1951, for the 2026 Assembly elections.
For the 2026 Assembly elections, what base broadcast time has the ECI allotted to each recognised party on both Doordarshan and All India Radio?
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Correct answer: C — 45 minutes
Each party gets a base time of 45 minutes on both Doordarshan and AIR, plus extra time based on its previous Assembly poll performance.
How many standardised Voter Facilitation Posters must be displayed at each polling station in the 2026 polls, as per the ECI's direction of 22 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Four
Four uniform Voter Facilitation Posters will show polling station details, list of candidates, do's and don'ts, approved ID documents and the voting process.
Consider the following about the ECI's directions of 22 March 2026 for polling stations: 1. Provision of Assured Minimum Facilities is advisory and left to the discretion of CEOs. 2. Voters can deposit their switched-off mobile phones with a volunteer outside the polling station entrance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The ECI said AMF provisioning is mandatory and will be monitored, so statement 1 is wrong; a mobile phone deposit facility will be provided outside the entrance.
In the first stage of EVM randomisation, EVMs are randomly allocated:
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Correct answer: C — From district warehouses to Assembly Constituencies
In the first stage EVMs move from district warehouses to ACs; in the second stage from AC level to polling stations.
Through which software system was the first randomisation of EVM-VVPATs carried out in March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — EVM Management System (EMS)
District Election Officers carried out the first randomisation through the EVM Management System (EMS).
Consider the following about the first randomisation of EVM-VVPATs in March 2026: 1. Only machines that passed First Level Checking were included. 2. It was carried out in the presence of representatives of recognised political parties. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: only FLC-passed EVM-VVPATs were randomised, in the presence of representatives of National and State recognised parties.
Electors above 85 and flagged PwDs who want to vote by postal ballot in the 2026 Assembly elections must apply using:
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Correct answer: A — Form 12D
Such electors can avail the facility using Form 12D, submitted to the Returning Officer through their BLO within 5 days of notification.
Consider the following about the postal ballot facility for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Form 12D can be submitted up to 15 days after the notification of election. 2. The facility for electors above 85 and PwDs flows from Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Form 12D must be submitted within 5 days of notification. Statement 2 is correct.
For the 2026 Assembly elections in five States/UTs, the ECI deployed roughly one election official for every how many electors?
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Correct answer: C — 70
Over 25 lakh officials for over 17.4 crore electors amounts to nearly one official for every 70 electors.
Consider the following about the ECI's deployment for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Expenditure Observers outnumber General Observers among the Central Observers. 2. Deployed personnel are deemed to be on deputation to the ECI under Section 28A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: there are 557 General Observers and 366 Expenditure Observers. Statement 2 is correct.
How many Central Observers did the Election Commission deploy for the 2026 Assembly elections in five States/UTs and the bye-elections?
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Correct answer: C — 1,111
The ECI deployed 1,111 observers: 557 general, 188 police and 366 expenditure observers.
The Election Commission appoints Central Observers under Article 324 of the Constitution read with which provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1951?
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Correct answer: D — Section 20B
Central Observers are appointed under Article 324 and Section 20B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
In how many phases will the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election be held, as announced by the ECI on 15 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Two
West Bengal votes in two phases, on 23 April and 29 April 2026; Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry vote in a single phase.
On which date will votes be counted for the 2026 Assembly elections in Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Puducherry?
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Correct answer: D — 4 May 2026
Counting for all five Assemblies is scheduled for 4 May 2026.
Which of the following Assemblies going to polls in 2026 has the largest number of seats?
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Correct answer: D — West Bengal
West Bengal has 294 seats, against 234 in Tamil Nadu, 140 in Kerala, 126 in Assam and 30 in Puducherry.
For the 2026 Assembly elections, the Election Commission fixed the maximum number of electors per polling station at:
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Correct answer: B — 1,200
The ECI press note of 15 March 2026 says there shall be a maximum of 1,200 electors in a polling station.
Consider the following about the 2026 Assembly elections announced on 15 March 2026: 1. The ECI conducts them in exercise of powers under Article 324 read with Article 172(1) of the Constitution and Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into force only after the formal notification of each phase. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct as per the ECI press note. Statement 2 is wrong: the Model Code of Conduct came into effect immediately from the announcement of the schedule.
Along with the 2026 Assembly elections, the ECI announced bye-elections to how many Assembly constituencies in Goa, Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Nagaland and Tripura?
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Correct answer: B — Eight
Bye-elections were announced for 8 Assembly constituencies spread across these six States.
What is the total value of the development projects PM Modi launched in Puducherry on 1 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Over ₹2,700 crore
The projects in Puducherry were worth over ₹2,700 crore.
In PM Modi's 'BEST Puducherry' mantra, what does the letter 'S' stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Spirituality
BEST stands for Business, Education, Spirituality and Tourism.
At which institution was the new Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Engineering Block inaugurated on 1 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — NIT Karaikal
The Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Engineering Block and hostel facilities were inaugurated at NIT Karaikal.
Three Critical Care Blocks in Puducherry and Karaikal are being built under PM-ABHIM. Consider the following statements about PM-ABHIM: 1. It was launched by the Prime Minister in Varanasi on 25 October 2021. 2. It has an outlay of ₹64,180 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PM-ABHIM was launched in Varanasi on 25 October 2021, with an outlay of ₹64,180 crore for 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Where was the CBDC-based Digital Food Currency pilot under PMGKAY launched on 26 February 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Puducherry
The pilot was launched in Puducherry, which already implements PDS through the DBT model.
Under the Digital Food Currency pilot launched in February 2026, where is the PMGKAY food subsidy credited?
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Correct answer: D — Beneficiaries' CBDC (e₹) wallets
The food subsidy is transferred directly into beneficiaries' CBDC wallets as programmable e₹, in place of conventional bank accounts.
Who generates the digital coupons credited to beneficiaries under the CBDC-based Digital Food Currency pilot?
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Correct answer: A — Reserve Bank of India
Digital coupons generated through the Reserve Bank of India are credited to beneficiaries as programmable digital currency (e₹).
With which Union Territory did the Ministry of Earth Sciences sign an MoU on blue economy and coastal resilience on 12 February 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Puducherry
The MoU was signed with the Government of Puducherry's Department of Science, Technology and Environment.
How many Central Observers did the ECI brief on 5–6 February 2026 for the forthcoming Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: C — 1,444
1,444 officers attended: 714 General, 233 Police and 497 Expenditure Observers.
Consider the following: 1. Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission. 2. The Central Observers briefed in February 2026 were for Assembly elections in Assam, Kerala, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The fifth state was West Bengal, not Karnataka.
The 216 tenements handed over by the Vice-President in Puducherry on 29 December 2025 were built under which mission?
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Correct answer: C — Smart Cities Mission
PIB (Vice President's Secretariat): the Vice-President inaugurated a housing project under the Smart Cities Mission and handed over keys of 216 tenements.
During his Puducherry visit on 29 December 2025, the Vice-President unveiled the statue of which poet?
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Correct answer: C — Subramania Bharathiyar
PIB (Vice President's Secretariat): the Vice-President unveiled the statue of Mahakavi Subramania Bharathiyar and paid tribute to the poet.
Where was the first anniversary of Fit India Sundays on Cycle celebrated on 21 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rock Beach, Puducherry
PIB 2207165: over 1,500 cyclists took part in the first anniversary edition at Rock Beach, Puducherry.
What did Union Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya launch at the first anniversary of Fit India Sundays on Cycle in December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Carbon credit incentivisation on the Fit India Mobile App
PIB 2207165: the minister launched Fit India Mobile App carbon credit incentivisation for cycling enthusiasts.
What is the enumeration phase of Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?
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Correct answer: B — 4 November – 4 December 2025
The enumeration phase runs from 4 November to 4 December 2025.
How many States and Union Territories are covered under Phase II of the SIR of electoral rolls?
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Correct answer: C — 12
Phase II covers 12 States/UTs, from Andaman & Nicobar to West Bengal.
Approximately how many electors (as on 27 October 2025) are covered under Phase II of the SIR?
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Correct answer: D — 50.99 crore
The ECI bulletin lists 50,99,72,687 electors across the 12 States/UTs.
Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, which began on 4 November 2025, covers how many States and Union Territories?
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Correct answer: B — 9 States and 3 UTs
SIR Phase II covers 9 States and 3 UTs (Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry).
Consider the following statements about SIR Phase II (November 2025): 1. The Election Commission ordered it under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 2. Its enumeration period runs until 4 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ECI ordered the SIR under Article 324 and Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950, and the enumeration period runs from 4 November to 4 December 2025.
Approximately how many electors are covered by Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision that began in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 51 crore
Phase II covers nearly 51 crore electors across 321 districts and 1,843 Assembly constituencies.
Which of the following is NOT among the States/UTs covered by SIR Phase II, which began on 4 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Assam
Phase II covers Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry; Assam is not in the list.
Near which place did Severe Cyclonic Storm Montha cross the Andhra Pradesh-Yanam coast around midnight of 28-29 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Narsapur
IMD: Montha crossed the coast between Machilipatnam and Kalingapatnam, to the south of Kakinada, close to Narsapur.
Consider the following statements about Cyclone Montha: 1. It crossed the Andhra Pradesh and Yanam coasts as a Severe Cyclonic Storm. 2. By 8:30 am on 29 October 2025 it had weakened into a Deep Depression over coastal Andhra Pradesh and adjoining Telangana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per IMD's 29 October 2025 press release.
Where did the Department of Telecommunications set up a 24x7 control room ahead of Cyclone Montha?
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Correct answer: D — Vijayawada
DoT established a 24x7 control room at its Andhra Pradesh LSA office in Vijayawada.