UPTET / Super TET Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The first paper in NITI Aayog's Tax Policy Working Paper Series–I (October 2025) deals with which issue?
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Correct answer: C — Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors
PIB (NITI Aayog): the first working paper is titled 'Enhancing Tax Certainty in Permanent Establishment and Profit Attribution for Foreign Investors in India'.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 working paper on Permanent Establishment recommends introducing which of the following for foreign companies?
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Correct answer: D — An optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme
PIB (NITI Aayog): the paper recommends an optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme for foreign companies, with legislative clarity, administrative efficiency and robust dispute resolution; it was prepared under NITI's Consultative Group on Tax Policy.
The Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan, under which Tribal Village Vision 2030 declarations were passed, was formally inaugurated by the PM on 17 September 2025 at which place?
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Correct answer: B — Dhar
PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs): the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was formally inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 17 September 2025 at Dhar, Madhya Pradesh.
The Government has declared which period as 'Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh'?
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Correct answer: D — 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025
PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs): the Government of India has declared 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025 as Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh; the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was launched as part of it.
Consider the following statements about the Tribal Village Vision 2030 initiative: 1. The declarations were passed by tribal villages and tolas in Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2025. 2. Under 'Adi Sewa Samay', villagers contribute one hour per week of voluntary service at Adi Sewa Kendras. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: tribal villages and tolas passed the Tribal Village Vision 2030 Declaration in Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2025; Adi Sewa Kendras serve as single-window centres, with villagers contributing 1 hour per week of voluntary service (Adi Sewa Samay).
The Swasth Nari Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan (17 September–2 October 2025) was jointly led by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and which other ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Women and Child Development
PIB (MoHFW): the Abhiyaan was jointly led by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
Consider the following statements about the Swasth Nari Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan: 1. Over 18 lakh health camps were held under it. 2. It registered a footfall of nearly 10 crore citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (MoHFW): by 2 October 2025, over 18 lakh (18,08,071) health camps were held, registering a footfall of nearly 10 crore (9,85,63,619) citizens and benefiting more than 6.5 crore women.
How many applications did the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) receive by the close of its window in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 249
ECMS received 249 applications with proposed investment of ₹1,15,351 crore.
What is the financial outlay of the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹22,919 crore
The Union Cabinet approved ECMS on 28 March 2025 with an outlay of ₹22,919 crore; ₹59,350 crore was the investment target.
By what multiple did projected production under ECMS exceed its target, as announced in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2.2 times
Projected production of about ₹10,34,700 crore is 2.2 times the ₹4,56,000 crore target.
Consider the following statements about the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS): 1. The scheme is projected to create about 1,42,000 direct jobs, above its target of 91,600. 2. The application window opened on 1 May 2025 and was extended till 30 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the MeitY release of 2 October 2025.
Which Union Minister launched the NIELIT Digital University platform on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Ashwini Vaishnaw
Ashwini Vaishnaw, Minister of Electronics and IT, launched the NIELIT Digital University platform in New Delhi.
Which of the following was NOT among the five new NIELIT centres inaugurated on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Shillong
The five new centres are at Muzaffarpur, Balasore, Tirupati, Lunglei and Daman; Shillong was not among them.
Consider the following statements about the NIELIT Digital University launched in October 2025: 1. It will offer industry-focused programmes in fields such as AI, cybersecurity, data science and semiconductors. 2. At the launch, NIELIT exchanged MoUs with Microsoft and Zscaler, among others. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the MeitY release.
Pandit Chhannulal Mishra, who died in October 2025, was an exponent of which gharana of Hindustani classical music?
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Correct answer: D — Banaras gharana
Pandit Chhannulal Mishra was one of the foremost exponents of the Banaras gharana.
In which year was Pandit Chhannulal Mishra conferred the Padma Vibhushan?
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Correct answer: B — 2020
He received the Padma Bhushan in 2010 and the Padma Vibhushan in 2020.
Consider the following statements about Pandit Chhannulal Mishra: 1. He was born in Azamgarh, Uttar Pradesh, in 1936. 2. He was Narendra Modi's proposer from the Varanasi constituency in the 2014 Lok Sabha election. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the PIB condolence release and PTI reports.
Which birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi was observed on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 156th
The Vice-President paid tribute to Mahatma Gandhi at Raj Ghat on his 156th birth anniversary on 2 October 2025.
According to Union Home Minister Amit Shah on Gandhi Jayanti 2025, sales of Khadi and village industry products have risen to over how much in 11 years?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1.7 lakh crore
Amit Shah said sales rose about fivefold, from ₹33,000 crore to over ₹1.7 lakh crore.
Consider the following statements about Gandhi Jayanti observances on 2 October 2025: 1. The Vice-President attended a Sarva Dharma Prarthana at Raj Ghat. 2. While paying tribute, the Vice-President recalled Gandhiji's idea of Antyodaya. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: C. P. Radhakrishnan attended the Sarva Dharma Prarthana at Raj Ghat and recalled Gandhiji's emphasis on Antyodaya.
Who founded the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), which completed 100 years in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Keshav Baliram Hedgewar
The RSS was founded by Dr Keshav Baliram Hedgewar in 1925.
Which motto did the Vice-President cite while greeting the RSS on its centenary in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Seva Parmo Dharmah
C. P. Radhakrishnan said RSS volunteers are guided by the motto 'Seva Parmo Dharmah'.
The Swachhata Hi Seva 2025 campaign culminated on which day?
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Correct answer: C — Swachh Bharat Diwas (2 October)
SHS 2025 ran from 17 September to 2 October 2025 and culminated on Swachh Bharat Diwas.
Consider the following statements about the Swachhata Hi Seva 2025 campaign: 1. It was organised jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation. 2. By 1 October 2025, over 16 crore citizens had participated in it. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the Jal Shakti Ministry release.
On 2 October 2025, the Vice-President paid tribute to Lal Bahadur Shastri at which memorial in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: C — Vijay Ghat
Vijay Ghat is Lal Bahadur Shastri's memorial; the Vice-President paid tribute there on his birth anniversary.
What is the financial outlay of the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses approved in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹11,440 crore
The six-year Mission has an outlay of ₹11,440 crore.
What pulses production target does the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses set for 2030-31?
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Correct answer: D — 350 lakh tonnes
The Mission aims to raise pulses production to 350 lakh tonnes by 2030-31.
Consider the following statements about the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses: 1. It provides for 100% procurement of tur, urad and masoor from farmers at MSP during the next four years. 2. The Mission runs from 2024-25 to 2028-29. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Mission runs for six years, from 2025-26 to 2030-31.
What is the MSP of wheat for Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27, approved in October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2,585 per quintal
Wheat MSP was raised by ₹160 to ₹2,585 per quintal.
Which Rabi crop received the highest absolute increase in MSP for marketing season 2026-27?
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Correct answer: A — Safflower
Safflower got the highest increase of ₹600 per quintal, followed by lentil at ₹300.
For Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27, which crop has the highest margin of MSP over its cost of production?
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Correct answer: B — Wheat
Wheat has the highest margin at 109%, followed by rapeseed and mustard (93%) and lentil (89%).
Consider the following statements about Rabi MSPs for marketing season 2026-27: 1. The MSP of lentil (masur) has been fixed at ₹7,000 per quintal. 2. The MSP of barley has been raised by ₹170 per quintal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: lentil MSP is ₹7,000 and barley MSP rose by ₹170 to ₹2,150.
After the hike approved on 1 October 2025, what is the Dearness Allowance rate for Central Government employees?
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Correct answer: C — 58%
The 3% increase takes DA from 55% to 58% of basic pay.
From which date is the DA/DR increase approved by the Cabinet on 1 October 2025 effective?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2025
The additional instalment of DA and DR is effective from 1 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the DA hike approved in October 2025: 1. It will benefit about 68.72 lakh Central Government employees. 2. The increase follows a formula based on the recommendations of the 8th Central Pay Commission. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: 68.72 lakh is the number of pensioners (employees are 49.19 lakh), and the formula is based on the 7th Central Pay Commission.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 5.50%
The MPC unanimously kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.
In its October 2025 policy, what real GDP growth did the RBI project for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 6.8%
The RBI raised its 2025-26 real GDP growth projection to 6.8% from 6.5%.
After the RBI's October 2025 policy, what is the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate?
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Correct answer: D — 5.25%
With the repo rate at 5.50%, the SDF rate remains at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy of 1 October 2025: 1. The MPC cut the repo rate by 25 basis points. 2. The CPI inflation projection for 2025-26 was lowered to 2.6%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.50%. Statement 2 is correct: the inflation projection was cut to 2.6% from 3.1%.
What investment objective is included in the India–EFTA TEPA, which came into force on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — USD 100 billion over 15 years
TEPA includes an investment objective of USD 100 billion over 15 years and one million direct jobs in India.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?
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Correct answer: C — Denmark
EFTA comprises Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein; Denmark is an EU member.
Consider the following statements about the India–EFTA TEPA: 1. Austria is one of the four EFTA countries party to the agreement. 2. The agreement entered into force on 1 January 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the four EFTA countries are Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein, and TEPA entered into force on 1 October 2025.
What did Prime Minister Narendra Modi release at the RSS centenary celebrations on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — A commemorative postage stamp and coin
The PM released a specially designed commemorative postage stamp and coin.
The commemorative stamp released at the RSS centenary in October 2025 recalls RSS volunteers marching in the Republic Day parade of which year?
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Correct answer: D — 1963
The PM said the stamp recalls RSS volunteers proudly marching in the 1963 Republic Day parade.
How much additional tax devolution did the Union Government release to States on 1 October 2025 as an advance instalment?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,01,603 crore
The Centre released ₹1,01,603 crore on 1 October 2025, in addition to the regular instalment due on 10 October.
Which State received the largest share of the advance tax devolution released on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received the largest share at ₹18,227 crore.
Under which legal provision did FIU-IND issue notices to offshore Virtual Digital Asset service providers in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Section 13 of the PMLA, 2002
The notices were issued under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
How many offshore Virtual Digital Asset service providers received non-compliance notices from FIU-IND, as announced on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 25
FIU-IND issued notices to 25 offshore VDA service providers.
How many new Kendriya Vidyalayas did the Cabinet approve on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 57
The CCEA approved 57 new KVs in the civil sector.
Kendriya Vidyalayas function abroad in three cities. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: C — Dubai
The three KVs abroad are in Moscow, Kathmandu and Tehran.
Consider the following statements about Kendriya Vidyalayas: 1. The Government approved the scheme of Kendriya Vidyalayas in 1972. 2. The 57 KVs approved in October 2025 are the first to be sanctioned with Balvatikas. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the KV scheme was approved in November 1962. Statement 2 is correct.
The Biomedical Research Career Programme (BRCP), whose Phase III was approved in October 2025, is run by the Department of Biotechnology in partnership with which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — Wellcome Trust, UK
BRCP is a DBT–Wellcome Trust (UK) partnership implemented through the India Alliance SPV.
Consider the following statements about Phase III of the Biomedical Research Career Programme: 1. Its total cost is ₹1,500 crore, of which the Department of Biotechnology contributes ₹1,000 crore. 2. The programme was first launched in 2018-19. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: BRCP was launched in 2008-09; Phase II began in 2018-19.
On which date is NPS Diwas observed every year?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October
NPS Diwas is observed annually on 1 October.
At NPS Diwas 2025, PFRDA exchanged an MoU with which institution to reach farmers through Farmer Producer Organisations?
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Correct answer: B — NABARD
PFRDA exchanged an MoU with NABARD to strengthen outreach to the agriculture and rural sectors through FPOs.
On 30 September 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi welcomed whose comprehensive plan to end the Gaza conflict?
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Correct answer: B — US President Donald Trump
Modi welcomed US President Donald Trump's announcement of a comprehensive plan to end the Gaza conflict.
Consider the following statements about India's response to the US plan on Gaza (September 2025): 1. PM Modi said the plan provides a viable pathway to long-term peace for the Palestinian and Israeli people. 2. PM Modi said the plan could also bring peace, security and development to the larger West Asian region. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PMO statement of 30 September 2025.
Which company's acquisition of Jaiprakash Associates Limited was approved by the CCI on 30 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Jindal Power Limited
The CCI approved the acquisition of JAL by Jindal Power Limited.
Consider the following statements about the Jindal Power–Jaiprakash Associates combination approved in September 2025: 1. The acquisition is pursuant to a corporate insolvency resolution process under the IBC, 2016. 2. Jaiprakash Associates is primarily engaged in the power sector. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: it is the acquirer, Jindal Power, that is primarily in the power sector; JAL is in real estate, cement, hospitality and EPC.
By how much did India's Index of Industrial Production (IIP) grow year-on-year in August 2025 as per the Quick Estimate?
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Correct answer: A — 4.0%
IIP grew 4.0% in August 2025; the July 2025 Quick Estimate was 3.5% and mining grew 6.0%.
Which manufacturing industry group grew the fastest among the top three contributors to IIP growth in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Basic metals
Basic metals grew 12.2%, motor vehicles 9.8% and coke and refined petroleum products 5.4%.
Under the revised calendar announced with the August 2025 data, on which day of every month is the Quick Estimate of IIP released?
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Correct answer: B — 28th
The Quick Estimate of IIP is now released on the 28th of every month, or the next working day if the 28th is a holiday.
Consider the following statements about India's IIP for August 2025: 1. Consumer non-durables recorded positive growth under the use-based classification. 2. The index is compiled on the base year 2011-12. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: consumer non-durables fell 6.3%. Statement 2 is correct: the base is 2011-12=100.
Under the use-based classification, which category recorded the highest year-on-year growth in India's IIP for August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Infrastructure/construction goods
Infrastructure/construction goods grew 10.6%, against 5.2% for primary goods, 4.4% for capital goods and 3.5% for consumer durables.
Who was named Player of the Match in the Men's T20 Asia Cup 2025 final between India and Pakistan on 28 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Tilak Varma
Tilak Varma scored 69 not out off 53 balls and was Player of the Match; Kuldeep Yadav took 4 for 30.
By what margin did India beat Pakistan in the Asia Cup 2025 final in Dubai?
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Correct answer: C — 5 wickets
India chased 147 and reached 150 for 5 in 19.4 overs, winning by five wickets with two balls to spare.
How many Asia Cup titles had India won after winning the 2025 edition?
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Correct answer: D — Nine
The 2025 win was India's ninth Asia Cup title.
Consider the following statements about the Men's T20 Asia Cup 2025 final: 1. Pakistan batted first and were bowled out for 146. 2. Kuldeep Yadav took four wickets in the match. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Pakistan, put in to bat, were all out for 146 in 19.1 overs, and Kuldeep Yadav took 4 for 30.
In the Asia Cup 2025 final, which Indian bowler dismissed both of Pakistan's top scorers, Sahibzada Farhan (57) and Fakhar Zaman (46)?
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Correct answer: C — Varun Chakravarthy
Varun Chakravarthy took the wickets of Farhan and Fakhar; Kuldeep Yadav took 4 for 30 later in the innings.
Which ministry organised World Food India 2025, which concluded on 28 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Food Processing Industries
World Food India 2025 was organised by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI).
What was the total value of MoUs signed at World Food India 2025?
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Correct answer: B — About ₹1.02 lakh crore
26 companies signed MoUs worth ₹1,02,046.89 crore, expected to create 64,000+ direct jobs.
Consider the following statements about the MoUs signed at World Food India 2025: 1. Twenty-six domestic and global companies signed the MoUs. 2. The MoUs are expected to generate direct employment for over 10 lakh people. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the MoUs are expected to create over 64,000 direct jobs; 10 lakh+ is the indirect figure.
The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports organised the first global Viksit Bharat Run on 28 September 2025 in collaboration with which ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of External Affairs
MYAS organised the Viksit Bharat Run 2025 across over 100 countries with the Ministry of External Affairs.
What was the tagline of the Viksit Bharat Run 2025 held across over 100 countries?
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Correct answer: C — Run to Serve the Nation
The run was held under the tagline 'Run to Serve the Nation' as part of the Seva Pakhwada.
Which festival did PM Modi say in the 126th Mann Ki Baat (28 September 2025) the government is trying to get included in UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list?
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Correct answer: B — Chhath Mahaparva
The PM said the government is striving to include Chhath Mahaparva in UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list.
How many days did Lieutenant Commanders Dilna and Roopa take to complete the Navika Sagar Parikrama, as discussed in Mann Ki Baat on 28 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 238
They sailed about 47,500 km in 238 days, from Goa on 2 October 2024 to 29 May 2025.
The 126th Mann Ki Baat on 28 September 2025 coincided with the birth anniversary of which two personalities?
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Correct answer: A — Bhagat Singh and Lata Mangeshkar
PM Modi noted that 28 September is the birth anniversary of Shaheed Bhagat Singh and Lata Mangeshkar.
Who represented India at the General Debate of the 80th session of the UN General Assembly on 27 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — S. Jaishankar
External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar delivered India's statement at the General Debate on 27 September 2025.
At UNGA 80, EAM Jaishankar said India has undertaken more than 600 development projects in how many countries?
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Correct answer: C — 78
The minister cited more than 600 development projects in 78 countries as part of India's contribution to the Global South.
Which line did EAM Jaishankar use to conclude his call for international cooperation at UNGA 80?
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Correct answer: B — "Islands of prosperity cannot flourish in an ocean of turbulence"
The minister said "International cooperation must prevail because islands of prosperity cannot flourish in an ocean of turbulence".
Consider the following statements about EAM Jaishankar's address at UNGA 80: 1. The minister called for expanding only the non-permanent membership of the Security Council. 2. The minister said the UN had overcome gridlock through recent reforms. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: he called for expanding both permanent and non-permanent membership, and said the UN "remains gridlocked" and is in a state of crisis owing to resistance to reform.
What was the theme of World Tourism Day 2025, observed on 27 September?
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Correct answer: D — Tourism and Sustainable Transformation
The 2025 theme was 'Tourism and Sustainable Transformation'.
Who was the chief guest at the Ministry of Tourism's World Tourism Day event on 27 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Suman Bery
NITI Aayog Vice Chairperson Suman Bery was chief guest; MoS Suresh Gopi presided.