UPSSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
With effect from which date did the Department of Posts temporarily suspend booking of most postal articles to the USA, as announced on 23 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 25 August 2025
The Department of Posts decided to temporarily suspend booking of all types of postal articles destined for the USA with effect from 25 August 2025, except letters/documents and gifts up to USD 100.
Under US Executive Order No. 14324, the duty-free de minimis exemption was to be withdrawn from 29 August 2025 for goods valued up to:
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Correct answer: D — USD 800
Under Executive Order No. 14324 of 30 July 2025, the duty-free de minimis exemption for goods valued up to USD 800 was to be withdrawn with effect from 29 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about India Post's suspension of postal bookings to the USA (August 2025): 1. Letters/documents and gift items up to USD 100 in value were exempted from the suspension. 2. The suspension followed US-bound air carriers expressing inability to accept postal consignments after 25 August 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Letters/documents and gifts up to USD 100 continued to be accepted, and US-bound air carriers had expressed inability to accept postal consignments after 25 August, citing lack of operational and technical readiness.
The US Executive Order of 30 July 2025 cited by India's Department of Posts for withdrawing the de minimis exemption is numbered:
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Correct answer: B — 14324
The Department of Posts took note of Executive Order No. 14324 issued by the US Administration on 30 July 2025, which withdraws the de minimis exemption from 29 August 2025.
What was the theme of National Space Day 2025, as stated by PM Narendra Modi?
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Correct answer: C — From Aryabhata to Gaganyaan
PM Modi said this year's theme, 'From Aryabhata to Gaganyaan', reflects both the confidence of India's past and the resolve for its future.
Where was the main National Space Day 2025 programme, addressed by Dr Jitendra Singh, held?
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Correct answer: B — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Dr Jitendra Singh addressed the National Space Day programme at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
On National Space Day 2025, Dr Jitendra Singh said an Indian will announce 'Viksit Bharat 2047' from the surface of the Moon in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2040
Dr Jitendra Singh said an Indian will announce 'Viksit Bharat 2047' from the surface of the Moon in 2040.
With reference to National Space Day 2025, consider the following statements: 1. India was hosting the International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics, with nearly 300 participants from over 60 countries. 2. The second edition of the Bharatiya Antariksh Hackathon drew participation from over 61,000 students. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PM Modi noted that India was hosting the IOAA with nearly 300 young participants from over sixty countries, and the second edition of the Bharatiya Antariksh Hackathon drew over 61,000 students in 8,744 teams.
As per the timeline outlined by Dr Jitendra Singh on National Space Day 2025, consider the following statements: 1. India will attempt its first human spaceflight under the Gaganyaan mission in 2027. 2. The proposed Bharat Antariksh Station is to be established by 2040. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India will attempt its first human spaceflight under Gaganyaan in 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: the proposed Bharat Antariksh Station is to be established by 2035; 2040 is the year mentioned for an Indian on the Moon.
The 11th round of India–Australia CECA negotiations, which concluded on 23 August 2025, was held in:
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Correct answer: A — New Delhi
The 11th round of India–Australia CECA negotiations was held in New Delhi from 18 to 23 August 2025.
In the context of India–Australia trade talks, what does 'CECA' stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
CECA stands for the India–Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement, whose 11th negotiating round concluded in New Delhi on 23 August 2025.
NITI Aayog released the report 'Rethinking Homestays: Navigating Policy Pathways' in August 2025 in collaboration with which organisation?
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Correct answer: A — Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)
NITI Aayog launched the report in collaboration with the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI).
Who released NITI Aayog's report 'Rethinking Homestays: Navigating Policy Pathways' on 22 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Suman Bery
The report was released by Suman Bery, Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog.
Under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025, offering or facilitating online money games can attract what maximum punishment for a first offence?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 3 years and ₹1 crore
Offering or facilitating online money games can lead to imprisonment of up to three years and a fine of up to ₹1 crore; repeat offenders face up to five years and ₹2 crore.
After receiving Presidential assent on 22 August 2025, the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act was published as which Act number of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Act No. 32
The Gazette notification states that the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 received assent on 22 August 2025 and is No. 32 of 2025.
Which ministry will prepare guidelines and standards for e-sports tournaments under the online gaming law passed in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
E-sports are recognised as a legitimate competitive sport, and the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports will prepare guidelines and standards for tournaments.
Consider the following statements about the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025: 1. The ban on online money games applies to games of skill as well as games of chance. 2. Advertising online money games can attract imprisonment of up to two years and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the complete ban covers games of chance, games of skill and those combining both, and advertising such games can attract a jail term of up to two years and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh.
Consider the following statements about the online gaming law of 2025: 1. The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025 and by the Rajya Sabha on 21 August 2025. 2. Offences under its key provisions are cognisable but bailable. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 20 August and the Rajya Sabha on 21 August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: offences under key provisions are cognisable and non-bailable.
Where was the 23rd General Conference of the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD), at which India was elected Executive Board Chairman, held in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Phuket, Thailand
The 23rd AIBD General Conference was held from 19 to 21 August 2025 in Phuket, Thailand.
The Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) was founded in 1977 under the auspices of which body?
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Correct answer: C — UNESCO
AIBD was founded in 1977 under the auspices of UNESCO and is a regional inter-governmental organisation.
How many State Cooperative Banks are covered by UIDAI's Aadhaar authentication framework for cooperative banks launched on 21 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 34
The framework covers all 34 State Cooperative Banks (SCBs) and 352 District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs).
Consider the following statements about UIDAI's Aadhaar framework for cooperative banks (August 2025): 1. Each District Central Cooperative Bank must register separately with UIDAI as an Authentication User Agency. 2. The framework was rolled out to mark the International Year of Cooperatives. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: only State Cooperative Banks register with UIDAI as AUA/KUA, and DCCBs use the Aadhaar application and IT infrastructure of their SCBs. Statement 2 is correct: the framework was rolled out to mark the International Year of Cooperatives.
Lord Swraj Paul, who passed away in London on 21 August 2025, was the founder of which industrial group?
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Correct answer: C — Caparo Group
Lord Swraj Paul was the founder of the UK-based Caparo Group of industries.
Lord Swraj Paul's failed takeover bids for which Indian companies in the 1980s eventually led to the formation of the 'Bombay Club'?
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Correct answer: A — Escorts and Shriram
His failed takeover bids for Escorts and Shriram created a stir in Indian industrial and political circles in the 1980s and eventually led to the formation of the 'Bombay Club'.
In which year did Lord Swraj Paul found the Caparo Group in the UK?
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Correct answer: D — 1968
Lord Paul moved to the UK in 1966 and laid the foundation of the Caparo Group there in 1968.
During their phone call on 21 August 2025, PM Modi and President Macron reaffirmed their commitment to mark 2026 as the India–France year of what?
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Correct answer: D — Year of Innovation
The leaders reaffirmed their joint commitment to strengthen the India–France Strategic Partnership and mark 2026 as 'Year of Innovation'.
In the phone call with PM Modi on 21 August 2025, President Macron conveyed support for early conclusion of India's Free Trade Agreement with whom?
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Correct answer: C — European Union
President Macron conveyed support for early conclusion of the Free Trade Agreement between India and the EU.
Under the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025, removal of a Minister is linked to arrest and detention in custody for more than how many days?
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Correct answer: B — 30 days
The Bills seek removal of the PM, CMs or Ministers facing serious charges who are arrested and detained in custody for more than 30 days; removal is to take place on the 31st day.
The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 applies to charges punishable with imprisonment for a term of at least how long?
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Correct answer: D — 5 years or more
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs states the Bills cover serious criminal charges punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 5 years or more.
What is the composition of the Joint Committee to which the Lok Sabha referred the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 and two related Bills?
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Correct answer: A — 21 Lok Sabha and 10 Rajya Sabha members
The motion moved by Amit Shah referred the three Bills to a Joint Committee of 21 Lok Sabha members nominated by the Speaker and 10 Rajya Sabha members nominated by the Deputy Chairman.
Consider the following statements about the Bills introduced in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025: 1. The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 was introduced by Union Home Minister Amit Shah. 2. It was introduced along with the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill, 2025 and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: Amit Shah introduced the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025, together with the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill.
Consider the following statements about the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. The Prime Minister is kept outside the scope of the removal provision. 2. The Joint Committee examining it is to report by the last day of the first week of the next session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Bills cover the Prime Minister as well as Union Ministers and Chief Ministers and Ministers of States and UTs. Statement 2 is correct: the motion requires the Joint Committee to report by the last day of the first week of the next session.
Where did India and the Eurasian Economic Union sign the Terms of Reference to launch FTA negotiations on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Moscow
The Terms of Reference to launch negotiations on a Free Trade Agreement were signed in Moscow on 20 August 2025.
What was the India–EAEU trade turnover in 2024, as noted when the FTA Terms of Reference were signed?
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Correct answer: D — USD 69 billion
Both sides noted India–EAEU trade turnover of USD 69 billion in 2024, a 7 per cent increase over 2023.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Eurasian Economic Union, with which India signed FTA Terms of Reference in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uzbekistan
The EAEU comprises Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic and the Russian Federation; Uzbekistan is not listed among its members.
Consider the following statements about the India–EAEU FTA Terms of Reference signed in August 2025: 1. It was signed on India's behalf by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal. 2. India and the EAEU have a combined GDP of USD 6.5 trillion. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the ToR was signed by Ajay Bhadoo, Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce. Statement 2 is correct: the release cites a combined GDP of USD 6.5 trillion.
In what capacity was Starlink Satellite Communication Pvt Ltd appointed by UIDAI in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sub-Authentication User Agency and Sub-eKYC User Agency
Starlink Satellite Communication Pvt Ltd was appointed as a Sub-Authentication User Agency and Sub-eKYC User Agency.
Who was the CEO of UIDAI in whose presence Starlink was onboarded for Aadhaar authentication in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bhuvnesh Kumar
Starlink's appointment was done in the presence of UIDAI CEO Bhuvnesh Kumar.
What net addition of members did EPFO report for June 2025, the highest since payroll tracking began?
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Correct answer: B — 21.89 lakh
EPFO's provisional payroll data for June 2025 showed a net addition of 21.89 lakh members, the highest since tracking began in April 2018.
Since when has EPFO been tracking payroll data, against which the June 2025 net addition was described as the highest?
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Correct answer: C — April 2018
The June 2025 net addition of 21.89 lakh was the highest since payroll data tracking began in April 2018.
Who co-chaired the 24th round of India–China Special Representatives talks with Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi in New Delhi on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ajit Doval
National Security Adviser Ajit Doval co-chaired the 24th meeting of the Special Representatives with Wang Yi during his visit to New Delhi.
At the 24th Special Representatives talks, India and China agreed to set up an Expert Group to explore an 'early harvest' in boundary delimitation under which framework?
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Correct answer: A — Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination on India-China Border Affairs (WMCC)
The MEA statement, as reported, said the two sides agreed to set up an Expert Group under the WMCC to explore early harvest in boundary delimitation.
The India–China Special Representatives talks held in New Delhi on 19 August 2025 were which round of the mechanism?
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Correct answer: C — 24th
PIB and the MEA statement describe the 19 August 2025 meeting co-chaired by Ajit Doval and Wang Yi as the 24th meeting of the Special Representatives.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the 24th India–China Special Representatives talks: 1. The two sides agreed to create General-level mechanisms in the eastern and middle sectors, in addition to the existing one in the western sector. 2. They agreed to seek a settlement framework in line with the 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the MEA statement, as reported, refers to new General-level mechanisms in the eastern and middle sectors alongside the existing western-sector mechanism, and to a fair, reasonable and mutually acceptable framework in line with the 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles.
Consider the following statements about the mechanisms agreed at the 24th India–China Special Representatives talks: 1. The Working Group under the WMCC was set up to explore an early harvest in boundary delimitation. 2. The WMCC, under which the new groups were set up, was created in 2012. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: early harvest in boundary delimitation is the task of the Expert Group, while the Working Group is to advance effective border management. Statement 2 is correct: the WMCC was created in 2012.
Until what date did the Government exempt raw cotton imports from all customs duties, with effect from 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 30 September 2025
The Government exempted all customs duties on the import of raw cotton with effect from 19 August 2025 until 30 September 2025.
What was the cumulative import duty on raw cotton that was removed by the exemption announced on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 11%
The exemption removed the 5% Basic Customs Duty, the 5% AIDC and a 10% Social Welfare Surcharge on both, cumulatively an 11% import duty on cotton.
Consider the following statements about the customs duty exemption on raw cotton announced in August 2025: 1. The exemption was notified by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT). 2. The exemption took effect from 1 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct: the exemption was notified by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), and it took effect from 19 August 2025, running until 30 September 2025.
INS Tamal arrived at which Greek port on 19 August 2025 during her return passage to India after commissioning in Russia?
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Correct answer: A — Souda Bay
INS Tamal, the latest stealth frigate, arrived at Souda Bay, Greece, on 19 August 2025 during her return passage to India post commissioning in Russia.
During INS Tamal's port call at Souda Bay in August 2025, the crew was to be familiarised with operations at which facility?
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Correct answer: D — NATO Maritime Interdiction Operational Training Centre
The port call included familiarisation with operations and procedures at the NATO Maritime Interdiction Operational Training Centre in Souda Bay.
Among the ECI initiatives listed on 19 August 2025, what is the maximum number of voters now set per polling station?
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Correct answer: A — 1,200
The ECI listed a polling station limit of 1,200 voters to reduce crowding and shorten queues.
ECINET, listed by the Election Commission among its recent initiatives, subsumes how many apps and websites?
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Correct answer: C — 40+
ECINET is described as a one-stop digital platform subsuming 40+ apps and websites for electors and other stakeholders.
Consider the following statements about the ECI initiatives listed on 19 August 2025: 1. Under a new SOP, EPICs are to be delivered within 30 days of an update in the electoral rolls. 2. Honorarium has been provided to EROs and AEROs for the first time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the new SOP enables delivery of EPICs within 15 days of an update in the electoral rolls. Statement 2 is correct: honorarium was provided to EROs and AEROs for the first time.
Wang Yi handed over President Xi Jinping's invitation to Prime Minister Modi on 19 August 2025 for the SCO Summit being held in which Chinese city?
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Correct answer: C — Tianjin
Wang Yi handed over a message and invitation from President Xi for the SCO Summit being held in Tianjin, and the Prime Minister conveyed his acceptance.
While receiving Wang Yi on 19 August 2025, Prime Minister Modi welcomed progress in India–China ties since his meeting with President Xi held last year in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Kazan
PIB states the Prime Minister welcomed the steady and positive progress in bilateral ties since his meeting with President Xi in Kazan last year.
Consider the following statements about Wang Yi's call on Prime Minister Modi on 19 August 2025: 1. Wang Yi shared his assessment of his meeting with EAM S. Jaishankar and of the 24th Special Representatives meeting. 2. The Prime Minister cited the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra as part of the progress in ties. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: Wang Yi shared his positive assessment of the meeting with EAM Jaishankar and the 24th SR meeting, and the Prime Minister referred to the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra while welcoming progress since Kazan.
How many provisions does the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 propose to decriminalise to foster Ease of Doing Business?
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Correct answer: B — 288
Of the 355 provisions proposed to be amended, 288 are to be decriminalised to foster Ease of Doing Business and 67 amended to facilitate Ease of Living.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 covers how many Central Acts?
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Correct answer: D — 16
The 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments; the 2023 Act had covered 42 Central Acts.
Under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025, the 67 amendments meant to facilitate Ease of Living are proposed under which Acts?
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Correct answer: B — NDMC Act, 1994 and Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
The Bill proposes 67 amendments under the New Delhi Municipal Council Act, 1994 (NDMC Act) and the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to facilitate Ease of Living.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025: 1. First-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts are to attract an advisory or warning. 2. The Minister requested that the Bill be referred to a Select Committee, which is to report by the first day of the next Session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the Bill provides an advisory or warning for first-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts, and Piyush Goyal requested the Speaker to refer it to a Select Committee that is to report by the first day of the next Session.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas legislation: 1. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. 2. The 2025 Bill covers Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the 2023 Act, notified on 11 August 2023, decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments.
In his talks with Wang Yi on 18 August 2025, S. Jaishankar said India–China ties must be guided by the 'three mutuals'. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: D — Mutual trust
Jaishankar listed the three mutuals as mutual respect, mutual sensitivity and mutual interest; mutual trust was not one of them.
India and China agreed during Wang Yi's August 2025 visit to reopen border trade through three designated points. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: B — Bum La
The reported outcomes named Lipulekh, Shipki La and Nathu La as the three designated points for reopening border trade; Bum La was not among them.
S. Jaishankar described Wang Yi's August 2025 visit as the first by a Chinese Minister since the two countries' leaders met at which place?
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Correct answer: A — Kazan, October 2024
In his opening remarks, Jaishankar said this was the first visit by a Chinese Minister since the leaders met in Kazan in October 2024.
Consider the following statements about the Jaishankar–Wang Yi talks and the outcomes of Wang Yi's visit in August 2025: 1. Jaishankar said differences must not become disputes, nor competition conflict. 2. The two sides agreed to resume direct flights from 1 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: it is part of Jaishankar's opening remarks. Statement 2 is incorrect: the sides agreed to resume direct flights at the earliest and finalise an updated Air Services Agreement, but no date was given for resumption.
What was the unemployment rate (Current Weekly Status, age 15 and above) for April–June 2025 as per the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin released on 18 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5.4%
The Unemployment Rate in CWS for persons aged 15 years and above was 5.4% during April–June 2025; rural was 4.8% and urban 6.8%.
About how many persons aged 15 and above were employed in India during April–June 2025, according to the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin?
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Correct answer: C — 56.4 crore
On average, 56.4 crore persons aged 15 years and above were employed in the country during the April–June 2025 quarter, of whom 39.7 crore were men.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS bulletins released on 18 August 2025: 1. The April–June 2025 Quarterly Bulletin is the first in the series to provide estimates for both rural and urban areas. 2. The monthly unemployment rate rose to 5.6% in July 2025 from 5.2% in June 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: earlier quarterly bulletins covered only urban areas, and the April–June 2025 bulletin is the first to cover both. Statement 2 is incorrect: the unemployment rate declined to 5.2% in July 2025 from 5.6% in June 2025.
SLINEX-25, which concluded at Colombo on 18 August 2025, was which edition of the India–Sri Lanka bilateral naval exercise?
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Correct answer: C — 12th
The 12th edition of the India–Sri Lanka bilateral naval exercise SLINEX-25 concluded at Colombo on 18 August 2025.
Which Indian naval ships took part in SLINEX-25?
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Correct answer: A — INS Jyoti and INS Rana
Indian naval ships INS Jyoti and INS Rana from the Eastern Fleet took part, along with SLNS Sayura and SLNS Vijayabahu of Sri Lanka.
The Indian Ports Bill, 2025, passed by the Rajya Sabha on 18 August 2025, replaces which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Ports Act, 1908
The Indian Ports Bill, 2025 is designed to replace the Indian Ports Act, 1908, ending more than a century of colonial-era regulation.
Which statutory consultative body does the Indian Ports Bill, 2025 establish to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States?
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Correct answer: C — Maritime State Development Council
The Bill establishes the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) as a statutory consultative body to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States; it will prepare a National Perspective Plan.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Ports Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates compliance with international conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management. 2. It creates Dispute Resolution Committees for sector-specific redressal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the legislation mandates compliance with conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management and creates Dispute Resolution Committees for timely sector-specific redressal.
In his phone call with PM Modi on 18 August 2025, President Putin shared his assessment of his meeting with President Trump held where?
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Correct answer: D — Alaska
President Putin shared his assessment of his meeting with US President Donald Trump in Alaska the previous week.
During the Modi–Putin call of 18 August 2025, the leaders discussed strengthening which partnership between India and Russia?
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Correct answer: B — Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership
The two leaders touched upon bilateral cooperation with a view to further strengthen the Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership between India and Russia.
What is the outlay of the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, whose registration portal went live in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹99,446 crore
The Cabinet approved the Employment Linked Incentive Scheme, named Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore.
Benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana apply to jobs created during which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1 August 2025 to 31 July 2027
The benefits of the scheme are applicable to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana: 1. Newly employed youth can receive up to ₹15,000 in a single instalment paid by employers. 2. Employers can receive up to ₹3,000 per month per new employee. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the incentive of up to ₹15,000 to newly employed youth is paid in two instalments through DBT using the Aadhaar Bridge Payment System. Statement 2 is correct: employers can get up to ₹3,000 per month per new employee.
Which State recorded the highest disposal rate of consumer cases in July 2025, at 277%?
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Correct answer: D — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu recorded 277%, followed by Rajasthan at 214% and Telangana at 158%; the NCDRC itself achieved 122%.
e-Jagriti, the unified consumer grievance redressal platform, was launched on which date?
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Correct answer: A — 1 January 2025
The Department of Consumer Affairs launched e-Jagriti on 1 January 2025 as a next-generation unified digital platform for consumer grievance redressal.
Consider the following statements about consumer case disposal and e-Jagriti as reported in August 2025: 1. A disposal rate above 100% means more cases were resolved than were filed in the period. 2. e-Jagriti has been made operational only at the NCDRC so far, not in State commissions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a disposal rate of over 100% indicates that the number of cases resolved exceeded the number filed. Statement 2 is incorrect: e-Jagriti is operational at the NCDRC and across all 36 States and Union Territories.
Shubhanshu Shukla, who returned to India on 17 August 2025, visited the International Space Station as part of which mission?
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Correct answer: D — Axiom-4
Axiom-4, a private space mission that lifted off from Florida on 25 June 2025.
Which Gaganyaan astronaut, Shubhanshu Shukla's backup for the Axiom-4 mission, also returned to India with him on 17 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair
Group Captain Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair, the designated backup for the mission.
Consider the following statements about Shubhanshu Shukla's return to India on 17 August 2025: 1. The Axiom-4 mission had lifted off from Florida on 25 June 2025. 2. He was received at Delhi airport by ISRO Chairman S. Somanath. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ISRO Chairman V. Narayanan received him at the airport, along with Jitendra Singh and Rekha Gupta.
C.P. Radhakrishnan, named the NDA's Vice-Presidential candidate on 17 August 2025, was serving as the Governor of which State at the time?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
Amit Shah congratulated Governor of Maharashtra C.P. Radhakrishnan on being nominated as the NDA's candidate for the Vice-Presidential election.
Which body's decision did Amit Shah credit for the nomination of C.P. Radhakrishnan as the NDA's Vice-Presidential candidate?
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Correct answer: A — The party Parliamentary Board
Amit Shah expressed gratitude to Prime Minister Narendra Modi and all members of the party Parliamentary Board for this decision.
Consider the following statements about the reactions to C.P. Radhakrishnan's nomination as NDA Vice-Presidential candidate on 17 August 2025: 1. The Prime Minister said Radhakrishnan had done extensive grassroots work in Kerala. 2. Amit Shah said Radhakrishnan's experience would enhance the prestige of the Upper House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The Prime Minister said Radhakrishnan had done extensive work at the grassroots in Tamil Nadu.
INS Tamal carried out a Passage Exercise with which Italian Navy ship before entering Naples harbour in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ITS Trieste
INS Tamal participated in a PASSEX with ITS Trieste, the recently commissioned Landing Helicopter Dock of the Italian Navy, before entering harbour at Naples.
During INS Tamal's Naples port call, the two sides discussed initiatives under which India–Italy framework?
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029
The Commanding Officer and Italian officials discussed various initiatives under the India–Italy Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029.
As referred to during INS Tamal's port call at Naples in August 2025, India and Italy have had a Strategic Partnership since which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2023
2023; the two sides also discussed initiatives under the India–Italy Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029.
Tanya Hemanth won the Saipan International 2025 badminton title in August 2025. Saipan is part of which territory?
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Correct answer: A — Northern Mariana Islands
Northern Mariana Islands; the final was played at the Oleai Sports Complex.
The Saipan International 2025, won by Tanya Hemanth, was a BWF trial event for an experimental scoring system in which each game is played to how many points?
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Correct answer: C — 15
15 points, under the experimental 3x15 system, instead of the conventional 21.