UP Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
At which venue did Donald Trump and Vladimir Putin hold their summit in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson, Anchorage
AP and Reuters reported that the summit took place at Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson in Anchorage, Alaska.
The Trump–Putin summit in Alaska in August 2025 was the two leaders' first meeting since which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2019
Reuters reported that the Alaska summit was the first meeting between Trump and Putin since 2019.
Consider the following statements about the Trump–Putin summit in Alaska in August 2025: 1. The two leaders announced a ceasefire agreement in Ukraine at the end of the talks. 2. Putin suggested that a next meeting could be held in Moscow. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: no agreement to end the war in Ukraine was announced, and Trump said there was no deal until there is a deal. Statement 2 is correct: Putin suggested that a meeting in Moscow could be next.
Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 was which edition of the campaign?
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Correct answer: C — Fourth
Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 is the 4th edition of the nationwide movement launched in 2022 as part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
Which new component was introduced in Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 to enable participation of people constrained by age or limited access to technology?
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Correct answer: A — Tiranga Volunteer
The Tiranga Volunteer is a new component introduced this year; more than 9 lakh volunteers came forward during Har Ghar Tiranga 2025.
According to the Ministry of Culture, about how many selfies with the national flag were uploaded during Har Ghar Tiranga 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 7.50 crore
7.50 crore selfies were uploaded during the campaign, which ran from 2 to 15 August 2025.
By which year did the Prime Minister say important strategic and civilian places would get complete security cover under Mission Sudarshan Chakra?
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Correct answer: B — 2035
The Prime Minister said that in the coming 10 years, by 2035, all important places of the nation, strategic as well as civilian, would be given complete security cover through new platforms of technology.
The name of Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced on 15 August 2025, draws inspiration from which figure?
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Correct answer: D — Lord Shri Krishna
The Prime Minister said the country had chosen the path of the Sudarshan Chakra taking inspiration from Lord Shri Krishna.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra: 1. Its security cover is limited to military installations and excludes civilian sites. 2. The Prime Minister described it as a powerful weapon system that will neutralise enemy attacks and also hit back at the enemy. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Prime Minister said the cover would include strategic as well as civilian areas such as hospitals, railways and centres of faith. Statement 2 is correct: he described the mission as a powerful weapon system that will not only neutralise the enemy's attack but also hit back many times more.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra as described in the 2025 Independence Day address: 1. The mission aims to develop a system for targeted precise action. 2. The mission is to be completed over 25 years, by the centenary of Independence in 2047. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Prime Minister said the country would move towards developing a system for targeted precise action through Sudarshan Chakra. Statement 2 is incorrect: the timeline stated was the coming 10 years, till 2035.
In which event did Anandkumar Velkumar win bronze at the World Games 2025 on 15 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Men's 1000m sprint, inline speed skating
Men's 1000m sprint, inline speed skating track event, clocking 1:22.482.
The World Games 2025, where Anandkumar Velkumar won India's first roller skating medal at the Games, were held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Chengdu
Chengdu, China.
Consider the following statements about Anandkumar Velkumar's bronze at the World Games 2025: 1. It was India's first medal in roller skating at the World Games. 2. It took India's tally at the edition to three medals, India's highest in a single edition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India's tally became one silver and two bronze.
What is the one-time fee for the FASTag Annual Pass implemented by NHAI from 15 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹3,000
The FASTag Annual Pass requires a one-time fee payment of ₹3,000 for one-year validity or 200 toll plaza crossings.
Consider the following statements about the FASTag Annual Pass: 1. It is applicable to all commercial vehicles with a valid FASTag. 2. It is activated within two hours of payment through the Rajmargyatra app or the NHAI website. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the pass is applicable to all non-commercial vehicles with a valid FASTag. Statement 2 is correct: it gets activated within two hours of the one-time fee payment through the Rajmargyatra app or NHAI website.
At approximately how many toll plazas was the FASTag Annual Pass implemented on 15 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — About 1,150
NHAI implemented the FASTag Annual Pass from 15 August 2025 at about 1,150 toll plazas on National Highways and Expressways.
To what level did S&P Global Ratings upgrade India's long-term sovereign credit rating on 14 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — BBB
S&P upgraded India's long-term sovereign credit rating to 'BBB' from 'BBB-', with a Stable outlook.
The S&P upgrade of India's sovereign rating in August 2025 was its first upgrade of India in how many years?
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Correct answer: A — 18
The Ministry of Finance said this was India's first sovereign upgrade by S&P in 18 years, the previous one being in 2007.
Consider the following statements about S&P's rating action on India in August 2025: 1. S&P assigned a Positive outlook along with the upgrade. 2. India's short-term rating was lowered from 'A-2' to 'A-3'. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. The upgrade came with a Stable outlook, and the short-term rating was raised to 'A-2' from 'A-3'.
Consider the following statements about S&P's assessment of India in August 2025: 1. S&P's previous upgrade of India, in 2007, had elevated India to investment grade at 'BBB-'. 2. S&P projected India's GDP growth at 6.5% in FY26. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The previous upgrade in 2007 took India to investment grade at 'BBB-', and S&P projected GDP growth of 6.5% in FY26.
How many Kirti Chakras were approved by the President on the eve of Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 4
The President approved 4 Kirti Chakras among the 127 Gallantry awards on the eve of Independence Day 2025.
How many Gallantry awards in total did the President approve for Armed Forces and CAPF personnel on the eve of Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 127
The President approved 127 Gallantry awards and 40 Distinguished Service awards on the eve of Independence Day 2025.
Consider the following statements about the defence awards approved on the eve of Independence Day 2025: 1. Vir Chakra awardees included Group Captains of the Indian Air Force. 2. The largest share of the 290 Mention-in-Despatches went to the Indian Army. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Group Captains Ranjeet Singh Sidhu, Manish Arora, Animesh Patni and Kunal Kalra of the IAF were among the Vir Chakra awardees. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Indian Air Force received 167 of the 290 Mention-in-Despatches, against 115 for the Army.
Lieutenant Shashank Tiwari of 1 Sikkim Scouts was approved for which award on the eve of Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Kirti Chakra
Lieutenant Shashank Tiwari of The Army Service Corps, 1 Sikkim Scouts, was one of the four Kirti Chakra awardees.
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — -0.58%
The annual rate of inflation based on the all-India WPI was -0.58% (provisional) for July 2025, against -0.13% in June 2025.
Consider the following statements about WPI data for July 2025: 1. Inflation in manufactured products was negative. 2. The WPI Food Index recorded negative inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: manufactured products recorded inflation of 2.05%. Statement 2 is correct: the WPI Food Index was at -2.15%.
How many personnel of Police, Fire, Home Guard & Civil Defence and Correctional Services were awarded gallantry and service medals on Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1,090
A total of 1,090 personnel of Police, Fire, Home Guard & Civil Defence and Correctional Services were awarded Gallantry and Service Medals on Independence Day 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Medals for Gallantry announced by the MHA for Independence Day 2025: 1. More than half of the 233 Medals for Gallantry went to personnel from the Jammu & Kashmir region. 2. No Fire Service personnel received a Medal for Gallantry. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: 152 of the 233 Medals for Gallantry went to personnel from the Jammu & Kashmir region. Statement 2 is incorrect: 6 Fire Service personnel received the Medal for Gallantry.
What GDP growth rate for the last financial year did President Droupadi Murmu cite in her address on the eve of the 79th Independence Day?
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Correct answer: B — 6.5%
In her address, the President noted GDP growth of 6.5% in the last financial year and said India was the fastest-growing major economy.
Consider the following statements about President Droupadi Murmu's address on the eve of the 79th Independence Day: 1. She described justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the four pillars of the Constitution. 2. She referred to Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas observed on 14 August. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The President described justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the four pillars of the Constitution and referred to Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas.
The year 2025 marks how many years of the India–Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA)?
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Correct answer: C — 20
The India–Singapore CECA was signed in 2005, so 2025 marks 20 years of the agreement along with 60 years of diplomatic relations.
Consider the following statements about India–Singapore economic ties, as noted at the 4th JWGTI in August 2025: 1. Singapore is India's largest trading partner in ASEAN. 2. Singapore is India's largest source of FDI. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Singapore is India's largest trading partner in ASEAN, with trade of USD 34.26 billion in 2024–25. Statement 2 is incorrect: Singapore is India's second-largest source of FDI.
In which year was 14 August declared as Partition Horrors Remembrance Day, to be observed every year?
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Correct answer: C — 2021
The Prime Minister declared on 14 August 2021 that 14 August would be observed every year as Partition Horrors Remembrance Day.
Partition Horrors Remembrance Day, observed on 14 August, is known in Hindi as:
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Correct answer: D — Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas
The day is called Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas (विभाजन विभीषिका स्मृति दिवस) in Hindi, as stated in the 2021 declaration.
In which category did Bhavina Patel win gold at the ITTF World Para Elite event in Spokane in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Women's Singles Class 4–5
Bhavina Patel clinched the gold medal in the Women's Singles Class 4–5 category at the ITTF World Para Elite event held from 9 to 13 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about Bhavina Patel's performances in Spokane in August 2025: 1. She won silver in the same category at the ITTF World Para Future event held days earlier. 2. The results lifted her to No. 1 in the ITTF World Para rankings for Women's Singles Classes 1 to 5. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Bhavina Patel won silver at the ITTF World Para Future event from 6 to 8 August and, after her gold at the World Para Elite event, rose to No. 1 in Women's Singles Classes 1 to 5.
Bhavina Patel, who rose to world No. 1 in the ITTF World Para rankings in August 2025, works as an Assistant Director with which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)
Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), at its Regional Office in Ahmedabad.
Who led the Singapore ministerial delegation that called on President Droupadi Murmu on 13 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gan Kim Yong
The delegation was led by Gan Kim Yong, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister for Trade and Industry of Singapore, who was in Delhi for the third ISMR.
The Singapore delegation that met the President on 13 August 2025 was in Delhi for which edition of the India–Singapore Ministerial Roundtable?
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Correct answer: C — Third
The delegation was in Delhi for the third meeting of the India–Singapore Ministerial Roundtable (ISMR).
As recalled when the Singapore delegation called on President Murmu on 13 August 2025, the year 2025 marks how many years of diplomatic relations between India and Singapore?
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Correct answer: B — 60
60 years; President Tharman Shanmugaratnam made a State Visit to India earlier in 2025.
Which body issued the Manual for Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity on 13 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) issued the Manual for Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity, the country's first standardised framework of its kind.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's digital connectivity rating manual of August 2025: 1. It was developed under the Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024. 2. TRAI noted that less than half of mobile data is consumed indoors. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the manual was developed under the Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: TRAI noted that more than 80% of mobile data is consumed indoors.
Who was the Chairman of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) when it issued the Manual for Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Anil Kumar Lahoti
Anil Kumar Lahoti.
What solar PV module manufacturing capacity under ALMM did India reach, as announced on 13 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 100 GW
MNRE announced that India has achieved 100 GW of solar PV module manufacturing capacity enlisted under the Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM).
Consider the following statements about India's solar module manufacturing milestone of August 2025: 1. The ALMM Order was issued by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy in 2019. 2. India's solar module manufacturing capacity was 2.3 GW in 2014. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. MNRE issued the ALMM Order on 2 January 2019, and solar module manufacturing capacity has risen from 2.3 GW in 2014 to 100 GW.
While announcing the 100 GW solar module milestone, the Minister linked it to India's target of how much non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030?
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Correct answer: D — 500 GW
Union Minister Pralhad Joshi said the achievement strengthens India's path towards the target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030.
What was India's year-on-year CPI headline inflation for July 2025 (provisional), as released on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1.55%
MoSPI data showed headline CPI inflation of 1.55% (provisional) for July 2025, 55 basis points lower than June 2025.
The July 2025 headline CPI inflation was the lowest year-on-year inflation since which month?
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Correct answer: C — June 2017
The 1.55% headline inflation for July 2025 was the lowest year-on-year inflation since June 2017; January 2019 is the reference point for food inflation.
Consider the following statements about India's CPI data for July 2025: 1. Food inflation measured by the CFPI was negative. 2. Rural inflation was higher than urban inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: CFPI-based food inflation was -1.76%, the lowest since January 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect: rural inflation was 1.18%, lower than urban inflation of 2.05%.
What is the base year of the Consumer Price Index series used for the July 2025 inflation data?
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Correct answer: D — 2012
The CPI numbers for rural, urban and combined released for July 2025 are on base 2012=100.
Who admitted the motion for removal of Justice Yashwant Varma and constituted an inquiry committee on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla
Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla admitted the motion signed by 146 MPs and constituted a three-member inquiry committee.
Under which law was the three-member committee to probe the charges against Justice Yashwant Varma constituted?
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Correct answer: C — Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
The Speaker constituted the committee under Section 3(2) of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
Consider the following statements about the inquiry committee constituted in the Justice Yashwant Varma case in August 2025: 1. It includes a sitting judge of the Supreme Court. 2. It was constituted by the Chief Justice of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the committee includes Supreme Court judge Justice Aravind Kumar. Statement 2 is incorrect: the committee was constituted by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla after admitting the removal motion.
Who among the following is NOT a member of the inquiry committee constituted in the Justice Yashwant Varma case?
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Correct answer: D — Justice Sanjiv Khanna
The committee comprises Justice Aravind Kumar of the Supreme Court, Madras High Court Chief Justice Manindra Mohan Shrivastava and senior advocate B.V. Acharya; Sanjiv Khanna is not a member.
What was the combined outlay of the four semiconductor projects approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — About ₹4,600 crore
The Cabinet approved four semiconductor projects with a cumulative investment of about ₹4,600 crore, expected to create 2,034 skilled jobs.
India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices, approved in August 2025, will come up in which state?
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Correct answer: C — Odisha
SiCSem will set up India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices at Info Valley, Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
Consider the following statements about the semiconductor approvals of 12 August 2025: 1. With these approvals, the number of projects approved under the India Semiconductor Mission rose to 10. 2. The CDIL unit approved on this date is located in Andhra Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: approved ISM projects reached 10, with cumulative investment of about ₹1.60 lakh crore across six states. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CDIL unit is located in Punjab; the ASIP unit is in Andhra Pradesh.
SiCSem's silicon carbide fab approved in August 2025 is to be set up in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd. of which country?
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Correct answer: A — United Kingdom
SiCSem is setting up the compound semiconductor fab in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd., UK.
Under the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament in August 2025, which body grants recognition to sports bodies?
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Correct answer: C — National Sports Board
The bill sets up a National Sports Board to grant recognition to sports bodies; the National Sports Tribunal is a separate institution created by the bill.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025: 1. Executive committees of sports bodies can have up to 15 members, including at least four women. 2. The Lok Sabha passed the bill before the Rajya Sabha did. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The bill provides for executive committees of up to 15 members with at least two outstanding sportspersons and four women, and the Lok Sabha passed it on 11 August before the Rajya Sabha approved it on 12 August 2025.
The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed alongside the sports governance bill reinforces the autonomy of which body?
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Correct answer: A — National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA)
The anti-doping amendment reinforces the autonomy of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), as required by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
Which of the following is NOT among the bodies provided for in the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Sports Ombudsman Council
The bill provides for a National Olympic Committee, a National Paralympic Committee, national and regional federations, a National Sports Board and a National Sports Tribunal; it does not create a 'National Sports Ombudsman Council'.
On which date was the Public Service Commission, the predecessor of UPSC, first set up?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October 1926
The Public Service Commission was first set up on 1 October 1926; UPSC will mark its centenary from 1 October 2025 to 1 October 2026.
Consider the following statements about the history of the UPSC: 1. The first Public Service Commission was set up on the recommendations of the Lee Commission. 2. The commission was renamed the Union Public Service Commission on 26 January 1950. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 under the Government of India Act, 1919 on the Lee Commission's recommendations, and it was renamed UPSC on 26 January 1950.
What is the length of the Lucknow Metro Phase-1B corridor approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 11.165 km
The Cabinet approved Phase-1B of the Lucknow Metro, an 11.165 km corridor with 12 stations, at a cost of ₹5,801 crore.
Consider the following statements about Lucknow Metro Phase-1B approved in August 2025: 1. All 12 stations on the corridor will be elevated. 2. After this corridor, Lucknow will have a 34 km active metro network. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: of the 12 stations, 7 will be underground and 5 elevated. Statement 2 is correct: with Phase-1B, Lucknow will have a 34 km active metro network.
The SHRESTH index launched by the Union Health Ministry on 12 August 2025 is meant to benchmark which of the following?
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Correct answer: A — State drug regulatory systems
SHRESTH is a national initiative to benchmark and strengthen state drug regulatory systems through a transparent, data-driven framework.
Which organisation proposed the SHRESTH index launched in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
SHRESTH was proposed by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) as a virtual gap-assessment tool for states.
Which company led the consortium selected by IN-SPACe in August 2025 to build India's first PPP-based Earth Observation constellation?
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Correct answer: B — Pixxel
IN-SPACe selected a consortium led by Pixxel, with Piersight Space, SatSure Analytics India and Dhruva Space, under its EO-PPP model.
How many satellites will the Earth Observation constellation awarded under IN-SPACe's EO-PPP model in August 2025 comprise?
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Correct answer: A — 12
The Pixxel-led consortium will deploy a constellation of 12 satellites carrying optical, hyperspectral and SAR sensors, investing over ₹1,200 crore.
Who headed the Select Committee whose recommendations were incorporated in the Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Baijayant Panda
The revised Income-Tax Bill incorporated most of the recommendations of the Select Committee headed by Baijayant Panda.
The Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha in August 2025 seeks to replace which law?
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Correct answer: B — Income-Tax Act, 1961
The revised Income-Tax Bill aims to replace the six-decade-old Income-Tax Act, 1961.
Consider the following statements about the tax bills passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025: 1. Both bills were passed by voice vote without debate. 2. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Old Pension Scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: both bills were passed by voice vote without any debate amid Opposition protests. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme.
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025 provides tax exemptions to subscribers of which scheme?
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Correct answer: D — Unified Pension Scheme
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 aims to provide tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme and also changes block assessment for income tax search cases.
The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament on 11 August 2025 replaces the Merchant Shipping Act of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1958
The bill replaces the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which had 561 sections.
Consider the following statements about the Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. The Act it replaces had 561 sections. 2. The new Bill is structured into 16 parts and 325 clauses. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 had 561 sections, and the new Bill offers a streamlined framework of 16 parts and 325 clauses.
The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 aligns India's domestic laws with the conventions of which international body?
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Correct answer: D — International Maritime Organisation
The bill aims to align domestic laws with international best practices and International Maritime Organisation (IMO) conventions.
The Cooperative Election Authority, which held its first consultative meeting with states on 11 August 2025, was notified under which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002
The CEA was notified on 11 March 2024 under Section 45 of the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, as amended in 2023.
Who chaired the first consultative meeting of the Cooperative Election Authority with State Cooperative Election Authorities on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Devendra Kumar Singh
The meeting was chaired by Devendra Kumar Singh, Chairperson of the Cooperative Election Authority.
Which edition of the High-Level Meeting between the Indian Coast Guard and the Sri Lanka Coast Guard was held in New Delhi on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 8th
The 8th High-Level Meeting between the ICG and SLCG was held in New Delhi on 11 August 2025.
In which year was the Memorandum of Understanding between the Indian Coast Guard and the Sri Lanka Coast Guard signed, under which the August 2025 visit took place?
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Correct answer: C — 2018
The SLCG delegation visited India from 10 to 14 August 2025 under the framework of the MoU signed between the ICG and SLCG in 2018.
Political parties are registered with the Election Commission of India under which provision?
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Correct answer: C — Section 29A of the RP Act, 1951
Political parties, including RUPPs, are registered with the ECI under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
How many registered unrecognised political parties did the ECI delist in the first round on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 334
In the first round, the ECI delisted 334 RUPPs on 9 August 2025, reducing listed RUPPs from 2,854 to 2,520; 476 more were identified in the second round.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's RUPP delisting exercise of August 2025: 1. Registration guidelines provide for delisting a party that does not contest elections continuously for six years. 2. After the first round, the number of listed RUPPs rose to 2,854. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a party that does not contest elections continuously for six years is taken off the list. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first round reduced listed RUPPs from 2,854 to 2,520.
How many medals did India win at the U19 Asian Boxing Championships 2025 in Bangkok?
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Correct answer: C — 14
India's U19 boxers won 14 medals — three gold, seven silver and four bronze; 27 was India's combined tally across the U19 and U22 events.
Which of the following Indian boxers did NOT win a gold medal at the U19 Asian Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Hemant
India's three U19 golds were won by Nisha (54 kg), Muskan (57 kg) and Rahul Kundu (75 kg); Hemant was not among the gold medallists.