Tamil Nadu State Staff Selection Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the overarching theme of Kashi Tamil Sangamam 4.0, inaugurated in Varanasi on 2 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Karkalam – Let us learn Tamil
PIB 2198004: with 'Tamil Karkalam - Let us learn Tamil' as its overarching theme, KTS 4.0 focuses on youth engagement.
Which Union Minister inaugurated Kashi Tamil Sangamam 4.0 along with UP CM Yogi Adityanath in December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Dharmendra Pradhan
PIB 2198004: KTS 4.0 was inaugurated in the presence of Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan and UP CM Yogi Adityanath.
In preparation for Cyclone Ditwah (November 2025), the Department of Telecommunications ensured testing of which two facilities across networks as per SOP-2020?
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Correct answer: D — Intra Circle Roaming and Cell Broadcast
As per SOP-2020, DoT completed Intra Circle Roaming (ICR) and Cell Broadcast (CB) testing across all networks.
Cyclone Ditwah (late November 2025) formed over which water body?
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Correct answer: B — Bay of Bengal
DoT's release describes Cyclone Ditwah over the Bay of Bengal, likely to impact coastal Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
The fourth edition of Kashi Tamil Sangamam (KTS 4.0) was scheduled in Varanasi during:
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Correct answer: B — 2 – 15 December 2025
KTS 4.0 runs from 2 to 15 December 2025 in Varanasi, inaugurated at NaMo Ghat on 2 December.
Kashi Tamil Sangamam 4.0 coincided with which Tamil festival celebrated on 4 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Karthigai Deepam
PIB notes that KTS 4.0 coincides with Karthigai Deepam, celebrated on 4 December.
The FIH Hockey Men's Junior World Cup 2025, which began on 28 November 2025, was hosted in which two Indian cities?
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Correct answer: C — Chennai and Madurai
The FIH Hockey Men's Junior World Cup Tamil Nadu 2025 is being played in Chennai and Madurai from 28 November to 10 December 2025.
In their opening match of the FIH Men's Junior World Cup 2025, India beat which team 7-0?
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Correct answer: D — Chile
India beat Chile 7-0 in Pool B at the Mayor Radhakrishnan Hockey Stadium, Chennai, on 28 November 2025.
What is the theme of Kashi Tamil Sangamam 4.0, beginning on 2 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Learn Tamil – Tamil Karkalam
KTS 4.0 is organised around the theme 'Learn Tamil – Tamil Karkalam' to promote Tamil learning across India.
Which institutions are coordinating Kashi Tamil Sangamam 4.0?
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Correct answer: A — IIT Madras and BHU Varanasi
The programme is being coordinated by IIT Madras and BHU Varanasi.
Which instalment of PM-KISAN, worth about ₹18,000 crore for around 9 crore farmers, was released on 19 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 21st
The 21st instalment of PM-KISAN was released on 19 November 2025.
From which city did PM Narendra Modi release the 21st PM-KISAN instalment?
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Correct answer: B — Coimbatore
It was released from Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu, at the South India Natural Farming Summit 2025.
According to PM Modi's address at Coimbatore in November 2025, how much has been transferred directly to farmers' bank accounts under PM-KISAN so far?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4 lakh crore
The PM said ₹4 lakh crore has been transferred directly to small farmers under PM-KISAN so far.
The South India Natural Farming Summit 2025, inaugurated by PM Modi in Coimbatore, was organised by:
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu Natural Farming Stakeholders Forum
The summit (19–21 November 2025) was organised by the Tamil Nadu Natural Farming Stakeholders Forum.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's address at the South India Natural Farming Summit 2025: 1. He urged farmers to practise natural farming on one acre for one season ('One Acre, One Season'). 2. He said about 35,000 hectares in Tamil Nadu are under organic and natural farming. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the PM's address on 19 November 2025.
What is the enumeration phase of Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?
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Correct answer: B — 4 November – 4 December 2025
The enumeration phase runs from 4 November to 4 December 2025.
How many States and Union Territories are covered under Phase II of the SIR of electoral rolls?
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Correct answer: C — 12
Phase II covers 12 States/UTs, from Andaman & Nicobar to West Bengal.
Approximately how many electors (as on 27 October 2025) are covered under Phase II of the SIR?
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Correct answer: D — 50.99 crore
The ECI bulletin lists 50,99,72,687 electors across the 12 States/UTs.
Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, which began on 4 November 2025, covers how many States and Union Territories?
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Correct answer: B — 9 States and 3 UTs
SIR Phase II covers 9 States and 3 UTs (Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry).
Consider the following statements about SIR Phase II (November 2025): 1. The Election Commission ordered it under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 2. Its enumeration period runs until 4 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ECI ordered the SIR under Article 324 and Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950, and the enumeration period runs from 4 November to 4 December 2025.
Approximately how many electors are covered by Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision that began in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 51 crore
Phase II covers nearly 51 crore electors across 321 districts and 1,843 Assembly constituencies.
Which of the following is NOT among the States/UTs covered by SIR Phase II, which began on 4 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Assam
Phase II covers Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry; Assam is not in the list.
How much did the National Biodiversity Authority release to Red Sanders farmers in Tamil Nadu under the Access and Benefit Sharing framework in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹55 lakh to 18 farmers
PIB: NBA released ₹55 lakh to 18 farmers/cultivators of Red Sanders in Tamil Nadu through the State Biodiversity Board.
What is the scientific name of Red Sanders?
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Correct answer: D — Pterocarpus santalinus
PIB refers to Red Sanders as Pterocarpus santalinus.
According to the National Biodiversity Authority, Red Sanders is endemic to the Eastern Ghats and found naturally in which state alone?
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Correct answer: B — Andhra Pradesh
PIB: Red Sanders, an endemic species to the Eastern Ghats, is found in Andhra Pradesh alone; it is cultivated in other states too.
The GI-tagged Indi lime, shipped by air to the UK for the first time on 28 October 2025, comes from which district of Karnataka?
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Correct answer: B — Vijayapura
PIB: 350 kg of GI-tagged Indi Lime from Vijayapura, Karnataka was part of the consignment.
Puliyankudi, often called the 'Lemon City of Tamil Nadu', lies in which district?
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Correct answer: C — Tenkasi
PIB: Puliyankudi, often referred to as the 'Lemon City of Tamil Nadu', lies in Tenkasi district.
When did the Puliyankudi lime officially receive its Geographical Indication (GI) tag?
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Correct answer: D — April 2025
PIB: the Puliyankudi lime officially received its GI tag in April 2025.
The first tranche of projects approved under the Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) in October 2025 comprised:
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Correct answer: D — 7 projects worth ₹5,532 crore
PIB: seven projects worth ₹5,532 crore were approved, to produce components worth ₹36,559 crore.
Under the first ECMS approvals, India will set up its first-ever manufacturing facility for which component material, used as the base for multi-layer PCBs?
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Correct answer: B — Copper Clad Laminate
PIB: for the first time, India will establish a Copper Clad Laminate (CCL) manufacturing facility; CCL is the base component for multi-layer PCBs and is currently imported.
Which state hosts five of the seven units approved in the first tranche of ECMS?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
PIB: the approved units are spread across Tamil Nadu (5), Andhra Pradesh (1) and Madhya Pradesh (1).
Who chaired the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) meeting on 25 October 2025 that reviewed preparedness for the impending cyclone in the Bay of Bengal?
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Correct answer: B — Cabinet Secretary Dr. T. V. Somanathan
PIB: Cabinet Secretary Dr. T. V. Somanathan chaired the NCMC meeting; the Union Home Secretary and NDMA officials attended.
Consider the following statements about the NCMC review of 25 October 2025: 1. Fishermen were advised not to venture into the sea off Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Yanam and Odisha from 26 to 29 October. 2. The Indian Coast Guard had shepherded over 900 ships to jetties and shores. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PIB release on the NCMC meeting.
The NCMC on 25 October 2025 reviewed cyclone preparedness of several state/UT governments. Which one of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: C — West Bengal
PIB: the Cabinet Secretary reviewed the preparedness of Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry. West Bengal was not part of the review.
According to Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan (October 2025), the Pradhan Mantri Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana integrates:
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Correct answer: B — 36 schemes of 11 central ministries
PIB: under PM-DDKY, 36 schemes of 11 central ministries are being integrated to deliver comprehensive benefits to farmers.
Which one of the following Tamil Nadu districts was NOT among those named as included under the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana during the minister's Vellore visit in October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Coimbatore
PIB: Ramanathapuram, Sivaganga, Thoothukudi and Virudhunagar districts of Tamil Nadu are included under PM-DDKY. Coimbatore was not named.
Where was the Election Commission's two-day Conference of Chief Electoral Officers on SIR preparedness held in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management, New Delhi
PIB (ECI): the two-day conference concluded at the India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
At the October 2025 CEOs' conference, the Election Commission held one-to-one interactions with CEOs of poll-bound states/UT. Which one of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka
PIB (ECI): the Commission interacted one-to-one with CEOs of Assam, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Kerala and West Bengal. Karnataka was not among them.
India's 7 nm processor announced in October 2025 is being developed by which institution?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
PIB backgrounder: the 7 nm processor is being developed by IIT Madras through its SHAKTI initiative.
Consider the following statements about the SHAKTI processor initiative: 1. It was started in 2013 and is based on an open-source instruction set architecture. 2. The 7 nm processor under it is mainly targeted at smartphones and consumer wearables. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB backgrounder: SHAKTI started in 2013 on an open-source ISA (RISC-V); the 7 nm processor targets server applications in financial services, communications, defence and strategic sectors.
Which port in Tamil Nadu was recognised as a Green Hydrogen Hub under the National Green Hydrogen Mission in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — V.O. Chidambaranar Port
PIB: MNRE recognised Deendayal (Gujarat), V.O. Chidambaranar (Tamil Nadu) and Paradip (Odisha) port authorities as Green Hydrogen Hubs.
Consider the following statements about the recognition of Green Hydrogen Hubs (October 2025): 1. Under Component B2 of the guidelines, MNRE provides direct financial assistance to the recognised hubs. 2. The revised guidelines for Hydrogen Valley Innovation Clusters and Green Hydrogen Hubs were issued on 27 June 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: under Component B2, MNRE may recognise hubs without direct financial assistance, enabling access to benefits under other schemes; the revised guidelines were issued on 27 June 2025.
CMC Vellore's Centre for Stem Cell Research recently completed India's first-in-human gene therapy trial for which disease?
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Correct answer: D — Hemophilia A
PIB: Dr Jitendra Singh lauded CSCR for completing India's first-in-human gene therapy trial for Hemophilia A, a bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of clotting Factor VIII.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Hemophilia A gene therapy at CMC Vellore used AAV vectors instead of lentiviral vectors. 2. According to Dr Jitendra Singh, India ranks 3rd in Asia-Pacific and 12th globally in biomanufacturing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: CSCR used lentiviral vectors instead of the commonly used AAV (the reverse of statement 1); the Minister said India ranks 3rd in Asia-Pacific and 12th globally in biomanufacturing.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four Pollution Response Centres established by the Indian Coast Guard?
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Correct answer: D — Kochi
PIB: to operationalise the NOSDCP, the ICG has established four Pollution Response Centres at Mumbai, Chennai, Port Blair and Vadinar.
Consider the following statements: 1. NATPOLREX-X, held off Chennai in October 2025, included the first-ever shoreline clean-up drill at Marina Beach. 2. The National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan (NOSDCP) was approved in 2003. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: a key highlight was the first-ever shoreline clean-up drill at Marina Beach; the NOSDCP, drafted by the ICG, was approved in 1993.
In the investigation following child deaths in Chhindwara (October 2025), the cough syrup 'Coldrif' was found to contain which substance beyond the permissible limit?
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Correct answer: B — Diethylene glycol (DEG)
PIB (MoHFW): of 10 samples analysed, 9 met quality standards, but the cough syrup 'Coldrif' contained DEG (diethylene glycol) beyond the permissible limit; Tamil Nadu FDA acted against the unit in Kancheepuram.
The 'Revised Schedule M', whose strict compliance the Union Health Secretary stressed in October 2025, deals with which of the following?
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Correct answer: D — Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) for drug manufacturing units
PIB (MoHFW): the DCGI reiterated that drug manufacturing units must strictly comply with the Revised Schedule M for Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP).
Consider the following statements about the Chhindwara cough syrup case (October 2025): 1. The cluster of cases and deaths was reported to IDSP, NCDC by the Metropolitan Surveillance Unit, Nagpur, set up under PM-ABHIM. 2. Risk-based inspections were initiated across 19 drug manufacturing units in six States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (MoHFW): the MSU Nagpur, established under PM-ABHIM, reported the cluster to IDSP, NCDC; Risk-Based Inspections have been initiated across 19 manufacturing units in six States.