State Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the total outlay of Semicon 2.0, approved by the Union Cabinet on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,27,500 crore
Semicon 2.0 has a total budget outlay of ₹1,27,500 crore.
On how many pillars is Semicon 2.0 built?
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Correct answer: A — Six
Semicon 2.0 has six pillars: design, machines and materials, fabs, ATMP/OSAT, R&D, and talent development.
According to the Semicon 2.0 Cabinet release, in which year is India's first semiconductor fab scheduled to be commissioned?
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Correct answer: D — 2028
The release states that the first fab is scheduled to be commissioned in 2028.
Consider the following statements about India's semiconductor programmes: 1. The Semicon India programme was approved by the Cabinet in December 2021 with an outlay of ₹76,000 crore. 2. The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) was set up under the 2021 programme to drive the sector. 3. Under ISM 1.0, twelve semiconductor manufacturing units have been approved. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: the Cabinet approved the ₹76,000-crore programme and set up ISM on 15 December 2021, and twelve units have been approved under ISM 1.0.
In which district of Gujarat will the greenfield shipbuilding cluster approved under SbDS on 15 July 2026 come up?
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Correct answer: C — Porbandar
The greenfield cluster will come up at Kuchhadi in Porbandar district; the ship repair facility is at Vadinar in the Gulf of Kutch.
Which shipyard will jointly develop the ₹1,570-crore ship repair facility at Vadinar with Deendayal Port Authority?
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Correct answer: B — Cochin Shipyard Ltd
The Vadinar facility is to be developed jointly by Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL) and Deendayal Port Authority (DPA).
Consider the following statements about the Shipbuilding Development Scheme (SbDS): 1. SbDS has a budgetary outlay of ₹19,989 crore. 2. SbDS aims to expand domestic shipbuilding capacity to 4.5 million gross tonnage annually. 3. SbDS was approved as part of a ₹69,725-crore maritime package in September 2025. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: the Cabinet approved SbDS (₹19,989 crore, target 4.5 million GT a year) within the ₹69,725-crore package on 24 September 2025.
How many skill categories are covered by the IndiaSkills Competition 2026–27 guidelines unveiled on World Youth Skills Day 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 63
The guidelines cover 63 industry-relevant skill categories.
What is the approximate size of the proposed Skills Outcomes Fund announced by MSDE on World Youth Skills Day 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹530 crore
MSDE proposed a Skills Outcomes Fund of about ₹530 crore combining government, CSR and philanthropic capital.
What Return on Equity (RoE) band does NIPU-2026 introduce for new urea plants?
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Correct answer: D — 12% to 16%
NIPU-2026 introduces a viable RoE band with a floor of 12% and a ceiling of 16%.
Which body approved the National Investment Policy for Urea-2026 (NIPU-2026) on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
The CCEA chaired by the Prime Minister approved NIPU-2026 on the proposal of the Department of Fertilizers.
Consider the following statements about urea investment policies: 1. Under the New Investment Policy (NIP)-2012, six new urea units were set up. 2. The investment window under NIP-2012 expired in October 2019. 3. India currently has 33 operational urea manufacturing units. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct as per the Department of Fertilizers' Cabinet release.
What is the budgetary outlay of the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS) approved on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹62,500 crore
The Cabinet approved MPMS with a budgetary outlay of ₹62,500 crore.
What additional incentive does MPMS provide on eligible sales for design and R&D to build Indian brands?
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Correct answer: C — 3%
MPMS gives an additional 3% incentive on eligible sales for design and R&D of the product to build Indian brands.
Consider the following statements about the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS): 1. The scheme runs from FY 2026-27 to FY 2030-31. 2. India is the world's second-largest mobile phone manufacturer by volume. 3. The scheme gives a flat 10% incentive on all eligible sales. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the incentive is at differentiated rates of 2.25% to 5%, with extra incentives for domestic sourcing and design.
With the eighth tranche launched on 15 July 2026, how many critical mineral blocks have been offered in total so far?
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Correct answer: C — 88
The eighth tranche takes the total number of critical mineral blocks offered to 88, of which 56 have been auctioned.
How many critical and strategic mineral blocks are on offer in the eighth tranche of auctions launched on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 20
The eighth tranche comprises 20 critical and strategic mineral blocks across nine States.
The 'Vidhayi Gaurav Yatra' conclave addressed by the Vice-President on 15 July 2026 marked how many years of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
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Correct answer: D — 75 years
The conclave was part of the 75th-year celebrations of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.
Who addressed the valedictory session of the Vidhayi Gaurav Yatra at the Rajasthan Vidhan Sabha on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan
Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan addressed the valedictory session in Jaipur.
Which two rail projects in Odisha and Jharkhand were approved by the CCEA on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Paradeep–Haridaspur doubling and Rajkharsawan–Dangoaposi 4th line
The CCEA approved Paradeep–Haridaspur doubling and the Rajkharsawan–Dangoaposi 4th line, about ₹3,907 crore.
About how much will the two Odisha–Jharkhand multitracking projects approved on 15 July 2026 add to the Indian Railways network?
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Correct answer: D — 145 km
The two projects will increase the existing Indian Railways network by about 145 km.
Along which river is the 43.218-km elevated corridor approved on 15 July 2026 to decongest Varanasi?
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Correct answer: B — Varuna
The corridor runs along the River Varuna, connecting NH-31 and the Varanasi Ring Road.
Under which model will the two Varanasi elevated corridors approved on 15 July 2026 be built?
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Correct answer: C — Hybrid Annuity Model
Both corridors will be implemented under the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM).
What was India's overall unemployment rate (15+ years) in June 2026 as per the PLFS monthly bulletin?
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Correct answer: A — 5.5%
The PLFS June 2026 bulletin put the overall unemployment rate at 5.5%.
What was the female labour force participation rate (15+ years) in June 2026 as per PLFS?
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Correct answer: D — 32.7%
Female LFPR was 32.7% in June 2026, 0.7 percentage points above June 2025 (32.0%).
What is the base year of the trial Index of Services Production (ISP) first released by MoSPI in July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 2024-25
The sub-sectoral trial ISP has base year 2024-25.
The first trial Index of Services Production released in July 2026 covers how many sub-sectors?
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Correct answer: C — 19
The ISP was released for 19 sub-sectors covering about 60% of the services sector.
Consider the following statements about the Index of Services Production (ISP): 1. The 19 sub-sectors cover about 60% of the services sector. 2. Subsequent ISPs will be released on the 29th of every month. 3. The Technical Advisory Committee on ISP was constituted in May 2025. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: ~60% coverage, release on the 29th of each month, and TAC-ISP constituted in May 2025 (report released 7 July 2026).
Where is Tribhuvan Sahkari University, which held its first convocation on 14 July 2026, located?
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Correct answer: B — Anand
The first convocation was held at Anand, Gujarat.
How many students of the first batch received graduate degrees at the first convocation of Tribhuvan Sahkari University?
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Correct answer: C — 302
302 students received graduate degrees and 2 received PhD degrees.
Consider the following statements about Tribhuvan Sahkari University: 1. It is built on the legacy of the Institute of Rural Management Anand (IRMA). 2. IRMA was accorded the status of an Institution of National Importance in 2025. 3. Tribhuvandas Patel set up the Kheda District Cooperative Milk Producers' Union in 1946. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct, as stated by the Ministry of Cooperation: the university rests on IRMA, IRMA became an INI in 2025, and Tribhuvandas Patel founded the Kheda union in 1946, which grew into Amul.
Where is the North Eastern Space Applications Centre (NESAC) located?
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Correct answer: D — Umiam, Meghalaya
Jitendra Singh visited NESAC at Umiam, Meghalaya.
Geospatial mapping of which international border is being carried out by NESAC, as stated by Jitendra Singh in July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — India–Myanmar
NESAC is contributing to geospatial mapping of the India–Myanmar border and inter-State boundaries in the Northeast.
NESAC was set up in September 2000 as a joint initiative of the Department of Space and which body?
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Correct answer: C — North Eastern Council
NESAC is a joint initiative of the Department of Space (DOS) and the North Eastern Council (NEC), and came into being on 5 September 2000.
Which city hosted the 15th BRICS Trade Union Forum Summit in July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Hyderabad
Mansukh Mandaviya inaugurated the 15th BRICS TUF Summit in Hyderabad on 14 July 2026.
According to the Labour Minister at the BRICS Trade Union Forum, India's four Labour Codes consolidated how many labour laws?
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Correct answer: D — 29
The four Labour Codes consolidated 29 labour laws into a simplified framework.
Consider the following statements about BRICS labour meetings in Hyderabad in July 2026: 1. The BRICS Labour and Employment Ministers' Meeting was held on 15–16 July 2026. 2. The meeting was preceded by the Third BRICS Employment Working Group meeting. 3. The meetings were held under Brazil's BRICS Chairship. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: India holds the BRICS Chairship in 2026, with the theme 'Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability'.
Who was the West Bengal Chief Minister at the review meeting chaired by Shivraj Singh Chouhan in Kolkata on 14 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Suvendu Adhikari
The meeting was attended by Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari, members of the State Cabinet and officials.
How much did the Centre approve for rural development in West Bengal, as announced at the 14 July 2026 Kolkata review?
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Correct answer: D — ₹8,508 crore
Over ₹8,508 crore was approved by the Centre; with the State share, more than ₹12,064 crore will flow through Panchayats.
What is the target of the Railways' 'Reform Express' initiative announced by Ashwini Vaishnaw?
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Correct answer: A — 52 reforms in 52 weeks
The Ministry's target is 52 reforms in 52 weeks; after 14 July 2026 the total stood at 17.
After the eight reforms announced on 14 July 2026, how many reforms had been implemented under 'Reform Express'?
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Correct answer: C — 17
Eight new reforms took the total under Reform Express to 17.
According to the Railways, about what share of India's annual fly ash generation did Indian Railways transport in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — About 4%
Railways moved about 13 million tonnes of the roughly 340 million tonnes generated, nearly 4%.
Where does the 'Shaurya Vijay Yatra' flagged off on 14 July 2026 culminate?
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Correct answer: A — Kargil War Memorial, Dras
The expedition runs from the National War Memorial, New Delhi to the Kargil War Memorial in Dras, Ladakh.
What is the motto of the 'Shaurya Vijay Yatra' motorcycle expedition for Kargil Vijay Diwas 2026?
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Correct answer: C — One Ride, One Nation, One Salute
The motto of the 13-day, 1,900 km expedition is 'One Ride, One Nation, One Salute'.
The first round of India–Maldives FTA negotiations in 2026 was held in which mode?
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Correct answer: B — Virtual mode
The first round was held in virtual mode from 29 June to 7 July 2026.
Who led India's negotiating team in the first round of India–Maldives FTA negotiations?
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Correct answer: D — Ujjwal Kumar Ghosh
Chief Negotiator Ujjwal Kumar Ghosh, Joint Secretary, Department of Commerce, led India; Yusuf Riza led the Maldives.
Consider the following statements about India–Maldives economic ties as of July 2026: 1. India is the second-largest trading partner of the Maldives. 2. Bilateral trade in 2025–26 was about USD 771.76 million. 3. The two countries are marking 50 years of diplomatic relations. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: India and the Maldives are commemorating 60 years of diplomatic relations.
What was the all-India WPI inflation rate (year-on-year) for June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 9.87%
WPI inflation was 9.87% in June 2026, up from 9.68% in May 2026.
Which major group of the WPI recorded the highest year-on-year inflation in June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Fuel and Power
Fuel and Power inflation was 27.41%, against 7.0% for Primary Articles and 7.48% for Manufactured Products.
Consider the following statements about the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) released in July 2026: 1. The current WPI series has base year 2022-23. 2. Provisional WPI for a month is released on the 14th of the following month. 3. The WPI Food Index has a weight of about 24.99%. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: base 2022-23, release on the 14th of the next month (or next working day), and Food Index weight 24.99%.
By what margin did India beat England in the first women's Test at Lord's in July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 270 runs
India won the one-off Test at Lord's by 270 runs on 13 July 2026.
Who was named Player of the Match in India's Test win over England at Lord's in July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Kranti Gaud
Kranti Gaud was Player of the Match for 5-37 and 2-54.
Consider the following statements about the India–England women's Test at Lord's in July 2026: 1. It was the first women's Test match ever played at Lord's. 2. Yastika Bhatia scored a century in India's second innings. 3. It was the first match of a three-Test series. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (Bhatia made 113). Statement 3 is wrong: it was a one-off Test.
What was India's CPI-based retail inflation (provisional) for June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 4.38%
Retail inflation was 4.38% in June 2026, up from 3.93% in May.
What was the food inflation based on the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) in June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 5.32%
CFPI-based food inflation was 5.32% in June 2026, against 4.78% in May.
Consider the following statements about the CPI data for June 2026: 1. The CPI series used has base year 2024=100. 2. Rural inflation was higher than urban inflation. 3. Housing inflation was above headline inflation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (rural 4.74% vs urban 3.92%). Statement 3 is wrong: housing inflation was 2.10%, below the headline 4.38%.
NIDAR 2.0, launched by MeitY in July 2026, is a national innovation challenge in which field?
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Correct answer: B — Drone application and research
NIDAR stands for National Innovation Challenge for Drone Application and Research.
The VEGA processor, around which NIDAR 2.0 teams must design a flight controller, is based on which architecture and developed by which body?
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Correct answer: C — RISC-V architecture; C-DAC
VEGA is a family of indigenous microprocessors designed by C-DAC under MeitY's Microprocessor Development Programme, based on the open-standard RISC-V architecture.
In July 2026, the Delhi Government renamed its proposed Mahila Samriddhi Yojana as what?
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Correct answer: A — Delhi Lakshmi Yojana
The scheme was renamed Delhi Lakshmi Yojana on 13 July 2026; the other names belong to schemes of other states.
How much monthly assistance will eligible women receive under the Delhi Lakshmi Yojana?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2,500
Eligible women aged 21 to 60 will receive ₹2,500 a month.
Consider the following statements about the eligibility rules of the Delhi Lakshmi Yojana announced in July 2026: 1. The family's annual income must not exceed ₹2.5 lakh. 2. All women aged 21 to 60 in a family can benefit. 3. The woman or her family must have lived in Delhi for at least 10 years. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: only one woman per family, the eldest eligible member, can benefit.
What were India's estimated total exports (merchandise and services) in April–June 2026-27?
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Correct answer: C — US$ 232.73 billion
Total exports were estimated at US$ 232.73 billion, up 11.37% from US$ 208.98 billion.
Which merchandise export group recorded the highest year-on-year growth in June 2026 among the major drivers named by the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Gems & Jewellery
Gems & Jewellery grew 34.64%, ahead of engineering goods (20.74%), electronic goods (18.93%) and rice (16.48%).
Where was the 56th International Physics Olympiad (IPhO) 2026 held?
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Correct answer: A — Bucaramanga, Colombia
The 56th IPhO 2026 was held in Bucaramanga, Colombia.
How many gold medals did the Indian contingent win at the 56th International Physics Olympiad 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Five
All five members of the Indian contingent won gold medals.
What penalty did the Competition Commission of India impose on HP India by its order dated 13 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹11.98 crore
CCI imposed ₹11.98 crore on HP India and about ₹2.30 crore combined on sixteen resellers.
The CCI case against HP India and its resellers arose from a lesser penalty application filed by HP India under which section of the Competition Act, 2002?
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Correct answer: B — Section 46
HP India filed a lesser penalty (leniency) application under Section 46; the penalty itself was imposed under Section 27 for violating Section 3(3)(d) read with 3(1).
Near which town in Rajasthan did DRI seize about 11 kg of elephant ivory on 10 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Sujangarh
DRI intercepted the ivory trade near Sujangarh, Rajasthan, recovering about 11 kg of elephant ivory.
How many endangered or protected wild animals did DRI report seizing in the pan-India operations announced on 13 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 440
DRI seized 440 endangered/protected animals and about 15 kg of ivory, and arrested 33 persons.
Consider the following statements about the legal protection of the Indian elephant, as cited by DRI: 1. The Indian elephant is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 2. Commercial trade in ivory is prohibited in India in line with CITES obligations. 3. Import and export of ivory are prohibited under the Foreign Trade Policy. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as stated in the DRI release: Schedule I listing, the CITES-linked ban on commercial ivory trade, and the Foreign Trade Policy ban on ivory import and export.
Where was the 8th India–Japan Defence Policy Dialogue held on 13 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Tokyo
The 8th Defence Policy Dialogue was held in Tokyo, Japan.
Who led the Indian delegation at the 8th India–Japan Defence Policy Dialogue?
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Correct answer: B — Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh
Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh led India; Vice Minister of Defence for International Affairs Kano Koji led Japan.
The 8th India–Japan Defence Policy Dialogue reaffirmed the commitment to strengthening which framework of India–Japan relations?
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Correct answer: A — Special Strategic and Global Partnership
Both sides reaffirmed the India–Japan Special Strategic and Global Partnership and discussed the forthcoming 2+2 meeting.
On which date did India observe one day of State Mourning for Qatar's Father Amir Sheikh Hamad bin Khalifa Al Thani?
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Correct answer: B — 13 July 2026
Sheikh Hamad passed away on 12 July 2026; India declared State Mourning on 13 July 2026.
Sheikh Hamad bin Khalifa Al Thani, who passed away in July 2026, ruled Qatar during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1995–2013
He assumed power on 27 June 1995 and handed over to Sheikh Tamim on 25 June 2013.
To whom did Sheikh Hamad bin Khalifa Al Thani hand over Qatar's leadership in 2013?
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Correct answer: A — His son Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani
In 2013 he voluntarily handed power to his son and heir apparent, Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani, the current Amir.
Consider the following statements about India's State Mourning for Sheikh Hamad bin Khalifa Al Thani: 1. The National Flag was flown at half-mast throughout India on the day of mourning. 2. There was no official entertainment on that day. 3. The State Mourning lasted three days. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Ministry of Home Affairs declared one day of State Mourning, on 13 July 2026.
Who won the Wimbledon 2026 men's singles title?
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Correct answer: C — Jannik Sinner
Jannik Sinner beat Alexander Zverev in the final on 12 July 2026.
Whom did Jannik Sinner defeat in the Wimbledon 2026 men's singles final?
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Correct answer: A — Alexander Zverev
Sinner beat Germany's Alexander Zverev 6-7 (7), 7-6 (2), 6-3, 6-4.
The Wimbledon 2026 title was which Grand Slam title of Jannik Sinner's career?
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Correct answer: D — Fifth
The Wimbledon 2026 win was Sinner's fifth Grand Slam title.
Consider the following statements about the Wimbledon 2026 men's singles final: 1. Jannik Sinner lost the first set on a tie-break. 2. Sinner retained the Wimbledon title he first won in 2025. 3. The final went to five sets. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Sinner won in four sets, 6-7 (7), 7-6 (2), 6-3, 6-4.