RRB Group D Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
In his talks with Wang Yi on 18 August 2025, S. Jaishankar said India–China ties must be guided by the 'three mutuals'. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: D — Mutual trust
Jaishankar listed the three mutuals as mutual respect, mutual sensitivity and mutual interest; mutual trust was not one of them.
India and China agreed during Wang Yi's August 2025 visit to reopen border trade through three designated points. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: B — Bum La
The reported outcomes named Lipulekh, Shipki La and Nathu La as the three designated points for reopening border trade; Bum La was not among them.
S. Jaishankar described Wang Yi's August 2025 visit as the first by a Chinese Minister since the two countries' leaders met at which place?
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Correct answer: A — Kazan, October 2024
In his opening remarks, Jaishankar said this was the first visit by a Chinese Minister since the leaders met in Kazan in October 2024.
Consider the following statements about the Jaishankar–Wang Yi talks and the outcomes of Wang Yi's visit in August 2025: 1. Jaishankar said differences must not become disputes, nor competition conflict. 2. The two sides agreed to resume direct flights from 1 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: it is part of Jaishankar's opening remarks. Statement 2 is incorrect: the sides agreed to resume direct flights at the earliest and finalise an updated Air Services Agreement, but no date was given for resumption.
What was the unemployment rate (Current Weekly Status, age 15 and above) for April–June 2025 as per the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin released on 18 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5.4%
The Unemployment Rate in CWS for persons aged 15 years and above was 5.4% during April–June 2025; rural was 4.8% and urban 6.8%.
About how many persons aged 15 and above were employed in India during April–June 2025, according to the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin?
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Correct answer: C — 56.4 crore
On average, 56.4 crore persons aged 15 years and above were employed in the country during the April–June 2025 quarter, of whom 39.7 crore were men.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS bulletins released on 18 August 2025: 1. The April–June 2025 Quarterly Bulletin is the first in the series to provide estimates for both rural and urban areas. 2. The monthly unemployment rate rose to 5.6% in July 2025 from 5.2% in June 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: earlier quarterly bulletins covered only urban areas, and the April–June 2025 bulletin is the first to cover both. Statement 2 is incorrect: the unemployment rate declined to 5.2% in July 2025 from 5.6% in June 2025.
SLINEX-25, which concluded at Colombo on 18 August 2025, was which edition of the India–Sri Lanka bilateral naval exercise?
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Correct answer: C — 12th
The 12th edition of the India–Sri Lanka bilateral naval exercise SLINEX-25 concluded at Colombo on 18 August 2025.
Which Indian naval ships took part in SLINEX-25?
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Correct answer: A — INS Jyoti and INS Rana
Indian naval ships INS Jyoti and INS Rana from the Eastern Fleet took part, along with SLNS Sayura and SLNS Vijayabahu of Sri Lanka.
The Indian Ports Bill, 2025, passed by the Rajya Sabha on 18 August 2025, replaces which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Ports Act, 1908
The Indian Ports Bill, 2025 is designed to replace the Indian Ports Act, 1908, ending more than a century of colonial-era regulation.
Which statutory consultative body does the Indian Ports Bill, 2025 establish to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States?
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Correct answer: C — Maritime State Development Council
The Bill establishes the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) as a statutory consultative body to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States; it will prepare a National Perspective Plan.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Ports Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates compliance with international conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management. 2. It creates Dispute Resolution Committees for sector-specific redressal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the legislation mandates compliance with conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management and creates Dispute Resolution Committees for timely sector-specific redressal.
In his phone call with PM Modi on 18 August 2025, President Putin shared his assessment of his meeting with President Trump held where?
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Correct answer: D — Alaska
President Putin shared his assessment of his meeting with US President Donald Trump in Alaska the previous week.
During the Modi–Putin call of 18 August 2025, the leaders discussed strengthening which partnership between India and Russia?
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Correct answer: B — Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership
The two leaders touched upon bilateral cooperation with a view to further strengthen the Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership between India and Russia.
What is the outlay of the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, whose registration portal went live in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹99,446 crore
The Cabinet approved the Employment Linked Incentive Scheme, named Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore.
Benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana apply to jobs created during which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1 August 2025 to 31 July 2027
The benefits of the scheme are applicable to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana: 1. Newly employed youth can receive up to ₹15,000 in a single instalment paid by employers. 2. Employers can receive up to ₹3,000 per month per new employee. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the incentive of up to ₹15,000 to newly employed youth is paid in two instalments through DBT using the Aadhaar Bridge Payment System. Statement 2 is correct: employers can get up to ₹3,000 per month per new employee.
Which State recorded the highest disposal rate of consumer cases in July 2025, at 277%?
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Correct answer: D — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu recorded 277%, followed by Rajasthan at 214% and Telangana at 158%; the NCDRC itself achieved 122%.
e-Jagriti, the unified consumer grievance redressal platform, was launched on which date?
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Correct answer: A — 1 January 2025
The Department of Consumer Affairs launched e-Jagriti on 1 January 2025 as a next-generation unified digital platform for consumer grievance redressal.
Consider the following statements about consumer case disposal and e-Jagriti as reported in August 2025: 1. A disposal rate above 100% means more cases were resolved than were filed in the period. 2. e-Jagriti has been made operational only at the NCDRC so far, not in State commissions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a disposal rate of over 100% indicates that the number of cases resolved exceeded the number filed. Statement 2 is incorrect: e-Jagriti is operational at the NCDRC and across all 36 States and Union Territories.
Shubhanshu Shukla, who returned to India on 17 August 2025, visited the International Space Station as part of which mission?
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Correct answer: D — Axiom-4
Axiom-4, a private space mission that lifted off from Florida on 25 June 2025.
Which Gaganyaan astronaut, Shubhanshu Shukla's backup for the Axiom-4 mission, also returned to India with him on 17 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair
Group Captain Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair, the designated backup for the mission.
Consider the following statements about Shubhanshu Shukla's return to India on 17 August 2025: 1. The Axiom-4 mission had lifted off from Florida on 25 June 2025. 2. He was received at Delhi airport by ISRO Chairman S. Somanath. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ISRO Chairman V. Narayanan received him at the airport, along with Jitendra Singh and Rekha Gupta.
C.P. Radhakrishnan, named the NDA's Vice-Presidential candidate on 17 August 2025, was serving as the Governor of which State at the time?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
Amit Shah congratulated Governor of Maharashtra C.P. Radhakrishnan on being nominated as the NDA's candidate for the Vice-Presidential election.
Which body's decision did Amit Shah credit for the nomination of C.P. Radhakrishnan as the NDA's Vice-Presidential candidate?
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Correct answer: A — The party Parliamentary Board
Amit Shah expressed gratitude to Prime Minister Narendra Modi and all members of the party Parliamentary Board for this decision.
Consider the following statements about the reactions to C.P. Radhakrishnan's nomination as NDA Vice-Presidential candidate on 17 August 2025: 1. The Prime Minister said Radhakrishnan had done extensive grassroots work in Kerala. 2. Amit Shah said Radhakrishnan's experience would enhance the prestige of the Upper House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The Prime Minister said Radhakrishnan had done extensive work at the grassroots in Tamil Nadu.
INS Tamal carried out a Passage Exercise with which Italian Navy ship before entering Naples harbour in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ITS Trieste
INS Tamal participated in a PASSEX with ITS Trieste, the recently commissioned Landing Helicopter Dock of the Italian Navy, before entering harbour at Naples.
During INS Tamal's Naples port call, the two sides discussed initiatives under which India–Italy framework?
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029
The Commanding Officer and Italian officials discussed various initiatives under the India–Italy Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029.
As referred to during INS Tamal's port call at Naples in August 2025, India and Italy have had a Strategic Partnership since which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2023
2023; the two sides also discussed initiatives under the India–Italy Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029.
Tanya Hemanth won the Saipan International 2025 badminton title in August 2025. Saipan is part of which territory?
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Correct answer: A — Northern Mariana Islands
Northern Mariana Islands; the final was played at the Oleai Sports Complex.
The Saipan International 2025, won by Tanya Hemanth, was a BWF trial event for an experimental scoring system in which each game is played to how many points?
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Correct answer: C — 15
15 points, under the experimental 3x15 system, instead of the conventional 21.
At which venue did Donald Trump and Vladimir Putin hold their summit in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson, Anchorage
AP and Reuters reported that the summit took place at Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson in Anchorage, Alaska.
The Trump–Putin summit in Alaska in August 2025 was the two leaders' first meeting since which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2019
Reuters reported that the Alaska summit was the first meeting between Trump and Putin since 2019.
Consider the following statements about the Trump–Putin summit in Alaska in August 2025: 1. The two leaders announced a ceasefire agreement in Ukraine at the end of the talks. 2. Putin suggested that a next meeting could be held in Moscow. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: no agreement to end the war in Ukraine was announced, and Trump said there was no deal until there is a deal. Statement 2 is correct: Putin suggested that a meeting in Moscow could be next.
Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 was which edition of the campaign?
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Correct answer: C — Fourth
Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 is the 4th edition of the nationwide movement launched in 2022 as part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
Which new component was introduced in Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 to enable participation of people constrained by age or limited access to technology?
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Correct answer: A — Tiranga Volunteer
The Tiranga Volunteer is a new component introduced this year; more than 9 lakh volunteers came forward during Har Ghar Tiranga 2025.
According to the Ministry of Culture, about how many selfies with the national flag were uploaded during Har Ghar Tiranga 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 7.50 crore
7.50 crore selfies were uploaded during the campaign, which ran from 2 to 15 August 2025.
By which year did the Prime Minister say important strategic and civilian places would get complete security cover under Mission Sudarshan Chakra?
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Correct answer: B — 2035
The Prime Minister said that in the coming 10 years, by 2035, all important places of the nation, strategic as well as civilian, would be given complete security cover through new platforms of technology.
The name of Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced on 15 August 2025, draws inspiration from which figure?
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Correct answer: D — Lord Shri Krishna
The Prime Minister said the country had chosen the path of the Sudarshan Chakra taking inspiration from Lord Shri Krishna.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra: 1. Its security cover is limited to military installations and excludes civilian sites. 2. The Prime Minister described it as a powerful weapon system that will neutralise enemy attacks and also hit back at the enemy. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Prime Minister said the cover would include strategic as well as civilian areas such as hospitals, railways and centres of faith. Statement 2 is correct: he described the mission as a powerful weapon system that will not only neutralise the enemy's attack but also hit back many times more.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra as described in the 2025 Independence Day address: 1. The mission aims to develop a system for targeted precise action. 2. The mission is to be completed over 25 years, by the centenary of Independence in 2047. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Prime Minister said the country would move towards developing a system for targeted precise action through Sudarshan Chakra. Statement 2 is incorrect: the timeline stated was the coming 10 years, till 2035.
In which event did Anandkumar Velkumar win bronze at the World Games 2025 on 15 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Men's 1000m sprint, inline speed skating
Men's 1000m sprint, inline speed skating track event, clocking 1:22.482.
The World Games 2025, where Anandkumar Velkumar won India's first roller skating medal at the Games, were held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Chengdu
Chengdu, China.
Consider the following statements about Anandkumar Velkumar's bronze at the World Games 2025: 1. It was India's first medal in roller skating at the World Games. 2. It took India's tally at the edition to three medals, India's highest in a single edition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India's tally became one silver and two bronze.
What is the one-time fee for the FASTag Annual Pass implemented by NHAI from 15 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹3,000
The FASTag Annual Pass requires a one-time fee payment of ₹3,000 for one-year validity or 200 toll plaza crossings.
Consider the following statements about the FASTag Annual Pass: 1. It is applicable to all commercial vehicles with a valid FASTag. 2. It is activated within two hours of payment through the Rajmargyatra app or the NHAI website. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the pass is applicable to all non-commercial vehicles with a valid FASTag. Statement 2 is correct: it gets activated within two hours of the one-time fee payment through the Rajmargyatra app or NHAI website.
At approximately how many toll plazas was the FASTag Annual Pass implemented on 15 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — About 1,150
NHAI implemented the FASTag Annual Pass from 15 August 2025 at about 1,150 toll plazas on National Highways and Expressways.
To what level did S&P Global Ratings upgrade India's long-term sovereign credit rating on 14 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — BBB
S&P upgraded India's long-term sovereign credit rating to 'BBB' from 'BBB-', with a Stable outlook.
The S&P upgrade of India's sovereign rating in August 2025 was its first upgrade of India in how many years?
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Correct answer: A — 18
The Ministry of Finance said this was India's first sovereign upgrade by S&P in 18 years, the previous one being in 2007.
Consider the following statements about S&P's rating action on India in August 2025: 1. S&P assigned a Positive outlook along with the upgrade. 2. India's short-term rating was lowered from 'A-2' to 'A-3'. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. The upgrade came with a Stable outlook, and the short-term rating was raised to 'A-2' from 'A-3'.
Consider the following statements about S&P's assessment of India in August 2025: 1. S&P's previous upgrade of India, in 2007, had elevated India to investment grade at 'BBB-'. 2. S&P projected India's GDP growth at 6.5% in FY26. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The previous upgrade in 2007 took India to investment grade at 'BBB-', and S&P projected GDP growth of 6.5% in FY26.
How many Kirti Chakras were approved by the President on the eve of Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 4
The President approved 4 Kirti Chakras among the 127 Gallantry awards on the eve of Independence Day 2025.
How many Gallantry awards in total did the President approve for Armed Forces and CAPF personnel on the eve of Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 127
The President approved 127 Gallantry awards and 40 Distinguished Service awards on the eve of Independence Day 2025.
Consider the following statements about the defence awards approved on the eve of Independence Day 2025: 1. Vir Chakra awardees included Group Captains of the Indian Air Force. 2. The largest share of the 290 Mention-in-Despatches went to the Indian Army. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Group Captains Ranjeet Singh Sidhu, Manish Arora, Animesh Patni and Kunal Kalra of the IAF were among the Vir Chakra awardees. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Indian Air Force received 167 of the 290 Mention-in-Despatches, against 115 for the Army.
Lieutenant Shashank Tiwari of 1 Sikkim Scouts was approved for which award on the eve of Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Kirti Chakra
Lieutenant Shashank Tiwari of The Army Service Corps, 1 Sikkim Scouts, was one of the four Kirti Chakra awardees.
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — -0.58%
The annual rate of inflation based on the all-India WPI was -0.58% (provisional) for July 2025, against -0.13% in June 2025.
Consider the following statements about WPI data for July 2025: 1. Inflation in manufactured products was negative. 2. The WPI Food Index recorded negative inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: manufactured products recorded inflation of 2.05%. Statement 2 is correct: the WPI Food Index was at -2.15%.
How many personnel of Police, Fire, Home Guard & Civil Defence and Correctional Services were awarded gallantry and service medals on Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1,090
A total of 1,090 personnel of Police, Fire, Home Guard & Civil Defence and Correctional Services were awarded Gallantry and Service Medals on Independence Day 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Medals for Gallantry announced by the MHA for Independence Day 2025: 1. More than half of the 233 Medals for Gallantry went to personnel from the Jammu & Kashmir region. 2. No Fire Service personnel received a Medal for Gallantry. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: 152 of the 233 Medals for Gallantry went to personnel from the Jammu & Kashmir region. Statement 2 is incorrect: 6 Fire Service personnel received the Medal for Gallantry.
What GDP growth rate for the last financial year did President Droupadi Murmu cite in her address on the eve of the 79th Independence Day?
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Correct answer: B — 6.5%
In her address, the President noted GDP growth of 6.5% in the last financial year and said India was the fastest-growing major economy.
Consider the following statements about President Droupadi Murmu's address on the eve of the 79th Independence Day: 1. She described justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the four pillars of the Constitution. 2. She referred to Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas observed on 14 August. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The President described justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the four pillars of the Constitution and referred to Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas.
The year 2025 marks how many years of the India–Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA)?
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Correct answer: C — 20
The India–Singapore CECA was signed in 2005, so 2025 marks 20 years of the agreement along with 60 years of diplomatic relations.
Consider the following statements about India–Singapore economic ties, as noted at the 4th JWGTI in August 2025: 1. Singapore is India's largest trading partner in ASEAN. 2. Singapore is India's largest source of FDI. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Singapore is India's largest trading partner in ASEAN, with trade of USD 34.26 billion in 2024–25. Statement 2 is incorrect: Singapore is India's second-largest source of FDI.
In which year was 14 August declared as Partition Horrors Remembrance Day, to be observed every year?
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Correct answer: C — 2021
The Prime Minister declared on 14 August 2021 that 14 August would be observed every year as Partition Horrors Remembrance Day.
Partition Horrors Remembrance Day, observed on 14 August, is known in Hindi as:
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Correct answer: D — Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas
The day is called Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas (विभाजन विभीषिका स्मृति दिवस) in Hindi, as stated in the 2021 declaration.
In which category did Bhavina Patel win gold at the ITTF World Para Elite event in Spokane in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Women's Singles Class 4–5
Bhavina Patel clinched the gold medal in the Women's Singles Class 4–5 category at the ITTF World Para Elite event held from 9 to 13 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about Bhavina Patel's performances in Spokane in August 2025: 1. She won silver in the same category at the ITTF World Para Future event held days earlier. 2. The results lifted her to No. 1 in the ITTF World Para rankings for Women's Singles Classes 1 to 5. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Bhavina Patel won silver at the ITTF World Para Future event from 6 to 8 August and, after her gold at the World Para Elite event, rose to No. 1 in Women's Singles Classes 1 to 5.
Bhavina Patel, who rose to world No. 1 in the ITTF World Para rankings in August 2025, works as an Assistant Director with which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)
Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), at its Regional Office in Ahmedabad.
Who led the Singapore ministerial delegation that called on President Droupadi Murmu on 13 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gan Kim Yong
The delegation was led by Gan Kim Yong, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister for Trade and Industry of Singapore, who was in Delhi for the third ISMR.
The Singapore delegation that met the President on 13 August 2025 was in Delhi for which edition of the India–Singapore Ministerial Roundtable?
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Correct answer: C — Third
The delegation was in Delhi for the third meeting of the India–Singapore Ministerial Roundtable (ISMR).
As recalled when the Singapore delegation called on President Murmu on 13 August 2025, the year 2025 marks how many years of diplomatic relations between India and Singapore?
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Correct answer: B — 60
60 years; President Tharman Shanmugaratnam made a State Visit to India earlier in 2025.
Which body issued the Manual for Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity on 13 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) issued the Manual for Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity, the country's first standardised framework of its kind.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's digital connectivity rating manual of August 2025: 1. It was developed under the Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024. 2. TRAI noted that less than half of mobile data is consumed indoors. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the manual was developed under the Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: TRAI noted that more than 80% of mobile data is consumed indoors.
Who was the Chairman of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) when it issued the Manual for Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Anil Kumar Lahoti
Anil Kumar Lahoti.
What solar PV module manufacturing capacity under ALMM did India reach, as announced on 13 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 100 GW
MNRE announced that India has achieved 100 GW of solar PV module manufacturing capacity enlisted under the Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM).
Consider the following statements about India's solar module manufacturing milestone of August 2025: 1. The ALMM Order was issued by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy in 2019. 2. India's solar module manufacturing capacity was 2.3 GW in 2014. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. MNRE issued the ALMM Order on 2 January 2019, and solar module manufacturing capacity has risen from 2.3 GW in 2014 to 100 GW.
While announcing the 100 GW solar module milestone, the Minister linked it to India's target of how much non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030?
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Correct answer: D — 500 GW
Union Minister Pralhad Joshi said the achievement strengthens India's path towards the target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030.
What was India's year-on-year CPI headline inflation for July 2025 (provisional), as released on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1.55%
MoSPI data showed headline CPI inflation of 1.55% (provisional) for July 2025, 55 basis points lower than June 2025.
The July 2025 headline CPI inflation was the lowest year-on-year inflation since which month?
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Correct answer: C — June 2017
The 1.55% headline inflation for July 2025 was the lowest year-on-year inflation since June 2017; January 2019 is the reference point for food inflation.
Consider the following statements about India's CPI data for July 2025: 1. Food inflation measured by the CFPI was negative. 2. Rural inflation was higher than urban inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: CFPI-based food inflation was -1.76%, the lowest since January 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect: rural inflation was 1.18%, lower than urban inflation of 2.05%.
What is the base year of the Consumer Price Index series used for the July 2025 inflation data?
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Correct answer: D — 2012
The CPI numbers for rural, urban and combined released for July 2025 are on base 2012=100.
What was the combined outlay of the four semiconductor projects approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — About ₹4,600 crore
The Cabinet approved four semiconductor projects with a cumulative investment of about ₹4,600 crore, expected to create 2,034 skilled jobs.
India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices, approved in August 2025, will come up in which state?
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Correct answer: C — Odisha
SiCSem will set up India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices at Info Valley, Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
Consider the following statements about the semiconductor approvals of 12 August 2025: 1. With these approvals, the number of projects approved under the India Semiconductor Mission rose to 10. 2. The CDIL unit approved on this date is located in Andhra Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: approved ISM projects reached 10, with cumulative investment of about ₹1.60 lakh crore across six states. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CDIL unit is located in Punjab; the ASIP unit is in Andhra Pradesh.
SiCSem's silicon carbide fab approved in August 2025 is to be set up in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd. of which country?
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Correct answer: A — United Kingdom
SiCSem is setting up the compound semiconductor fab in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd., UK.
Under the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament in August 2025, which body grants recognition to sports bodies?
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Correct answer: C — National Sports Board
The bill sets up a National Sports Board to grant recognition to sports bodies; the National Sports Tribunal is a separate institution created by the bill.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025: 1. Executive committees of sports bodies can have up to 15 members, including at least four women. 2. The Lok Sabha passed the bill before the Rajya Sabha did. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The bill provides for executive committees of up to 15 members with at least two outstanding sportspersons and four women, and the Lok Sabha passed it on 11 August before the Rajya Sabha approved it on 12 August 2025.
The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed alongside the sports governance bill reinforces the autonomy of which body?
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Correct answer: A — National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA)
The anti-doping amendment reinforces the autonomy of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), as required by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
Which of the following is NOT among the bodies provided for in the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Sports Ombudsman Council
The bill provides for a National Olympic Committee, a National Paralympic Committee, national and regional federations, a National Sports Board and a National Sports Tribunal; it does not create a 'National Sports Ombudsman Council'.