Kerala PSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The MoU signed between C-DOT and Synergy Quantum India in May 2025 is for developing Quantum Key Distribution systems suited for deployment on:
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Correct answer: D — Drones
The MoU covers development of drone-based Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) systems.
Consider the following statements about the C-DOT–Synergy Quantum MoU (May 2025): 1. C-DOT is an R&D institution under the Ministry of Electronics and IT. 2. The QKD systems are to be developed at Technology Readiness Level 6 or above. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. C-DOT is under the Department of Telecommunications (Ministry of Communications).
Consider the following statements about the Ethiopian delegation's India visit (May 2025): 1. The delegation is undergoing a week-long training programme at the National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG). 2. The programme is organised under the ITEC Division of the Ministry of External Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The NCGG programme is organised under MEA's Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) Division.
Consider the following statements: 1. PM Narendra Modi and Ethiopian PM Dr Abiy Ahmed met at the BRICS Summit in Johannesburg in August 2023. 2. The Ethiopian delegation that called on Dr Jitendra Singh on 12 May 2025 comprised only Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The delegation comprised Governors, Vice-Governors and Ministers.
On 12 May 2025, the Ministry of Civil Aviation lifted the temporary closure for civil aircraft operations at how many airports?
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Correct answer: D — 32
The temporary closure of 32 airports, earlier in force till 05:29 hrs of 15 May 2025, was lifted with immediate effect.
The theme of National Technology Day 2025, 'YANTRA', stands for:
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Correct answer: D — Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration
The TDB-DST theme was 'YANTRA – Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration'.
Consider the following statements about National Technology Day: 1. It commemorates the Pokhran nuclear tests of 1998. 2. The 2025 theme was unveiled by the Technology Development Board under the Department of Science and Technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
National Technology Day, observed on 11 May, marks the Pokhran tests conducted in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1998
It marks the Pokhran tests of 1998 and was first celebrated that year.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Ayush Ministry's Weekly Yoga Podcast launched in May 2025 is produced by the Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga. 2. The theme of International Day of Yoga 2025 is 'Yoga for One Earth, One Health'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
International Day of Yoga 2025 marks which anniversary of its observance?
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Correct answer: C — 10th
IDY 2025 is the 10th anniversary of the observance.
Under 'Yoga Sangam', one of the 10 signature events for IDY 2025, coordinated yoga is planned at how many locations?
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Correct answer: D — 1,00,000
Yoga Sangam aims at coordinated yoga at 1,00,000 locations, targeting a world record.
Which compendium of TDB-funded startups was released on National Technology Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Super 30 Startups
Dr Jitendra Singh released a compendium of 'Super 30 Startups' funded by TDB over the past five years.
Consider the following statements about the National Technology Day 2025 event: 1. Two new calls for proposals under the National Quantum Mission were launched. 2. The Technology Development Board functions under the Department of Biotechnology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. TDB is under the Department of Science and Technology.
Who scored a century (116) for India in the women's ODI tri-series final against Sri Lanka on 11 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Smriti Mandhana
Smriti Mandhana scored 116 off 101 balls and was Player of the Match.
Consider the following statements about the tri-series final of 11 May 2025: 1. India batted first and scored 342 for 7. 2. Sri Lanka captain Chamari Athapaththu scored a century. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Athapaththu scored 51.
What were Sneh Rana's bowling figures in the tri-series final?
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Correct answer: D — 4/38
Sneh Rana took 4 for 38; Amanjot Kaur took 3 for 54.
Consider the following statements about the blood donation camp held on 11 May 2025: 1. It was organised by the Ministry of Science and Technology with the Indian Red Cross Society. 2. It was organised by the Ministry of Defence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The camp was organised by the Ministry of Science and Technology in collaboration with the Indian Red Cross Society.
As per the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025, from what time were both sides to stop all firing and military action?
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Correct answer: C — 1700 hours IST
Both sides were to stop all firing and military action from 1700 hours IST on 10 May 2025; the call itself was at 1535 hours.
Consider the following statements about the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025: 1. The DGMO of Pakistan called the DGMO of India at 1535 hours IST. 2. The DGMOs were to talk again on 11 May at 1700 hours. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. The DGMOs were to talk again on 12 May at 1200 hours, so statement 2 is wrong.
The understanding announced on 10 May 2025 covered stopping firing and military action in which domains?
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Correct answer: D — Land, air and sea
The statement said both sides would stop all firing and military action on land and in the air and sea.
As per the release of 10 May 2025, how many airports were temporarily closed to civil flight operations under the NOTAMs?
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Correct answer: A — 32
32 airports across northern and western India were closed for civil flights from 9 to 14 May 2025; 25 was the number of ATS route segments.
Consider the following statements: 1. AAI extended the temporary closure of 25 ATS route segments within the Delhi and Mumbai Flight Information Regions. 2. The route segments were to remain unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025, which corresponds to 0529 IST on 15 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Civil Aviation release.
NOTAM G0555/25 on the closure of ATS route segments replaced which earlier NOTAM?
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Correct answer: D — G0525/25
As per NOTAM G0555/25 (which replaces G0525/25), the 25 route segments remained unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025.
What was the theme of World Migratory Bird Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities
The 2025 theme was 'Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities'.
Consider the following statements: 1. World Migratory Bird Day is observed twice a year; in 2025 it fell on 10 May and 11 October. 2. The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) entered into force in 1993. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. CMS entered into force in 1979 and has 133 Parties.
According to CMS, what share of all bird species globally is in decline?
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Correct answer: B — 49%
Globally 49% of bird species are in decline; 55% and 68% are the UN figures for the share of people in urban areas now and by 2050.
Whom did Madhura Dhamangaonkar beat in the women's compound final at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai, on 10 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Carson Krahe
She beat USA's Carson Krahe 139–138 in the final; Hazal Burun was her semi-final opponent and Jyothi Surekha Vennam her quarter-final opponent.
What was the score in Madhura Dhamangaonkar's winning final?
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Correct answer: D — 139–138
She won the final 139–138; 143–141 was her semi-final score and 232–228 the men's team final score.
Consider the following statements about India at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai: 1. The men's compound team of Abhishek Verma, Rishabh Yadav and Ojas Deotale beat Mexico 232–228 in the final. 2. Madhura Dhamangaonkar also won women's team silver and compound mixed team bronze with Abhishek Verma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Which compound archery event is set to mark compound archery's Olympic debut at LA 2028?
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Correct answer: A — Mixed team
The compound mixed team event will feature at LA 2028, marking compound archery's Olympic debut.
Consider the following statements about the high-level meeting of 10 May 2025: 1. It was held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. 2. It was chaired by the Defence Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the meeting was chaired by PM Narendra Modi at 7, Lok Kalyan Marg; the Defence Minister attended.
Who attended the 10 May 2025 high-level meeting as Chief of Defence Staff?
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Correct answer: B — General Anil Chauhan
CDS General Anil Chauhan attended; Ajit Doval is the NSA and Rajnath Singh the Defence Minister.
Consider the following statements about the training of 10 May 2025: 1. It was organised by DARPG in collaboration with the Capacity Building Commission. 2. The programme comprised four modules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Which of the following was one of the modules of the 'Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Program' training held on 10 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Who is a Rashtriya Karmayogi?
The four modules were: Who is a Rashtriya Karmayogi?; Expanding Our Vision of Success and Fulfillment; Creating a Karmayogi; Rashtriya Karmayogi as a Nation-Builder.
As reported by India at UNFF20, what share of India's geographical area is under forest and tree cover?
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Correct answer: C — 25.17%
India reported forest and tree cover of 25.17% of its geographical area as per the latest India State of Forest Report.
Consider the following statements about India at UNFF20: 1. India invited all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance. 2. India recalled the Country-Led Initiative it hosted in Dehradun in October 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct; the Dehradun initiative focused on forest fire management and forest certification.
On which date were PMJJBY, PMSBY and Atal Pension Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 9 May 2015
The three Jan Suraksha schemes were launched by PM Narendra Modi on 9 May 2015.
Which Jan Suraksha scheme had over 51 crore cumulative enrolments as on 23 April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — PMSBY
PMSBY had over 51.06 crore enrolments; PMJJBY had over 23.63 crore and APY over 7.66 crore.
Consider the following statements (data as on 23 April 2025): 1. More than 7.66 crore individuals had subscribed to the Atal Pension Yojana. 2. ₹3,121.02 crore had been paid under PMJJBY. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ₹3,121.02 crore was paid under PMSBY; PMJJBY payouts were ₹18,397.92 crore.
After the expansion notified in May 2025, what is the ceiling on guarantee cover per borrower under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 crore
The ceiling was raised from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore.
Consider the following statements about the expanded CGSS: 1. Guarantee cover is 85% of the amount in default for loans up to ₹10 crore. 2. The Annual Guarantee Fee for startups in Champion Sectors was raised to 2% per annum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Annual Guarantee Fee for Champion Sectors was reduced from 2% to 1% per annum.
The reduced Annual Guarantee Fee under the expanded CGSS applies to startups in how many Champion Sectors?
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Correct answer: D — 27
The fee was cut to 1% for startups in 27 Champion Sectors identified under 'Make in India'.
To which rating did Morningstar DBRS upgrade India's long-term foreign and local currency issuer ratings in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BBB
The ratings were upgraded from BBB (low) to BBB with a Stable trend.
Consider the following statements about the Morningstar DBRS upgrade: 1. India's short-term ratings were upgraded to R-1 (low). 2. The agency cited average GDP growth of 6.5% during FY22–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: short-term ratings went to R-2 (high) from R-2 (middle), and average growth cited was 8.2%.
On which date was the India–New Zealand FTA launched by Piyush Goyal and Todd McClay?
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Correct answer: A — 16 March 2025
The FTA was launched on 16 March 2025; the first round was held from 5 to 9 May 2025.
Consider the following statements: 1. The first round of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations was held from 5 to 9 May 2025 in New Delhi. 2. India–New Zealand merchandise trade reached USD 1.3 billion in 2024–25, a growth of 48.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry release.
Who is New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment who launched the FTA with Piyush Goyal?
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Correct answer: B — Todd McClay
Todd McClay is New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment; Christopher Luxon is New Zealand's Prime Minister.
How many priority corridors for zero-emission trucking were identified in the report released by the PSA on 9 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 10
The report identified the top 10 corridors from an initial list of 230.
Consider the following statements about the zero-emission trucking report: 1. It notes that nearly 40% of fuel consumption and transport emissions in India originate from long-distance trucks. 2. It was prepared by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The report is by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser.
For what initial period did TRAI recommend that spectrum be assigned for NGSO-based FSS and GSO/NGSO-based MSS?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 5 years
TRAI recommended assignment for up to five years, which the Government may extend by up to two years.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's satellite spectrum recommendations of 9 May 2025: 1. Ku and Ka bands should be considered for user links of Mobile Satellite Services. 2. Satellite earth station gateways should be commissioned within 12 months of permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. For MSS user links, TRAI recommended L and S bands; C, Ku, Ka and Q/V are for feeder links.
The Victory Day celebrations in Moscow on 9 May 2025, attended by Sanjay Seth, marked which anniversary of the Soviet victory in the Second World War?
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Correct answer: B — 80th
The celebrations commemorated the 80th anniversary of the victory of the Soviet people in the Second World War (1941–45).
Colonel General Alexander Fomin, with whom Sanjay Seth held a bilateral meeting in Moscow, is Russia's:
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Correct answer: B — Deputy Defence Minister
Colonel General Alexander Fomin is Russia's Deputy Defence Minister.
As per the Ayush Ministry, the Second WHO Global Traditional Medicine Summit was to be held in India on:
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Correct answer: D — 2–4 December 2025
The Second WHO Global Traditional Medicine Summit was to be held in India from 2 to 4 December 2025; 23 May 2025 was the GFTM side event at WHA78.
Consider the following statements about the sixth GFTM meeting: 1. It was held at the Permanent Mission of India in Geneva. 2. The GFTM was to host a high-level side event during the 78th World Health Assembly on 23 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
How many notices did the CCPA issue to e-commerce platforms over the sale of walkie-talkies on 9 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 13
The CCPA issued thirteen notices to digital marketplaces.
Equipment Type Approval (ETA), whose absence the CCPA flagged in walkie-talkie listings, is issued by:
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Correct answer: B — Wireless Planning and Coordination (WPC) Wing
Listings lacked valid Equipment Type Approval from the Wireless Planning and Coordination (WPC) Wing.
The Tri-Services Future Warfare Course (FWC-02) was coordinated by which body?
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Correct answer: A — Centre for Joint Warfare Studies (CENJOWS)
FWC-02 was conducted under HQ Integrated Defence Staff and coordinated by CENJOWS; the Manekshaw Centre was the venue.
Consider the following statements about FWC-02: 1. For the first time, 15 representatives from the private defence industry took part. 2. The inaugural edition of the course was held in September 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Pope Leo XIV, elected on 8 May 2025, is which Pope in history according to the Vatican?
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Correct answer: C — 267th
The Vatican described him as the 267th Pope (267th Bishop of Rome).
Consider the following statements about Pope Leo XIV: 1. He is the first Pope from the United States of America. 2. He was born in Lima, Peru. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. He was born in Chicago, Illinois, on 14 September 1955; he served as a missionary in Peru.
Who announced 'Habemus Papam' and the name of the new Pope from the central loggia of St Peter's Basilica on 8 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Cardinal Dominique Mamberti
Cardinal Protodeacon Dominique Mamberti made the announcement.
How many cardinal electors gathered in the Conclave that elected Pope Leo XIV?
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Correct answer: D — 133
As per L'Osservatore Romano, 133 cardinal electors gathered in the Sistine Chapel.
Iranian Foreign Minister Abbas Araghchi's visit in May 2025 marked which anniversary of India–Iran diplomatic relations?
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Correct answer: C — 75th
The President noted the visit came on the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations.
Consider the following statements about the meeting of 8 May 2025: 1. President Murmu welcomed ongoing cooperation in realising the full potential of Chabahar Port. 2. Abbas Araghchi is Iran's Defence Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Abbas Araghchi is Iran's Minister of Foreign Affairs.
What was the theme of World Thalassemia Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients
The 2025 theme was 'Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients'.
Consider the following statements about the Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana (TBSY): 1. It is a CSR initiative of Coal India Limited supporting free bone marrow transplants for children with thalassemia and aplastic anaemia. 2. The Coal Minister announced a 'One State, One Hospital' goal for bone marrow transplants under it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Thalassemia, as described by the DEPwD, is what type of genetic disorder?
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Correct answer: B — Autosomal recessive
Thalassemia is a genetic autosomal recessive disorder inherited from one or both parents.
The warship 'Arnala', delivered to the Indian Navy on 8 May 2025, is named after a historic fort located off:
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Correct answer: A — Vasai, Maharashtra
Arnala is named after the historic Arnala fort located off Vasai, Maharashtra.
Consider the following statements about 'Arnala': 1. It is the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft built by GRSE. 2. It is the largest Indian naval warship propelled by a diesel engine–waterjet combination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
What is the length of the warship 'Arnala'?
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Correct answer: B — 77 m
Arnala is a 77 m long warship.
IOS Sagar was jointly crewed by personnel from how many Indian Ocean Region navies?
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Correct answer: D — Nine
IOS Sagar was jointly crewed by personnel from nine IOR navies.
From where was INS Sunayna flagged off as IOS Sagar on 5 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Karwar
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh flagged off IOS Sagar from Karwar; it returned to Kochi on 8 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about IOS Sagar's deployment: 1. The ship made port calls at Dar-es-Salaam, Nacala, Port Louis, Port Victoria and Male. 2. It took part in AIKEYME 2025 alongside INS Chennai and INS Kesari. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.