IBPS RRB Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was India's total FDI inflow (provisional) in FY 2024-25 as per the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — USD 81.04 billion
FDI inflow was USD 81.04 billion (provisional) in FY 2024-25, up 14% from USD 71.28 billion in FY 2023-24.
Which country was the largest source of FDI equity inflows into India in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — Singapore
Singapore led with a 30% share, followed by Mauritius (17%) and the United States (11%).
Consider the following statements about FDI in FY 2024-25: 1. Maharashtra received the highest share of FDI equity inflows among states. 2. Computer software and hardware was the top sector for FDI equity, ahead of services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (Maharashtra 39%). Statement 2 is wrong: services led with 19%, ahead of computer software and hardware (16%).
DIGIPIN, for which the Department of Posts launched a 'Know Your DIGIPIN' portal in May 2025, was developed in collaboration with which institutions?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Hyderabad and NRSC, ISRO
DIGIPIN was developed by the Department of Posts with IIT Hyderabad and NRSC, ISRO.
Consider the following statements about DIGIPIN: 1. It is an open-source, geo-coded, grid-based digital address system. 2. The 'Know Your DIGIPIN' portal was launched in alignment with the National Geospatial Policy 2022. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Communications.
Who led the Indian all-party parliamentary delegation that visited Greece from 27 to 29 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Kanimozhi Karunanidhi
The Greece delegation was led by MP Kanimozhi Karunanidhi; Supriya Sule led the South Africa leg, Ravi Shankar Prasad the Italy leg and Sanjay Kumar Jha the Singapore leg.
The all-party delegation led by Ravi Shankar Prasad that arrived in Rome on 27 May 2025 was also scheduled to visit which of the following?
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Correct answer: A — France, Denmark, Germany, the UK and the EU in Brussels
As per the Embassy of India in Rome, the delegation was visiting Italy, France, Denmark, Germany, the UK and the European Union in Brussels.
Consider the following statements about the all-party delegations on 27 May 2025: 1. The delegation to South Africa, led by Supriya Sule, began its engagement in Johannesburg. 2. In Singapore, the delegation led by Sanjay Kumar Jha called on Senior Minister of State Sim Ann. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the High Commission in Pretoria and the PIB release on the Singapore meeting.
By how much did India's coal imports fall in FY 2024-25 compared with FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — 7.9%
Coal imports fell 7.9% to 243.62 MT. 8.95% is the fall for the non-regulated sector and 41.4% for blending imports by thermal plants; 5% is domestic output growth.
Consider the following statements about coal in FY 2024-25: 1. Imports of coal for blending by thermal power plants fell by 41.4%. 2. Coal-based power generation declined during the year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: coal-based power generation grew by 3.04%.
How many blocks were successfully auctioned in Tranche V of the critical and strategic mineral block auctions?
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Correct answer: A — 10 out of 15
Tranche V concluded with 10 of the 15 offered blocks successfully auctioned.
Tranche V of the critical mineral auctions marked the first successful auction of a critical and strategic mineral block in which state?
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Correct answer: D — Rajasthan
Tranche V marked the first-ever successful auction of a critical and strategic mineral block in Rajasthan.
Consider the following statements about Tranche V of the critical mineral block auctions: 1. It included the Government of India's first-ever successful auction of a potash block. 2. With it, the total number of blocks auctioned by the Central Government reached 34. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Mines.
To which date did CBDT extend the due date for filing ITRs for AY 2025-26 that were originally due on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 15 September 2025
The due date was extended from 31 July 2025 to 15 September 2025.
Consider the following statements about the ITR due-date extension announced in May 2025: 1. It was made by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. 2. One reason cited was structural and content revisions in the notified ITR forms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the extension was by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). Statement 2 is correct.
From which date are RoDTEP benefits restored for exports by Advance Authorisation holders, EOUs and SEZ units?
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Correct answer: D — 1 June 2025
The restored benefits apply to eligible exports made from 1 June 2025; earlier cover for these categories ended on 5 February 2025.
Consider the following statements about the RoDTEP scheme: 1. It has been operational since 1 January 2021. 2. It reimburses embedded duties, taxes and levies that are not refunded under any other scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry release.
What is the resolution of the Bharat Forecast System launched in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 6 km
The Bharat Forecast System improves resolution from 12 km to 6 km.
Which institute developed the Bharat Forecast System?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune
It was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune.
Consider the following statements about the Bharat Forecast System: 1. Its development was spearheaded by four women scientists. 2. It is meant to enable village-specific forecasts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
What is the value of the 2025 Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics awarded to the LHC experiments?
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Correct answer: D — USD 3 million
The USD 3 million prize is allocated to the ATLAS, CMS, ALICE and LHCb experiments.
According to the Department of Atomic Energy, Indian scientists played a significant role in which two LHC experiments that shared the 2025 Breakthrough Prize?
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Correct answer: B — ALICE and CMS
Indian scientists and institutes contributed significantly to ALICE and CMS.
By what percentage did the Central Apprenticeship Council recommend increasing the stipend under NAPS and NATS in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 36%
The 38th CAC meeting recommended a 36% increase in stipend.
Under the Central Apprenticeship Council's May 2025 recommendation, what would be the revised monthly stipend range under NAPS and NATS?
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Correct answer: A — ₹6,800–₹12,300
The stipend range would be revised from ₹5,000–₹9,000 to ₹6,800–₹12,300.
Maldives Foreign Minister Dr Abdulla Khaleel led the Maldives side at which meeting in New Delhi on 26 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 2nd India–Maldives High Level Core Group meeting
He led Maldives at the 2nd India–Maldives High Level Core Group (HLCG) meeting reviewing the Vision Document on Comprehensive Economic and Maritime Security Partnership.
Where is the 3rd India–Maldives High Level Core Group meeting to be held?
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Correct answer: C — Malé
It was decided that the 3rd HLCG meeting will be held in Malé, Maldives.
What is the theme of the 9th India Mobile Congress (IMC 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Innovate to Transform
Jyotiraditya Scindia unveiled 'Innovate to Transform' as the IMC 2025 theme.
Where is the India Mobile Congress 2025 scheduled to be held?
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Correct answer: B — Yashobhoomi Convention Centre, New Delhi
IMC 2025 is to be held from 8 to 11 October 2025 at the Yashobhoomi Convention Centre, New Delhi.
According to NITI Aayog's May 2025 report, medium enterprises contribute what share of MSME exports?
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Correct answer: B — 40%
Medium enterprises, though only 0.3% of MSMEs, contribute 40% of MSME exports. 29% is the MSME share of GDP and 60%+ its share of the workforce.
Consider the following statements based on NITI Aayog's report 'Designing a Policy for Medium Enterprises': 1. The MSME sector contributes 29% to India's GDP. 2. Medium enterprises make up only 0.3% of MSMEs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the NITI Aayog release.
Katejhari village, where a bus arrived for the first time as mentioned in Mann Ki Baat in May 2025, is in which district?
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Correct answer: A — Gadchiroli
Katejhari is in Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra.
The 'sugar boards' installed in schools to make children aware of their sugar intake, praised in Mann Ki Baat in May 2025, are an initiative of which body?
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Correct answer: D — CBSE
The PM described sugar boards as a unique initiative of CBSE.
According to the Prime Minister in Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), India's annual honey production has risen to about how much?
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Correct answer: B — 1.25 lakh metric tonnes
Honey production rose from about 70–75 thousand metric tonnes 10–11 years ago to about 1.25 lakh metric tonnes.
In Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), the PM mentioned women spraying pesticides with drones in Sangareddy district. In which state is Sangareddy?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana
Sangareddy district is in Telangana.
According to the PM in Mann Ki Baat (May 2025), how many records were set at the Khelo India Youth Games hosted in Bihar?
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Correct answer: A — 26
The PM said 26 records were made; 36 is the number of medals Bihar won.
What was the theme of the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog held in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047
The theme was 'Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047'.
How many States and Union Territories were represented at the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog?
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Correct answer: D — 24 States and 7 UTs
Chief Ministers and Lt Governors of 24 States and 7 UTs attended.
At the 10th Governing Council meeting, the Prime Minister asked NITI Aayog to prepare which document for attracting investments?
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Correct answer: A — An Investment-friendly Charter
The PM asked NITI Aayog to prepare an 'Investment-friendly Charter'.
Consider the following statements about the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog: 1. It was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. 2. The PM urged each State to develop at least one global-standard tourist destination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the NITI Aayog release.
Under the Ministry of Ayush–WHO agreement of 24 May 2025, a dedicated Traditional Medicine module is being developed under which WHO classification?
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Correct answer: C — International Classification of Health Interventions (ICHI)
The agreement begins work on a Traditional Medicine module under the International Classification of Health Interventions (ICHI).
The International Classification of Health Interventions (ICHI) complements which other WHO classification?
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Correct answer: A — ICD-11
ICHI, which documents treatments and health interventions, complements WHO's International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11).
Consider the following statements about the Traditional Medicine module under ICHI: 1. ICHI primarily records diagnoses of diseases. 2. The module will recognise therapies from Ayurveda, Yoga, Siddha and Unani in globally standardised terms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: ICHI documents treatments and health interventions; diagnoses are classified in ICD-11. Statement 2 is correct.
How much investment interest did the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025 draw, according to the DoNER Minister?
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Correct answer: C — ₹4.3 lakh crore
Jyotiraditya Scindia said the summit drew ₹4.3 lakh crore in investment interest.
Delegations from how many countries attended the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025, as per the DoNER Minister?
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Correct answer: D — Over 80
The minister said delegations from over 80 countries were welcomed.
Where was the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025 held?
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Correct answer: B — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
The summit was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi on 23–24 May 2025.
Where was the ECI's National Conference of Counsels held on 24 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIIDEM, New Delhi
The conference was held at the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
Who inaugurated the National Conference of Counsels representing the Election Commission of India in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar
CEC Gyanesh Kumar inaugurated it in the presence of Election Commissioners Dr Sukhbir Singh Sandhu and Dr Vivek Joshi.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's National Conference of Counsels in May 2025: 1. Senior advocates from the Supreme Court and 28 High Courts took part. 2. Chief Electoral Officers of all 36 States/UTs participated. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the ECI release.
As announced by the Sports Minister in May 2025, how often will the Khelo India Northeast Games be held?
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Correct answer: A — Every year, in one of the eight northeastern states
Khelo India Northeast Games will be hosted every year in one of the eight northeastern states.
Under the talent identification drive announced in May 2025, citizens can upload videos of a player's performance on which portal?
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Correct answer: C — NSRS portal
Citizens can upload videos on the NSRS portal; players found worthy will be inducted into KICs and NCOEs.
Which Supreme Court Judge delivered the keynote address at the DFS colloquium of DRAT Chairpersons and DRT Presiding Officers in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Justice S.V.N. Bhatti
Justice S.V.N. Bhatti, Judge of the Supreme Court, delivered the keynote address.
The DFS colloquium of May 2025 discussed effective implementation of the DRT Regulations of which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2024
Deliberations included effective implementation of the DRT Regulations, 2024.
At the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025, what did the Prime Minister say 'EAST' stands for in the government's policy for the region?
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Correct answer: B — Empower, Act, Strengthen, Transform
The PM said EAST means 'Empower, Act, Strengthen and Transform'.
According to the Prime Minister's address at the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025, what is the length of the Northeast Gas Grid?
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Correct answer: A — 1,600 km
The PM cited the establishment of a 1,600-km-long Northeast Gas Grid.
Consider the following statements made at the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025: 1. The Kaladan Multimodal Transit Project will link Kolkata Port to Myanmar's Sittwe Port, with a trade route through Mizoram. 2. Guwahati, Imphal and Agartala are being developed as Multi-Modal Logistics Hubs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are from the PM's address as published by PIB.
Rule 49M of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, mentioned in ECI's May 2025 instructions on mobile deposit facility, relates to:
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Correct answer: D — Secrecy of voting within the polling station
ECI said Rule 49M, which ensures secrecy of voting within the polling station, will continue to be strictly enforced.
Consider the following statements about ECI's instructions of 23 May 2025: 1. Voters may carry mobile phones inside the polling station if the phones are switched off. 2. Booths set up by candidates for issuing unofficial identity slips can now be set up just beyond 100 metres of a polling station. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: phones are allowed within 100 m only switched off and must be deposited; they cannot be carried inside. Statement 2 is correct.
Under ECI's May 2025 mobile deposit instructions, who can exempt certain polling stations from the provision based on adverse local circumstances?
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Correct answer: C — Returning Officer
The Returning Officer can exempt certain polling stations based on adverse local circumstances.
The Ministry of Education's 2025 enforcement drive to make areas around educational institutions tobacco-free was to run during which period?
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Correct answer: A — 31 May to 26 June 2025
The drive runs from 31 May (World No Tobacco Day) to 26 June 2025 (International Day Against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking). 22 May–21 July is the period of the MyGov quiz.
Which provision of the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA), 2003 bans the sale of tobacco products within 100 yards of educational institutions, as cited by the Ministry of Education in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Section 6(b)
The Ministry asked States to enforce Section 6(b) of COTPA, 2003.
According to the Global Youth Tobacco Survey (GYTS-2), 2019, cited by the Ministry of Education, what share of Indian students aged 13–15 were using tobacco in some form?
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Correct answer: D — 8.5%
GYTS-2 (2019) found 8.5% of Indian students aged 13–15 using tobacco in some form.
Under the revised norms of assistance to National Sports Federations (May 2025), what minimum share of their annual budget must NSFs earmark for grassroots development?
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Correct answer: C — 20%
NSFs must earmark at least 20% of their annual budget for grassroots development.
Under the revised NSF assistance norms of May 2025, NSFs with an annual budget of how much or more must appoint a High-Performance Director?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10 crore
NSFs with an annual budget of ₹10 crore and above must appoint a High-Performance Director.
Under the revised NSF assistance norms (May 2025), what monthly dietary allowance will probable group athletes get for non-camp days?
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,000
Each probable group athlete gets ₹10,000 per month for non-camp days.
As per provisional ESIC payroll data, how many new employees were added under the ESI Scheme in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 16.33 lakh
16.33 lakh new employees were added in March 2025; 15.43 lakh was the February figure.
Consider the following statements about ESIC payroll data for March 2025: 1. About 49% of the new employees were aged up to 25 years. 2. 31,514 new establishments were registered under the ESI Scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: 7.96 lakh (about 49%) were aged up to 25, and 31,514 new establishments were registered.
How many Kirti Chakras were conferred at Phase-I of the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Six (four posthumous)
Six Kirti Chakras, including four posthumous, were conferred.
Consider the following statements about Phase-I of the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025: 1. 33 Shaurya Chakras, including seven posthumous, were conferred. 2. The ceremony was held at the Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the ceremony was held at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
What is the theme of the International Day for Biological Diversity 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Harmony with Nature and Sustainable Development
The theme for IDB 2025 is 'Harmony with Nature and Sustainable Development'.
Consider the following statements: 1. The national-level celebration of the International Day for Biological Diversity 2025 was held at Udaipur. 2. The MoEFCC campaign ahead of World Environment Day 2025 is titled 'One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per MoEFCC releases of 22 May 2025.
Which city is to receive the largest number of electric buses (about 4,500) in the current phase of PM E-DRIVE, as announced in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Bengaluru
About 4,500 e-buses are to go to Bengaluru, 2,800 to Delhi, 2,000 to Hyderabad, 1,000 to Ahmedabad and 600 to Surat.
As approved by the Union Cabinet, how much of the PM E-DRIVE outlay is earmarked for the procurement of e-buses, and how many e-buses does it support?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,391 crore for 14,028 e-buses
The Cabinet release provides ₹4,391 crore for 14,028 e-buses; ₹10,900 crore is the total scheme outlay over two years.
Under PM E-DRIVE, which agency handles demand aggregation of e-buses in the nine cities with population above 40 lakh?
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Correct answer: D — Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL)
As per the Cabinet release, demand aggregation is done by CESL in nine cities with more than 40 lakh population.
Who led the all-party Indian delegation that arrived in Abu Dhabi on 22 May 2025 as the first stop of a four-nation outreach?
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Correct answer: B — Shrikant Eknath Shinde
The delegation to the UAE was led by MP Dr. Shrikant Eknath Shinde.
Who led the all-party Indian delegation that visited Japan from 22 to 24 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sanjay Kumar Jha
The delegation to Japan was led by MP Sanjay Kumar Jha.
Consider the following statements about the all-party delegation's visit to Japan in May 2025: 1. On 22 May the delegation met Japan's Foreign Minister Takeshi Iwaya. 2. The delegation called for giving effect to the UN Security Council press statement of 25 April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the release on the visit.