IBPS Clerk Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How did the Rajya Sabha pass the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025 after midnight on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — By voice vote
The Hindu and Scroll: the Rajya Sabha passed the Bill by voice vote after midnight amid Opposition protests.
During the December 2025 debate on the VB-G RAM G Bill, the Rural Development Minister said Mahatma Gandhi's name was added to the 2005 rural employment guarantee law in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2009
The Hindu and The Times of India: Shivraj Singh Chouhan said Gandhi's name was not in the original 2005 law and was added in 2009.
Consider the following statements about the passage of the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025: 1. The Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 18 December 2025. 2. The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill after midnight, on 19 December 2025. 3. The Bill was referred to a parliamentary committee before it was passed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
The Hindu, Scroll and TOI: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on Thursday, 18 December, and the Rajya Sabha after midnight on Friday, 19 December. The demand to refer it to a committee was rejected, so statement 3 is wrong.
The proposed Bureau of Port Security (BoPS), discussed at a meeting chaired by Amit Shah on 19 December 2025, is being modelled on which body?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
PIB 2206443: the Bureau is being modelled on the lines of the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS).
Which force has been designated as the Recognised Security Organisation (RSO) for port facilities, as announced on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Central Industrial Security Force
PIB 2206443: CISF has been designated as the RSO for port facilities, responsible for security assessments and port security plans.
Consider the following statements about the Bureau of Port Security (BoPS): 1. It is to be constituted as a statutory body under Section 13 of the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025. 2. It will function under the Ministry of Home Affairs. 3. During a one-year transition, the Director General of Shipping will function as its Director General. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2206443: BoPS will be a statutory body under Section 13 of the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025 and the DG Shipping will head it during the one-year transition. It will function under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, not the MHA, so statement 2 is wrong.
Where was the closing ceremony of the Second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine held on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
PIB 2206859: the Prime Minister addressed the closing ceremony at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
What is the 'Ayush Mark' launched by the Prime Minister at the WHO traditional medicine summit in December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — A global benchmark for quality Ayush products and services
PIB 2206859: the Ayush Mark is envisioned as a global benchmark for quality Ayush products and services.
Consider the following statements in the context of the Second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine (December 2025): 1. The new WHO South-East Asia Regional Office building in New Delhi will also house the WHO India Country Office. 2. The WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine is located in Jamnagar, Gujarat. 3. The summit's theme was 'Health for All through Traditional Medicine'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2206859: the SEARO building will also house the WHO India Country Office, and the WHO GCTM is in Jamnagar. The theme was 'Restoring Balance: The Science and Practice of Health and Well-being', so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the PFRDA amendments notified on 19 December 2025, what is the maximum lump sum a non-government NPS subscriber can take at normal exit?
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Correct answer: C — 80%
PIB 2206763: for the All Citizen Model and Corporate Sector, up to 80% lump sum with at least 20% annuity, up from 60%.
To what age have the maximum entry and exit ages under the NPS been raised by the PFRDA amendments of December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 85 years
PIB 2206763: entry and exit age increased to 85 years, from a maximum entry age of 70 and exit age of 75.
Consider the following statements about the NPS exit amendments notified by PFRDA on 19 December 2025: 1. Government sector subscribers can now take up to 80% as lump sum at normal exit. 2. The minimum lock-in period of five years for premature exit under the All Citizen Model has been removed. 3. A regulated lender may mark a lien of up to 25% of the subscriber's own contribution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 and 3 only
PIB 2206763: the five-year lock-in was removed for the All Citizen Model, and lenders may mark a lien up to 25% of the subscriber's own contribution. For the government sector, normal exit remains up to 60% lump sum, so statement 1 is wrong.
According to Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla, what was the productivity of the Lok Sabha during the Winter Session that ended on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 111 percent
PIB 2206501: the productivity of the House during the Sixth Session was 111 percent.
Which Bill was referred to a Joint Committee of the Houses after its introduction in the Lok Sabha during the Winter Session 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025
PIB 2206655: the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 was referred to a Joint Committee after introduction. The other three were passed by both Houses.
Consider the following statements about the Winter Session 2025 of Parliament: 1. The session provided 15 sittings spread over 19 days. 2. The Prime Minister initiated the special discussion on 150 years of 'Vande Mataram' in the Lok Sabha. 3. The discussion on electoral reforms was held only in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2206655: 15 sittings over 19 days, and the PM initiated the Vande Mataram discussion in the Lok Sabha. Electoral reforms were discussed in the Lok Sabha (9–10 December) and the Rajya Sabha (11, 15 and 16 December), so statement 3 is wrong.
Where did ISRO conduct the drogue parachute qualification tests for the Gaganyaan crew module on 18–19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Rail Track Rocket Sled facility, TBRL, Chandigarh
ISRO: the tests were held at the Rail Track Rocket Sled (RTRS) facility of the Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL), Chandigarh.
Consider the following statements about the deceleration system of the Gaganyaan crew module: 1. It has a total of 10 parachutes of four types. 2. Two drogue parachutes stabilise and decelerate the module. 3. Four main parachutes are used for the final descent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: the system has 10 parachutes of 4 types, including two drogues that stabilise and decelerate the module. Three pilot parachutes extract three main parachutes, not four, so statement 3 is wrong.
During which period is Good Governance Week 2025, launched by DARPG on 19 December 2025, being observed?
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Correct answer: B — 19–25 December
PIB 2206518: Good Governance Week 2025 is observed from 19 to 25 December; 11–18 December was the preparatory phase.
What is the name of the nationwide grassroots campaign at the core of Good Governance Week 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore
PIB 2206518: the 'Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore' initiative forms the core of the Good Governance Week campaign.
Who will co-chair the India–Netherlands Joint Trade and Investment Committee (JTIC) from the Indian side, as per the MoU announced on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce
PIB 2206805: the JTIC will be co-chaired by the Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce and the Dutch Director General (Foreign Economic Relations).
Consider the following statements about the India–Netherlands JTIC announced in December 2025: 1. It will meet annually, alternately in India and the Netherlands. 2. The MoU was signed between India's Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the Dutch Ministry of Economic Affairs. 3. It was announced during the visit of Dutch Foreign Minister David van Weel. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2206805: the JTIC meets annually, alternately in each country, and was announced during David van Weel's visit. The Dutch signatory was the Ministry of Foreign Affairs, so statement 2 is wrong.
Under the India–Oman CEPA signed on 18 December 2025, Indian goods get zero-duty access on what share of Oman's tariff lines?
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Correct answer: C — 98.08%
PIB 2205889: zero-duty access on 98.08% of Oman's tariff lines, covering 99.38% of India's exports by value.
Who signed the India–Oman CEPA on behalf of India on 18 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Piyush Goyal
PIB 2205889: Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal signed with Oman's Minister of Commerce, Industry and Investment Promotion Qais bin Mohammed Al Yousef.
The India–Oman CEPA is India's second Free Trade Agreement signed in six months. With which country was the earlier one signed?
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Correct answer: B — United Kingdom
PIB 2205889: the CEPA is the second FTA signed in the last six months after the United Kingdom.
Consider the following statements about the India–Oman CEPA: 1. Oman has offered 127 services sub-sectors. 2. It contains the first-ever commitment by any country on traditional medicine across all modes. 3. Oman has capped FDI by Indian companies in its services sectors at 49%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205889: Oman offered 127 sub-sectors and made the first-ever commitment by any country on traditional medicine across all modes. It committed to 100% FDI for Indian companies in major services sectors, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which two laws does the SHANTI Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament on 18 December 2025, replace?
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Correct answer: A — Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010
PRS: the Bill replaces the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.
Which body gets statutory status under the SHANTI Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
PIB 2206211: the Bill accords statutory status to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board, making it part of the parent legislation.
What nuclear energy capacity target by 2047 does the SHANTI Bill support?
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Correct answer: C — 100 GW
PIB 2206598: the Bill supports the long-term objective of achieving 100 GW nuclear energy capacity by 2047.
Consider the following statements about the SHANTI Bill, 2025: 1. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 15 December 2025 and passed by the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2025. 2. The Appellate Tribunal for Electricity will serve as the appellate authority under it. 3. It keeps a single statutory cap on operator liability for all nuclear installations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PRS gives the dates (introduced 15 December, Lok Sabha 17 December) and PIB 2206598 names the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity. The Bill replaces the single cap with a graded liability framework, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many members took part in the Lok Sabha debate on the VB-G RAM G Bill before it was passed on 18 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 98
The Indian Express and News18: Shivraj Singh Chouhan said he listened to 98 MPs who took part in the debate.
Consider the following statements about the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025 as explained in the PIB backgrounder of 18 December 2025: 1. It shifts rural employment from a central sector scheme to a centrally sponsored framework. 2. All assets created will be aggregated in the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack. 3. The estimated annual central share is ₹1,51,282 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205734: the Bill moves to a centrally sponsored framework and aggregates assets in the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack. ₹1,51,282 crore is the total annual requirement including the State share; the central share is ₹95,692.31 crore, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four priority areas of works under the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Urban housing for migrant workers
PIB 2205734: the four areas are water security, core rural infrastructure, livelihood-related infrastructure and special works to mitigate extreme weather events. Urban housing is not one of them.
Where was the second edition of the India–UAE Joint Military Exercise Desert Cyclone held from 18 to 30 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Abu Dhabi, UAE
PIB 2205132: Desert Cyclone-II was scheduled at Abu Dhabi, UAE from 18 to 30 December 2025.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Desert Cyclone-II: 1. The Indian contingent comprises 45 personnel, mainly from The Mechanised Infantry Regiment. 2. The UAE is represented by the 53 Mechanised Infantry Battalion. 3. The exercise focuses on conventional desert warfare outside any UN mandate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205132: 45 Indian personnel mainly from The Mechanised Infantry Regiment, and the UAE's 53 Mechanised Infantry Battalion. The focus is sub-conventional operations in urban terrain under a UN mandate, so statement 3 is wrong.
On which principle were Regional Rural Banks consolidated with effect from 1 May 2025, before a common RRB logo was unveiled in December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — One State One RRB
PIB 2205824: on the principle of 'One State One RRB', 26 RRBs across 11 States/UTs were consolidated from 01.05.2025.
Consider the following statements about Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and their new common logo: 1. 26 RRBs across 11 States/UTs were consolidated with effect from 1 May 2025. 2. There are now 28 RRBs. 3. In the logo, the hands symbolise enlightenment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205824: 26 RRBs in 11 States/UTs were consolidated from 1 May 2025 and 28 RRBs now operate. In the logo the hands stand for nurturing and the flame for enlightenment, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Order of Oman, conferred on Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 18 December 2025, was instituted in 1970 by whom?
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Correct answer: C — Sultan Qaboos bin Said
PIB 2206032: the Order of Oman was instituted in 1970 by Sultan Qaboos bin Said.
At which palace was Prime Minister Modi received by Sultan Haitham bin Tarik on 18 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Al Baraka Palace
PIB 2206044: the Prime Minister was received by His Majesty Sultan Haitham bin Tarik on 18 December 2025 at Al Baraka Palace.
Consider the following statements about Prime Minister Modi's visit to Oman in December 2025: 1. The visit took place in the year marking 70 years of India–Oman diplomatic relations. 2. An MoU on maritime heritage and museums covers the National Maritime Heritage Complex at Lothal. 3. The visit followed Sultan Haitham bin Tarik's State Visit to India in December 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2206044 and 2205993: the visit marked 70 years of diplomatic ties, the maritime heritage MoU includes NMHC Lothal, and it followed the Sultan's State Visit to India in December 2023. All three are correct.
Under which law did the Competition Commission of India decide on 18 December 2025 to proceed in the IndiGo flight disruptions matter?
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Correct answer: D — Competition Act, 2002
PIB 2206091: the Commission decided to proceed further in accordance with the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002.
The Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament on 17 December 2025, allows FDI in insurance companies up to what limit?
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Correct answer: C — 100%
PIB 2206011: a key feature of the Bill is to allow up to 100% Foreign Direct Investment in insurance companies.
Under the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha Bill, 2025, the Net Owned Fund requirement for foreign reinsurance branches has been reduced from ₹5,000 crore to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,000 crore
PIB 2206011: the Net Owned Fund requirement of foreign reinsurance branches has been reduced from ₹5,000 crore to ₹1,000 crore.
Which of the following Acts is NOT amended by the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972
PIB 2206011: the Bill amends three Acts: the Insurance Act, 1938, the LIC Act, 1956 and the IRDA Act, 1999. The General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act is not among them.
Consider the following statements about the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha Bill, 2025: 1. The limit for seeking prior regulatory approval for transfer of share capital has been raised from 1% to 5%. 2. A Policyholders' Education and Protection Fund will be set up. 3. IRDAI is given the power to disgorge wrongful gains from insurers and intermediaries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2206011: the share-transfer approval limit rises from 1% to 5%, a Policyholders' Education and Protection Fund will be set up, and IRDAI gets the power to disgorge wrongful gains. All three are correct.
The Adwa Victory Monument in Addis Ababa, where PM Modi laid a wreath on 17 December 2025, honours Ethiopian soldiers of the Battle of Adwa fought in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 1896
PIB 2205113: the memorial is dedicated to Ethiopian soldiers who died for the sovereignty of their nation at the Battle of Adwa in 1896.
In which year were formal diplomatic ties between India and Ethiopia established?
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Correct answer: B — 1950
PIB backgrounder 2205431: formal diplomatic ties between India and Ethiopia were established in 1950.
Consider the following statements about Prime Minister Modi's visit to Ethiopia in December 2025: 1. It was his first bilateral visit to Ethiopia. 2. India–Ethiopia ties were elevated to a Strategic Partnership. 3. India–Ethiopia bilateral trade in 2024–25 was driven mainly by Ethiopian exports to India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205106 and 2205431: it was the PM's first bilateral visit and ties were elevated to a Strategic Partnership. Of the US$ 550.19 million trade in 2024–25, Indian exports were US$ 476.81 million and imports US$ 73.38 million, so the trade is export-driven from India and statement 3 is wrong.
As per the Ministry of Railways on 17 December 2025, about what share of Indian Railways' broad gauge network has been electrified?
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Correct answer: C — 99.2%
PIB 2205232: about 99.2% of the broad gauge network has been electrified.
According to the UIC report of June 2025 cited by the Ministry of Railways, which of these countries has the highest share of railway electrification?
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Correct answer: C — Switzerland
PIB 2205232: as per the UIC report of June 2025, Switzerland has 100% railway electrification, against China 82%, Spain 67% and Japan 64%.
Consider the following statements about railway electrification in India as per the Ministry of Railways (17 December 2025): 1. More route kilometres were electrified in 2014–25 than in about 60 years before 2014. 2. All 18 railway zones listed are 100% electrified. 3. Electrification achieved in 2024–25 was higher than in 2023–24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB 2205232: 46,900 route km were electrified in 2014–25 against 21,801 before 2014 (statement 1 correct). Only 14 zones are at 100%; North Western, Southern, Northeast Frontier and South Western are below (statement 2 wrong). Electrification was 7,188 RKM in 2023–24 and 2,701 RKM in 2024–25 (statement 3 wrong).
According to the Communications Minister's statement in the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2025, India's telecom exports in 2024–25 stood at:
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Correct answer: A — ₹18,406 crore
PIB 2205493: telecom exports rose from ₹10,000 crore in 2020–21 to ₹18,406 crore in 2024–25, a 72% rise; imports stayed at about ₹51,000 crore.
As per the Minister of Communications on 17 December 2025, how many of India's 778 districts are connected to the 5G network?
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Correct answer: C — 767
PIB 2205493: out of 778 districts, 767 have been connected to the 5G network.
Ram Sutar, who died on 17 December 2025, was the sculptor of which of the following?
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Correct answer: B — Statue of Unity, Kevadia
TOI, The Week (PTI) and The Tribune: Ram Sutar designed the Statue of Unity of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel at Kevadia, Gujarat.
Ram Sutar was born in 1925 in Gondur village of which district of Maharashtra?
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Correct answer: A — Dhule
TOI and The Week (PTI): Ram Sutar was born on 19 February 1925 in Gondur village in Maharashtra's Dhule district.
In which year was Ram Sutar conferred the Padma Bhushan?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
TOI and The Week (PTI): Ram Sutar received the Padma Shri in 1999 and the Padma Bhushan in 2016.
The VB–G RAM G Bill, 2025, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 16 December 2025, proposes a statutory guarantee of how many days of wage employment a year?
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Correct answer: C — 125 days
PIB 2204816: the Bill provides a statutory guarantee of 125 days of wage employment every year, against the earlier 100-day guarantee.
In the VB–G RAM G Bill, 2025, what does 'G RAM G' stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin)
PIB 2204816: the Bill is the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) or VB–G RAM G Bill, 2025.
Consider the following statements about the VB–G RAM G Bill, 2025 as introduced on 16 December 2025: 1. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha by the Minister of Rural Development. 2. It provides for grading of panchayats so that less developed panchayats get more work. 3. The total provision announced for it is more than ₹1,51,282 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2204816: Shivraj Singh Chouhan introduced it in the Lok Sabha, the Bill grades panchayats to assign more work to less developed ones, and a provision of more than ₹1,51,282 crore has been made. All three are correct.
Which award did Prime Minister Narendra Modi receive from Ethiopia on 16 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Great Honour Nishan of Ethiopia
PIB 2204955: Ethiopian PM Abiy Ahmed conferred Ethiopia's highest award, the 'Great Honor Nishan of Ethiopia', on PM Modi.
Where was the ceremony conferring Ethiopia's highest award on PM Modi held on 16 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Addis International Convention Centre
PIB 2204955: the special ceremony was hosted at the Addis International Convention Centre.
Consider the following outcomes of Prime Minister Modi's visit to Ethiopia in December 2025: 1. An MoU on debt restructuring of Ethiopia under the G20 Common Framework 2. Doubling of ICCR scholarships for Ethiopian scholars 3. A Free Trade Agreement between India and Ethiopia Which of the above is/are part of the official list of outcomes?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2204943: the outcomes list includes the debt restructuring MoU under the G20 Common Framework and doubling of ICCR scholarships. No Free Trade Agreement was signed.
Which AI tool anchors the AFMS community screening programme for diabetic retinopathy launched on 16 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — MadhuNetrAI
PIB 2204763: the programme is anchored by MadhuNetrAI, a web-based AI tool developed by the Dr. Rajendra Prasad Centre for Ophthalmic Sciences, AIIMS.
Which of the following is NOT among the seven pilot locations of the AFMS AI-driven diabetic retinopathy screening programme?
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Correct answer: D — Lucknow
PIB 2204763: the seven pilot locations are Pune, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Dharamshala, Gaya, Jorhat and Kochi. Lucknow is not one of them.
The Param Vir Dirgha inaugurated at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 16 December 2025 displays portraits of how many Param Vir Chakra awardees?
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Correct answer: B — 21
PIB 2204485: the gallery has the portraits of all 21 Param Vir Chakra awardees on display.
Before the Param Vir Dirgha was created, the corridors at Rashtrapati Bhavan displayed portraits of:
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Correct answer: A — British ADCs
PIB 2204485: the corridors earlier displayed portraits of British ADCs.
On which occasion was the Param Vir Dirgha inaugurated on 16 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Vijay Diwas
PIB 2204485: the President inaugurated the Param Vir Dirgha on the occasion of Vijay Diwas.
Which Indian Coast Guard ship made the first-ever ICG visit to Chabahar port, Iran, from 16 to 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ICGS Sarthak
PIB 2205444: ICG Ship Sarthak, an Offshore Patrol Vessel, visited Chabahar from 16 to 19 December 2025, the first-ever visit of an ICG ship to the port.
Before arriving at Chabahar in December 2025, ICG Ship Sarthak visited which country during its Gulf deployment?
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Correct answer: C — Kuwait
PIB 2205444: the Chabahar port call followed the ship's earlier visit to Kuwait, where it interacted with the Kuwait Coast Guard.
By what date must IRDAI-regulated entities adopt '1600' series numbers for service and transactional calls under TRAI's Direction of 16 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 15 February 2026
PIB 2205350: the last date for adoption of 1600-series numbers by IRDAI-regulated entities is 15 February 2026.
Before IRDAI, TRAI had issued similar Directions mandating 1600-series numbers for entities regulated by which regulators?
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Correct answer: A — RBI, SEBI and PFRDA
PIB 2205350: TRAI had earlier issued similar Directions for entities regulated by RBI, SEBI and PFRDA.
Which of the following bodies is NOT proposed to be subsumed under the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan by the Bill introduced on 15 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Medical Commission
PIB 2204351: UGC, AICTE and NCTE are to be subsumed under the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan. The National Medical Commission is not.
How many independent Councils does the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 propose under the apex body?
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Correct answer: A — Three
PIB 2204351: the Bill establishes the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan as an apex body with three independent Councils for Standards, Regulation and Accreditation.
The reform of the higher education regulatory system proposed in the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 is envisaged in which chapter of the National Education Policy 2020?
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Correct answer: A — Chapter 18
PIB 2204351: NEP 2020, as envisaged in Chapter 18, calls for a fundamental transformation of the higher education regulatory system.
Under an agreement signed during PM Modi's visit to Jordan in December 2025, Ellora is to be twinned with which heritage site?
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Correct answer: A — Petra
PIB 2204384: the outcomes include a Twinning Agreement between Petra and Ellora.
What bilateral trade target did PM Modi propose for India and Jordan over the next five years during talks on 15 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — US$ 5 billion
PIB 2204376: noting India is Jordan's third-largest trading partner, PM Modi proposed enhancing bilateral trade to US$ 5 billion over the next five years. Trade in 2024 was US$ 2.3 billion (PIB 2204593).
Consider the following statements about India–Jordan relations as of December 2025: 1. The two countries were marking 75 years of diplomatic relations. 2. India is Jordan's third-largest trading partner. 3. The Cultural Exchange Programme was renewed for 2025–2029. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2204376, 2204384 and 2204593: the visit marked 75 years of diplomatic ties, India is Jordan's third-largest trading partner, and the Cultural Exchange Programme was renewed for 2025–2029. All three are correct.
On 15 December 2025, the Government of India and the Asian Development Bank signed how many loan agreements totalling over US$ 2.2 billion?
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Correct answer: C — Five
PIB 2204373: the Government of India and ADB signed agreements for five loans totalling over $2.2 billion.
Which programme received the largest loan (US$ 846 million) among the India–ADB agreements of 15 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Upgraded Industrial Training Institutes skilling programme
PIB 2204373: the PM Skilling and Employability Transformation through Upgraded ITIs Programme got US$ 846 million, against US$ 650 million for rooftop solar, US$ 398.8 million for ASTHA and US$ 240 million for Chennai Metro.
ASTHA, one of the projects funded under the India–ADB loans signed on 15 December 2025, relates to tertiary healthcare in which State?
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Correct answer: B — Assam
PIB 2204373: ASTHA is the Assam State Tertiary Health Care Augmentation Project (US$ 398.8 million).
Who assumed office as Chief Information Commissioner of the Central Information Commission on 15 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Raj Kumar Goyal
PIB 2204238: Raj Kumar Goyal was appointed Chief Information Commissioner and assumed office on 15 December 2025.
How many new Information Commissioners were sworn in at the Central Information Commission on 15 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Eight
PIB 2204238: the Chief Information Commissioner administered the oath of office to eight new Information Commissioners.