Defence Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Through which entity does CGSMFI-2.0, introduced in March 2026, provide credit guarantee cover?
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Correct answer: B — National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company
CGSMFI-2.0 provides guarantee cover to banks and FIs through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC).
Under CGSMFI-2.0, what is the guarantee coverage for loans to small NBFC-MFIs/MFIs?
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Correct answer: D — 80% of the amount in default
Coverage is 80% for small, 75% for medium and 70% for large NBFC-MFIs/MFIs.
Consider the following about CGSMFI-2.0: 1. It is valid till 30 June 2026 or until loans of ₹20,000 crore are guaranteed, whichever is earlier. 2. MFIs must on-lend to small borrowers at 1% below their average lending rate of the past six months. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the scheme runs till 30 June 2026 or ₹20,000 crore of guaranteed loans, and on-lending is capped at 1% below the six-month average rate.
Prakriti 2026, at which the Indian Carbon Market Portal was launched, was organised by:
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Correct answer: D — Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Prakriti 2026, the International Conference on Carbon Markets, was organised by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency.
According to the Power Minister on 21 March 2026, GEI targets have been notified for about how many obligated entities under the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme?
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Correct answer: B — About 490
GEI targets have been notified for nearly 490 obligated entities across seven energy-intensive sectors.
Consider the following about the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme as described on 21 March 2026: 1. It has nine notified methodologies on the offset side. 2. Compliance targets cover obligated entities across twelve energy-intensive sectors. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
There are nine notified methodologies; compliance targets cover about 490 entities across seven, not twelve, energy-intensive sectors.
Which body constituted the Expert Committee on Invasive Alien Species in March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — National Biodiversity Authority
The National Biodiversity Authority constituted the committee following NGT directions.
Who chairs the NBA's Expert Committee on Invasive Alien Species?
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Correct answer: A — Dhananjai Mohan
Dhananjai Mohan, former PCCF and Head of Forest Force, Uttarakhand, chairs it; Prof. A. Biju Kumar is Co-Chair.
Consider the following about the NBA's Expert Committee on Invasive Alien Species: 1. It was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. It followed a suo motu proceeding of the National Green Tribunal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The committee was constituted under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (as amended in 2023), so statement 1 is wrong; it followed NGT's suo motu case O.A. No. 162/2023.
Under the modified MCGS-MSME of March 2026, what guarantee coverage is offered to eligible exporters?
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Correct answer: C — 75% of the amount in default
Exporters get 75% coverage on a ₹20 crore guaranteed loan, compared with the base 60% cover of the scheme.
Consider the following about the modifications to MCGS-MSME in March 2026: 1. Service-sector MSMEs have been included in the scheme. 2. The minimum share of equipment/machinery in project cost has been raised from 60% to 75%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Service-sector MSMEs were added; the minimum equipment/machinery share was reduced to 60% from 75%, not raised, so statement 2 is wrong.
Prime Minister Modi spoke with which Iranian President on 21 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Masoud Pezeshkian
PM Modi spoke with Iranian President Dr. Masoud Pezeshkian and conveyed Eid and Nowruz greetings.
During his call with the Iranian President on 21 March 2026, PM Modi conveyed greetings for which two occasions?
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Correct answer: B — Eid and Nowruz
Modi conveyed Eid and Nowruz greetings and hoped the festive season would bring peace to West Asia.
In the first stage of EVM randomisation, EVMs are randomly allocated:
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Correct answer: C — From district warehouses to Assembly Constituencies
In the first stage EVMs move from district warehouses to ACs; in the second stage from AC level to polling stations.
Through which software system was the first randomisation of EVM-VVPATs carried out in March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — EVM Management System (EMS)
District Election Officers carried out the first randomisation through the EVM Management System (EMS).
Consider the following about the first randomisation of EVM-VVPATs in March 2026: 1. Only machines that passed First Level Checking were included. 2. It was carried out in the presence of representatives of recognised political parties. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: only FLC-passed EVM-VVPATs were randomised, in the presence of representatives of National and State recognised parties.
Which of the following states was NOT among those that signed reform-linked JJM 2.0 MoUs on 20 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Rajasthan
The MoUs were signed with Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Goa; Rajasthan was not among them.
On which date did the Union Cabinet approve Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0?
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Correct answer: B — 10 March 2026
The Union Cabinet approved JJM 2.0 on 10 March 2026; state MoUs followed on 20 March and guidelines were released on 22 March.
By how much did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries grow in February 2026 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: B — 2.3%
The ICI grew 2.3% in February 2026; 4.7% was the final January figure and 2.9% the April–February cumulative growth.
Which of the eight core industries carries the largest weight in the Index of Eight Core Industries?
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Correct answer: D — Petroleum refinery products
Petroleum refinery products have the largest weight, 28.04%.
Consider the following about the core industries data for February 2026: 1. Crude oil and natural gas production declined compared with February 2025. 2. The eight core industries together account for about 40% of the weight of items in the IIP. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: crude oil fell 5.2% and natural gas 5.0%, and the core industries make up 40.27% of the IIP weight.
On 20 March 2026, India crossed which coal production milestone for the second year in a row?
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Correct answer: C — 1 billion tonnes
India reached 1 billion tonnes of coal production on 20 March 2026, for the second consecutive year.
Consider the following about India's coal output milestone of March 2026: 1. It was the first time India produced 1 billion tonnes of coal in a year. 2. The Ministry said it enabled record-high coal stocks at thermal power plants. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
It was the second year in a row, not the first, so statement 1 is wrong; the ministry said it supported record-high coal stocks at thermal plants.
Exercise Lamitiye, held in March 2026, is a military exercise between India and:
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Correct answer: C — Seychelles
Lamitiye is an India–Seychelles exercise; the 2026 edition was the first tri-services edition.
Which Indian Navy ship took part in Exercise Lamitiye 2026?
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Correct answer: D — INS Trikand
Stealth frigate INS Trikand took part and departed Port Victoria on 20 March 2026.
Consider the following about Exercise Lamitiye 2026: 1. It was the first edition of the exercise in which the Indian Navy participated. 2. The word 'Lamitiye' means 'friendship' in Creole. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the 2026 tri-services edition marked the Indian Navy's maiden participation, and Lamitiye means 'friendship' in Creole.
The Nd-Fe-B magnets to be made at the new ARCI pilot plant are made of:
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Correct answer: D — Neodymium, iron and boron
Nd-Fe-B stands for neodymium-iron-boron rare earth permanent magnets.
ARCI, Hyderabad, where the Nd-Fe-B magnet pilot plant was set up, is an autonomous institution under:
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Correct answer: A — Department of Science and Technology
ARCI is an autonomous institution of the Department of Science and Technology; DST Secretary Abhay Karandikar inaugurated the plant.
Consider the following about the ARCI Nd-Fe-B pilot plant: 1. It covers only the final magnetisation step, using imported sintered blocks. 2. Nd-Fe-B magnets are used in electric vehicles and renewable energy systems. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The plant is end-to-end, from strip-cast alloy to finished sintered magnets, so statement 1 is wrong; Nd-Fe-B magnets are essential for EVs and renewable energy systems.
PM Modi spoke with King Hamad Bin Isa Al Khalifa on 20 March 2026. He is the King of:
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Correct answer: D — Bahrain
King Hamad Bin Isa Al Khalifa is the King of Bahrain.
In his call with the King of Bahrain on 20 March 2026, PM Modi said attacks on energy and civilian infrastructure hurt global security of:
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Correct answer: A — Food, fuel and fertiliser
Modi underlined the adverse impact of such attacks on global food, fuel and fertiliser security.
The National Dental Commission, which came into effect on 19 March 2026, replaced:
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Correct answer: D — Dental Council of India
The NDC and its three autonomous boards replace the Dental Council of India, which is dissolved from 19 March 2026.
Who was appointed Chairperson of the National Dental Commission in March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Sanjay Tewari
Dr Sanjay Tewari is the Chairperson of the NDC; Dr Janakiram heads the education board and Lt Gen (Retd) Sahoo the assessment board.
Who heads the Dental Assessment and Rating Board under the National Dental Commission?
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Correct answer: B — Lt Gen (Retd) Nanda Kishore Sahoo
Lt Gen (Retd) Nanda Kishore Sahoo is President of the Dental Assessment and Rating Board; Dr Himanshu Aeran is its Whole Time Member.
Consider the following about the National Dental Commission (NDC): 1. With the NDC Act in force from 19 March 2026, the Dentists Act, 1948 stands repealed. 2. The NDC has four autonomous boards, including a separate Dental Research Board. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the NDC has three autonomous boards – UG & PG Dental Education, Dental Assessment and Rating, and Ethics and Dental Registration.
Which body is the nodal and implementing agency for the RELIEF export intervention approved in March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ECGC Ltd
ECGC Ltd has been designated the nodal and implementing agency for verification, claim processing, disbursement and monitoring under RELIEF.
RELIEF, approved on 19 March 2026 to help exporters amid West Asia disruption, is an intervention under:
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Correct answer: D — Export Promotion Mission
RELIEF (Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation) is an intervention under the Export Promotion Mission (EPM).
What is the approved financial outlay for RELIEF under the Export Promotion Mission?
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Correct answer: A — ₹497 crore
RELIEF will be implemented under the Export Promotion Mission with an approved outlay of ₹497 crore.
Consider the following about RELIEF (March 2026): 1. ECGC-insured consignments shipped between 14 February and 15 March 2026 can get up to 100% risk cover over and above existing ECGC cover. 2. Non-ECGC-insured MSME exporters can get full reimbursement of freight surcharges with no ceiling. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: non-insured MSME exporters get partial reimbursement of up to 50%, capped at ₹50 lakh per exporter.
According to NITI Aayog's March 2026 report, India's current share of global sports equipment exports is about:
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Correct answer: A — 0.5%
India exports about $275 million of sports equipment a year, around 0.5% of the global export market; 11% is the 2036 potential.
Consider the following about NITI Aayog's report on sports equipment manufacturing (March 2026): 1. Nearly half of the sector's production comes from large enterprises. 2. The existing clusters recommended for modernisation are Ludhiana and Kanpur. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: nearly 90% of production is by small and micro enterprises, and the clusters to be modernised are Meerut and Jalandhar.
Which State auctioned the most mineral blocks in FY 2025-26, when India auctioned a record 200 blocks?
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Correct answer: D — Gujarat
Gujarat led with 32 blocks, followed by Rajasthan (30) and Tamil Nadu (22).
Which mineral accounted for the largest number of blocks auctioned in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — Limestone
Limestone accounted for 76 blocks, the most auctioned mineral, followed by iron ore (40) and bauxite (30).
Consider the following about mineral block auctions in FY 2025-26: 1. A majority of the 200 auctioned blocks were Composite Licence blocks. 2. Tamil Nadu conducted mineral block auctions for the first time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: 123 of the 200 were Mining Lease blocks and 77 Composite Licence blocks. Statement 2 is correct.
Electors above 85 and flagged PwDs who want to vote by postal ballot in the 2026 Assembly elections must apply using:
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Correct answer: A — Form 12D
Such electors can avail the facility using Form 12D, submitted to the Returning Officer through their BLO within 5 days of notification.
Consider the following about the postal ballot facility for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Form 12D can be submitted up to 15 days after the notification of election. 2. The facility for electors above 85 and PwDs flows from Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Form 12D must be submitted within 5 days of notification. Statement 2 is correct.
On 19 March 2026, PM Modi spoke by phone with leaders of several countries about West Asia. Which of these was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: B — Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman of Saudi Arabia
On 19 March 2026 the PM spoke with the leaders of France, Malaysia, Oman, Jordan and Qatar; Saudi Arabia was not among them.
In his calls of 19 March 2026, with which two leaders did PM Modi explicitly affirm safe and free navigation through the Strait of Hormuz?
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Correct answer: C — Sultan of Oman and Amir of Qatar
The PMO releases on the calls with Sultan Haitham bin Tariq of Oman and Amir Sheikh Tamim of Qatar mention safe and free navigation through the Strait of Hormuz; with Jordan the PM backed unhindered transit of goods and energy.
According to the India Bioeconomy Report 2026, India's bioeconomy in 2025 was valued at about:
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Correct answer: C — USD 195 billion
IBER 2026 puts India's bioeconomy at USD 195.3 billion in 2025; USD 300 billion is the 2030 target.
The India Bioeconomy Report (IBER) 2026 was released at the 14th Foundation Day of:
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Correct answer: D — BIRAC
IBER 2026 and the BIRAC Impact Report were released at the 14th Foundation Day of the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).
Consider the following about India's bioeconomy (IBER 2026): 1. It contributes around 4.8% to the national GDP. 2. India's bioeconomy target is USD 300 billion by 2030. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the bioeconomy contributes about 4.8% of GDP, and the Minister said India is moving towards a USD 300 billion target by 2030.
Which organisation will anchor implementation of the BHAVYA scheme for 100 plug-and-play industrial parks?
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Correct answer: B — NICDC
The National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC), under DPIIT, will anchor the BHAVYA scheme.
Consider the following: 1. The BHAVYA scheme aims to develop 100 plug-and-play industrial parks under the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme. 2. NICDC is the Project Management Agency for seven PM MITRA Parks of the Ministry of Textiles. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry's release of 19 March 2026.
After the EPMC gas bidding of March 2026, total gas supply to urea plants rose from 32 MMSCMD to:
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Correct answer: B — 39.31 MMSCMD
An additional 7.31 MMSCMD of spot gas raised supply to urea plants by 23%, from 32 to 39.31 MMSCMD.
Consider the following about fertiliser supply as of 19 March 2026: 1. DAP stocks were lower than on the same date in 2025. 2. Domestic urea production is projected to rise from 54,500 to 67,000 tonnes a day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: DAP stocks more than doubled to 24.24 LMT from 11.85 LMT. Statement 2 is correct.
As on 31 January 2026, India's overall tele-density including M2M cellular mobile connections was:
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Correct answer: C — 92.22%
Overall tele-density with M2M connections was 92.22%; without M2M it was 84.26%.
What is the outlay of the Small Hydro Power Development Scheme (FY 2026-27 to 2030-31) approved in March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2,584.60 crore
The Cabinet approved the SHP Development Scheme with an outlay of ₹2,584.60 crore for about 1,500 MW.
The Small Hydro Power Development Scheme (2026-31) supports projects of what capacity range?
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Correct answer: A — 1–25 MW
The scheme supports small hydro projects of between 1 and 25 MW capacity.
Consider the following about the Small Hydro Power Development Scheme (2026-31): 1. In North Eastern states and international border districts, central assistance is ₹3.6 crore per MW or 30% of project cost, whichever is lower, capped at ₹30 crore per project. 2. The scheme aims at about 1,500 MW of small hydro capacity. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet decision of 18 March 2026.
BHAVYA, approved by the Union Cabinet on 18 March 2026, stands for:
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna
BHAVYA is the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna, approved with ₹33,660 crore for 100 plug-and-play industrial parks.
What allocation has been approved for the BHAVYA scheme for 100 plug-and-play industrial parks?
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Correct answer: A — ₹33,660 crore
The Cabinet approved BHAVYA with an allocation of ₹33,660 crore.
Under BHAVYA, financial support for core, value-added and social infrastructure is available up to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹1 crore per acre
Financial support of up to ₹1 crore per acre will be provided for core, value-added and social infrastructure.
Consider the following about the BHAVYA scheme: 1. Industrial parks ranging from 100 to 1,000 acres will be taken up. 2. Projects will be selected on a first-come, first-served basis. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: projects will be selected through a challenge mode.
For the 2026 Assembly elections in five States/UTs, the ECI deployed roughly one election official for every how many electors?
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Correct answer: C — 70
Over 25 lakh officials for over 17.4 crore electors amounts to nearly one official for every 70 electors.
Consider the following about the ECI's deployment for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Expenditure Observers outnumber General Observers among the Central Observers. 2. Deployed personnel are deemed to be on deputation to the ECI under Section 28A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: there are 557 General Observers and 366 Expenditure Observers. Statement 2 is correct.
ALMM List-III, announced by MNRE in March 2026, covers which solar products?
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Correct answer: B — Ingots and wafers
MNRE expanded the ALMM Order to introduce List-III for ingots and wafers; modules and cells were already covered.
From which date must all solar projects use ALMM List-III compliant wafers?
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Correct answer: C — 1 June 2028
The effective date is 1 June 2028, from which all projects, including net-metering and open-access projects, must use ALMM-listed wafers.
In March 2026 the CCEA approved MSP funding of ₹1,718.56 crore for the 2023-24 cotton season to:
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Correct answer: A — Cotton Corporation of India
The MSP funding of ₹1,718.56 crore was approved for the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI), the central nodal agency for cotton MSP operations.
Consider the following about MSP operations in cotton: 1. CCI procures Fair Average Quality cotton subject to a quantity ceiling per farmer. 2. The MSP for seed cotton (kapas) is fixed on the recommendations of the CACP. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: CCI procures all FAQ cotton without any quantitative ceiling when prices fall below MSP. Statement 2 is correct.
Who assumed charge as Chairperson of the National Commission for Backward Classes on 18 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Sadhvi Niranjan Jyoti
Sadhvi Niranjan Jyoti assumed charge as NCBC Chairperson with effect from 18 March 2026; Kiran Umesh Mahalle joined as Member on 20 March.
Kiran Umesh Mahalle, who joined the NCBC as a Member in March 2026, was earlier Mayor of which Municipal Corporation?
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Correct answer: A — Amravati
Kiran Umesh Mahalle has served as Mayor of the Municipal Corporation, Amravati.
Consider the following about the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), whose Chairperson took charge in March 2026: 1. The NCBC is a constitutional body under Article 338B, inserted by the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018. 2. Before 2018, the NCBC functioned as a statutory body under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 inserted Article 338B and gave the NCBC constitutional status; it was earlier constituted under the NCBC Act, 1993, which was repealed in 2018.
On 18 March 2026, PM Modi condemned attacks on the sovereignty of which country during a call with its Crown Prince?
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Correct answer: A — Kuwait
PM Modi spoke with Kuwait's Crown Prince Sheikh Sabah Al-Khaled Al-Hamad Al-Mubarak Al-Sabah and condemned attacks on Kuwait's sovereignty and territorial integrity.
How many Central Observers did the Election Commission deploy for the 2026 Assembly elections in five States/UTs and the bye-elections?
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Correct answer: C — 1,111
The ECI deployed 1,111 observers: 557 general, 188 police and 366 expenditure observers.
The Election Commission appoints Central Observers under Article 324 of the Constitution read with which provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1951?
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Correct answer: D — Section 20B
Central Observers are appointed under Article 324 and Section 20B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.