CUET Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
With which Myanmar leader did PM Narendra Modi speak on 29 March 2025 after the earthquake?
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Correct answer: D — Min Aung Hlaing
The PM spoke with Senior General Min Aung Hlaing and conveyed India's condolences and support under Operation Brahma.
The 118-member Indian Army medical team sent to Myanmar under Operation Brahma on 29 March 2025 was drawn from which formation?
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Correct answer: D — Shatrujeet Brigade Medical Responders
The team came from the Shatrujeet Brigade Medical Responders, led by Lt Col Jagneet Gill.
On 29 March 2025, the Indian Army said it would set up a Medical Treatment Centre of what capacity in Myanmar under Operation Brahma?
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Correct answer: B — 60 beds
The Army said it would establish a 60-bed Medical Treatment Centre for trauma cases and emergency surgery.
Consider the following statements about the naval component of Operation Brahma: 1. INS Satpura and INS Savitri, which sailed for Yangon on 29 March 2025, belong to the Eastern Naval Command. 2. INS Karmuk and LCU 52 sailed from the Western Naval Command. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Satpura and Savitri are from the Eastern Naval Command. Karmuk and LCU 52 sailed from the Andaman and Nicobar Command, not the Western Naval Command.
What was the magnitude of the earthquake that struck near Mandalay, Myanmar, on 28 March 2025, as recorded by the USGS?
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Correct answer: C — 7.7
The USGS recorded the 28 March 2025 Mandalay earthquake at magnitude 7.7.
The Myanmar earthquake of 28 March 2025 occurred at 06:20:52 UTC. What was the time in India (IST)?
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Correct answer: B — 11:50 am
IST is UTC + 5:30, so 06:20 UTC was 11:50 am IST. Myanmar time (UTC + 6:30) was 12:50 pm.
On 28 March 2025, PM Narendra Modi asked the MEA to remain in touch with the governments of which two countries after the earthquake?
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Correct answer: D — Myanmar and Thailand
The PM asked the MEA to remain in touch with the governments of Myanmar and Thailand, both hit by the earthquake.
Consider the following statements about the 28 March 2025 Mandalay earthquake: 1. It ruptured about 475 km of the Sagaing Fault, as found by USGS researchers. 2. It was a deep-focus earthquake, originating more than 300 km below the surface. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
USGS researchers found a rupture of about 475 km on the Sagaing Fault. The quake was shallow (about 10 km deep), not deep-focus.
How many Light Combat Helicopters Prachand did the Ministry of Defence contract from HAL on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 156
The two contracts cover 156 LCH Prachand helicopters worth ₹62,700 crore.
How are the 156 LCH Prachand helicopters ordered on 28 March 2025 split between the services?
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Correct answer: B — 66 IAF and 90 Army
The first contract is for 66 LCHs for the IAF and the second for 90 LCHs for the Army.
Along with the LCH contracts on 28 March 2025, the Ministry of Defence signed a contract with Metrea Management for:
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Correct answer: D — Wet lease of one flight refuelling aircraft
MoD signed a contract with Metrea Management to wet-lease one KC-135 flight refuelling aircraft to train IAF and Navy pilots in air-to-air refuelling.
Consider the following statements about the LCH Prachand, as stated by the Ministry of Defence on 28 March 2025: 1. It is India's first indigenously designed and developed combat helicopter and can operate above 5,000 metres. 2. Indigenous content of over 65% is planned during this procurement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The MoD described the LCH as India's first indigenous combat helicopter able to operate above 5,000 m and planned over 65% indigenous content.
Which Bill did the Lok Sabha pass on 27 March 2025 after a reply by Home Minister Amit Shah?
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Correct answer: C — Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025
The Lok Sabha passed the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 on 27 March 2025.
How many existing laws does the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 replace, as stated by the Home Minister on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Four
The Home Minister said the Bill replaces four existing laws; three of them date from 1920, 1939 and 1946.
The Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 gives a legal framework to which system for tracking foreign nationals?
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Correct answer: C — IVFRT
The Bill gives legal backing to the Immigration, Visa and Foreigners Registration and Tracking (IVFRT) system.
Consider the following statements made by the Home Minister on the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 on 27 March 2025: 1. Three of the laws being replaced were enacted in 1920, 1939 and 1946. 2. The District Police Module (Foreigners Identification Portal) had been launched in only about 200 districts. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Three of the replaced laws date from 1920, 1939 and 1946. The Home Minister said the Foreigners Identification Portal had been launched in over 700 districts, not about 200.
What was the total value of the six ODA loan agreements India signed with JICA on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — JPY 191.736 billion
The six loan agreements were worth JPY 191.736 billion in total.
Which project received the largest loan among the six Japanese ODA agreements signed on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Delhi MRTS Project (Phase 4 Additional Corridors) (I)
The Delhi MRTS Phase 4 Additional Corridors (I) loan was the largest at JPY 79.726 billion.
Under the Japanese ODA loans signed on 27 March 2025, an aquaculture promotion and livelihood improvement project is in which State?
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Correct answer: C — Assam
The Assam State Aquaculture Promotion and Livelihood Improvement Project received JPY 3.580 billion.
Consider the following statements about the Japanese ODA loans signed on 27 March 2025: 1. Two of the six loans are for projects in Tamil Nadu. 2. The Punjab project financed under these loans is an urban transport project. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Tamil Nadu has two: the Chennai desalination plant and the TN Investment Promotion Program. The Punjab project is for biodiversity and natural resources conservation, not urban transport.
The Tribhuvan Sahkari University Bill, passed by the Lok Sabha on 26 March 2025, seeks to set up India's first university dedicated to which sector?
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Correct answer: D — Cooperatives
It will be India's first university dedicated to the cooperative sector.
Tribhuvan Sahkari University is named after Tribhuvandas Patel, a pioneer associated with which cooperative institution?
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Correct answer: B — Amul (GCMMF)
Tribhuvandas Patel is associated with the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation, popularly known as Amul.
According to Amit Shah on 26 March 2025, Tribhuvan Sahkari University will be able to award diplomas, degrees or certificates to about how many candidates a year?
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Correct answer: C — 8 lakh
Amit Shah said the university will have the capacity to train about 8 lakh people a year.
With which company did the Ministry of Defence sign the contract for ATAGS guns on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Forge Limited
The ATAGS contract was signed with Bharat Forge Limited; the gun-towing vehicles contract went to Tata Advanced Systems.
What is the calibre of the ATAGS guns contracted on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 155mm/52
ATAGS is a 155mm/52 calibre towed artillery gun system.
Which DRDO laboratory developed the ATAGS, whose project director was felicitated on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ARDE, Pune
ATAGS was developed by DRDO's Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune.
Consider the following statements about the ATAGS procurement of 26 March 2025: 1. It is the Indian Army's first major procurement of towed guns from the private sector. 2. With it, MoD's capital procurement contracts in 2024-25 crossed ₹2 lakh crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ATAGS is the Army's first major towed-gun buy from the private sector. On 26 March 2025, capital contracts for 2024-25 stood at ₹1.40 lakh crore, not over ₹2 lakh crore.
Which components of the Gold Monetisation Scheme were discontinued with effect from 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposits
The Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposit (MLTGD) components were discontinued; the Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at banks' discretion.
After the March 2025 changes to the Gold Monetisation Scheme, what happens to the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years)?
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Correct answer: D — It continues at the discretion of individual banks based on commercial viability
The Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at the discretion of individual banks, based on their assessment of commercial viability.
What happens to gold already deposited under the Medium and Long Term Government Deposit components of the GMS, after they were discontinued in March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — It continues until redemption as per existing guidelines
Existing deposits under MLTGD continue until redemption as per the extant GMS guidelines.
Consider the following statements about the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS): 1. The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce India's reliance on gold imports in the long run. 2. Under the GMS, the Long Term Government Deposit had a tenure of 12–15 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce reliance on gold imports and mobilise household and institutional gold. Its components were the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years), Medium Term Government Deposit (5–7 years) and Long Term Government Deposit (12–15 years).
Which House passed the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 on 25 March 2025, completing its passage through Parliament?
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Correct answer: A — Rajya Sabha
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 25 March 2025 after Home Minister Amit Shah's reply, completing its passage through Parliament.
The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament in March 2025, enables state governments to set up which new body?
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Correct answer: D — Urban Disaster Management Authority
The Bill enables Urban Disaster Management Authorities, fully under state governments, for state capitals and cities with municipal corporations.
According to Amit Shah's reply in the Rajya Sabha on 25 March 2025, at which levels will the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill create disaster databases?
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Correct answer: A — National and state levels
Amit Shah said the Bill would create disaster databases at the national and state levels.
Consider the following statements about the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament on 25 March 2025: 1. It gives statutory status to the National Crisis Management Committee, which is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. 2. It gives statutory status to the High Level Committee, which is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Per PRS, the NCMC is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. The HLC, which approves financial assistance to states, is chaired by the minister in charge of the ministry with administrative control over disaster management, not the Prime Minister.
What was the theme of World TB Day 2025, observed on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Yes! We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, Deliver
The theme of World TB Day 2025 was 'Yes! We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, Deliver'.
How many people were screened for TB during the 100-day intensified TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, as announced on World TB Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 12.97 crore
12.97 crore people were screened and 7.19 lakh TB patients notified, about 2.85 lakh of them asymptomatic.
According to Health Minister J.P. Nadda on 24 March 2025, TB treatment coverage in India has risen from 59% to what level?
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Correct answer: C — 85%
Nadda said TB treatment coverage in India had increased from 59% to 85%.
Consider the following statements about World TB Day: 1. It marks the discovery of the TB-causing bacterium by Dr. Robert Koch in 1882. 2. India has been observing the day since 1982. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
World TB Day, observed on 24 March, marks Robert Koch's discovery of the TB bacterium in 1882. India has observed it since 1982 along with the global community.
What is the revised monthly salary of a Member of Parliament under the notification of 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1.24 lakh
An MP's monthly salary was raised from ₹1 lakh to ₹1.24 lakh, a 24% increase, with effect from 1 April 2023.
From which date does the hike in MPs' salary and pension, notified on 24 March 2025, take effect?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 2023
The revision was notified with retrospective effect from 1 April 2023.
Under the March 2025 revision, the monthly pension of former MPs was raised from ₹25,000 to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹31,000
The pension for former MPs rose from ₹25,000 to ₹31,000 a month; additional pension per year beyond five years rose from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500.
Consider the following statements about the revision of MPs' salaries notified on 24 March 2025: 1. It was made under the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954. 2. The increase was linked to the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The revision was notified under the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954, on the basis of the Cost Inflation Index specified in the Income-tax Act, 1961, not the CPI for Industrial Workers.
From which date did the Centre withdraw the 20% export duty on onions, as notified on 22 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2025
The notification issued on 22 March 2025 made the onion export duty nil with effect from 1 April 2025.
Since when had the 20% export duty on onions, withdrawn in March 2025, been in force?
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Correct answer: C — 13 September 2024
The 20% duty had been in place from 13 September 2024. Exports were prohibited earlier, from 8 December 2023 to 3 May 2024.
What was the estimated rabi onion production for 2025, cited when the onion export duty was withdrawn in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 227 lakh tonnes
Rabi production was estimated at 227 lakh metric tonnes, over 18% higher than 192 LMT the previous year.
Consider the following statements about the withdrawal of the onion export duty in March 2025: 1. It was done through a notification issued under Section 25(1) of the Customs Act, 1962. 2. The notification was issued by the Department of Commerce. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Notification No. 19/2025-Customs was issued by the Department of Revenue (Ministry of Finance) under Section 25(1) of the Customs Act, 1962, on the communication of the Department of Consumer Affairs.
According to the India Bioeconomy Report 2025, released on 21 March 2025, what was the size of India's bioeconomy in 2024?
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Correct answer: B — $165.7 billion
IBER 2025 put India's bioeconomy at $165.7 billion in 2024, up from $10 billion in 2014.
What share of India's GDP did the bioeconomy contribute, as per the India Bioeconomy Report 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 4.25%
IBER 2025 says the bioeconomy contributes 4.25% to India's GDP.
What is 'BioSaarthi', launched by Dr Jitendra Singh on 21 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — A global mentorship initiative for biotech startups
BioSaarthi is a six-month cohort-based global mentorship initiative for biotech startups, engaging overseas experts, especially from the Indian diaspora.
How many biotech startups does India have, as cited at the release of the India Bioeconomy Report 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 10,075
The Minister said biotech startups have grown from about 50 a decade ago to over 10,075.
Consider the following statements about the India Bioeconomy Report 2025: 1. India's bioeconomy surpassed the target of $150 billion set for 2025. 2. The bioeconomy grew at a CAGR of 17.9% over the past four years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
IBER 2025 says the bioeconomy reached $165.7 billion in 2024, surpassing the $150 billion target for 2025, with a CAGR of 17.9% over the past four years.
What was India's rank in the World Happiness Report 2025, released on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 118th
India ranked 118th of 147 countries, up from 126th in 2024.
Which country was ranked the happiest in the World Happiness Report 2025, for the eighth year in a row?
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Correct answer: A — Finland
Finland led the ranking for the eighth consecutive year with an average score of 7.736.
What was the theme of the World Happiness Report 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Caring and sharing
The 2025 report focused on the impact of caring and sharing on people's happiness.
Consider the following statements about the World Happiness Report 2025: 1. It is published by the Wellbeing Research Centre at the University of Oxford, in partnership with Gallup and the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network. 2. It is released every year to mark World Mental Health Day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The report is published by Oxford's Wellbeing Research Centre with Gallup, the UN SDSN and an independent editorial board. It is released to mark the UN International Day of Happiness on 20 March, not World Mental Health Day (10 October).
On which date did India's coal production cross one billion tonnes in the financial year 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 20 March 2025
The Ministry of Coal said production crossed 1 BT on 20 March 2025.
What was India's total coal production in FY 2023-24, which was surpassed in March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 997.83 MT
The 1 BT milestone came 11 days ahead of the previous fiscal's production of 997.83 million tonnes.
According to the Ministry of Coal in March 2025, about what share of India's electricity is generated by coal-based plants?
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Correct answer: D — About 74%
Around 74% of India's electricity is generated by coal-based power plants; coal is about 55% of the energy mix.
Consider the following statements made by the Ministry of Coal when coal output crossed 1 billion tonnes in March 2025: 1. Coal accounts for about 55% of India's energy mix. 2. India's coal imports rose during April–December 2024 compared with the previous year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The ministry said coal is about 55% of the energy mix, and that coal imports declined by 8.4% in April–December 2024, saving about $5.43 billion.
What was the total value of the capital acquisition proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Over ₹54,000 crore
The DAC accorded AoN to eight proposals amounting to over ₹54,000 crore.
The DAC on 20 March 2025 approved upgrading the engines of T-90 tanks from 1000 HP to:
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Correct answer: B — 1350 HP
AoN was accorded for 1350 HP engines to upgrade the present 1000 HP engines of T-90 tanks.
Which aircraft systems did the DAC clear for the Indian Air Force on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Airborne Early Warning & Control (AEW&C) systems
For the IAF, the DAC accorded AoN for Airborne Early Warning & Control aircraft systems.
Consider the following statements about the DAC decisions of 20 March 2025: 1. Varunastra, cleared for the Navy, is an indigenous ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo developed by the Naval Science & Technological Laboratory. 2. The engine upgrade cleared for the Army was for Arjun main battle tanks. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Varunastra is an indigenously developed ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo from NSTL. The 1350 HP engine upgrade was for T-90 tanks, not Arjun.
From which date did the PFRDA regulations operationalising the Unified Pension Scheme, notified in March 2025, come into effect?
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Correct answer: C — 1 April 2025
The PFRDA regulations, notified by gazette dated 19 March 2025, came into effect on 1 April 2025.
Under the Unified Pension Scheme, the full assured payout is what share of the average basic pay of the last 12 months before superannuation?
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Correct answer: B — 50%
The full assured payout is 50% of the 12-month average basic pay immediately before superannuation, payable after at least 25 years of qualifying service.
What is the minimum guaranteed monthly payout under the Unified Pension Scheme for a subscriber who superannuates after at least 10 years of qualifying service?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
A minimum guaranteed payout of ₹10,000 a month applies when superannuation is after 10 or more years of qualifying service.
Consider the following statements about the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS): 1. Besides 10% to the employee's individual corpus, the government contributes an additional 8.5% to a pool corpus. 2. The family payout under UPS is 60% of the subscriber's payout. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PFRDA's comparison gives UPS contributions as 10% (employee) + 10% (Government) + 8.5% (pool corpus), and family benefits as 60% of the subscriber's payout. Both statements are correct.
What was the name of the SpaceX Dragon spacecraft that brought Sunita Williams and the Crew-9 astronauts back to Earth in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Freedom
NASA says the Dragon spacecraft Freedom splashed down off Tallahassee, Florida, returning Crew-9; it was Freedom's fourth flight.
Crew-9 splashed down at 5:57 pm EDT on 18 March 2025. What was this time in Indian Standard Time?
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Correct answer: C — 3:27 am IST, 19 March 2025
NASA's timeline puts splashdown at 21:57 GMT on 18 March; adding 5 hours 30 minutes gives 3:27 am IST on 19 March 2025.
How many days did Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore spend in space on the mission that ended with the Crew-9 splashdown in March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 286 days
NASA says Williams and Wilmore spent 286 days in space; 171 days was the figure for Hague and Gorbunov, and 608 days is Williams' career total.
Off the coast of which city did NASA's SpaceX Crew-9 splash down on 18 March 2025 (EDT)?
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Correct answer: D — Tallahassee, Florida
Crew-9 splashed down in the Gulf of America off the coast of Tallahassee, Florida.
Consider the following statements about the return of Sunita Williams in March 2025: 1. Williams and Butch Wilmore had reached the International Space Station in June 2024 aboard Boeing's Starliner on its Crew Flight Test. 2. The Crew-9 return was the first flight of the Dragon spacecraft Freedom. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Williams and Wilmore launched on Starliner on 5 June 2024 and reached the station on 6 June. Crew-9 was Freedom's fourth flight; it earlier flew Crew-4, Axiom Mission 2 and Axiom Mission 3.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the Election Commission say on 18 March 2025 that the right to vote can only be given to a citizen of India, while deciding on EPIC-Aadhaar linking?
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Correct answer: D — Article 326
The ECI said that as per Article 326 of the Constitution, voting right can only be given to a citizen of India, while Aadhaar only establishes identity.
Under which law's Sections 23(4), 23(5) and 23(6) will the linking of EPIC with Aadhaar be done, as decided by the ECI on 18 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Representation of the People Act, 1950
The ECI decided the linking will be done as per Article 326 and Sections 23(4), 23(5) and 23(6) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
Where did the Election Commission of India hold its meeting with the Union Home Secretary, MeitY Secretary and UIDAI CEO on EPIC-Aadhaar linking on 18 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Nirvachan Sadan, New Delhi
The meeting was held at Nirvachan Sadan, New Delhi, the ECI headquarters.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's decision of 18 March 2025 on EPIC-Aadhaar linking: 1. The Commission held that Aadhaar establishes both identity and citizenship of a person. 2. The linking is to be in line with the Supreme Court judgement in WP (Civil) No. 177/2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The ECI said Aadhaar only establishes identity, while voting rights under Article 326 are only for citizens, so statement 1 is wrong. The linking will follow the Supreme Court judgement in WP (Civil) No. 177/2023.
Which country's Prime Minister, Christopher Luxon, held talks with PM Narendra Modi in New Delhi on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — New Zealand
Christopher Luxon, Prime Minister of New Zealand, was on an official visit to India from 16 to 20 March 2025 and held talks with PM Modi on 17 March.
The Authorised Economic Operator Mutual Recognition Arrangement (AEO-MRA) signed during the India–New Zealand talks of 17 March 2025 was between New Zealand Customs Service and which Indian body?
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Correct answer: A — Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
The AEO-MRA was signed between the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) and the New Zealand Customs Service.
According to the India–New Zealand Joint Statement of 17 March 2025, people of Indian origin make up about what share of New Zealand's population?
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Correct answer: B — 6%
The joint statement noted that the Indian diaspora makes up about 6% of New Zealand's population.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Christopher Luxon's visit to India (March 2025): 1. New Zealand joined the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI). 2. New Zealand became a member of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI). 3. India and New Zealand signed a free trade agreement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
New Zealand joined IPOI and became a CDRI member. On trade, the leaders only welcomed the launch of negotiations on a comprehensive FTA — no agreement was signed.
The launch of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations on 16 March 2025 was marked by a meeting between Piyush Goyal and which New Zealand minister?
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Correct answer: B — Todd McClay
The launch was marked by a meeting between Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal and New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment Todd McClay in New Delhi.
India and New Zealand's earlier trade negotiations, which stalled in 2015 after nine rounds, were for which agreement?
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Correct answer: D — Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA)
India and New Zealand began negotiating a Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) in April 2010; the talks stalled in 2015 after nine rounds.
According to India's Commerce Ministry, the India–New Zealand FTA negotiations launched in March 2025 aim mainly to:
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Correct answer: B — Enhance supply chain integration and improve market access
The ministry said the negotiations aim to achieve balanced outcomes that enhance supply chain integration and improve market access.
Who was sworn in as Prime Minister of Canada on 14 March 2025, succeeding Justin Trudeau?
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Correct answer: D — Mark Carney
Mark Carney was sworn in as Canada's Prime Minister on 14 March 2025, replacing Justin Trudeau.
Mark Carney became Canada's Prime Minister of which number in March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 24th
The Prime Minister's Office states that Mark Carney is Canada's 24th Prime Minister.
Who presided over the swearing-in of Mark Carney as Canada's Prime Minister at Rideau Hall?
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Correct answer: A — Governor General Mary Simon
Governor General Mary Simon presided over the swearing-in ceremony at Rideau Hall on 14 March 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Canadian ministry sworn in on 14 March 2025: 1. It is the 30th Canadian Ministry and has 23 ministers besides the Prime Minister. 2. Mélanie Joly was moved from Foreign Affairs to Finance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct as per the Prime Minister's Office. Statement 2 is wrong: Joly stayed Foreign Minister, and François-Philippe Champagne became Finance Minister.
On which date did ISRO successfully undock the SpaDeX satellites?
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Correct answer: D — 13 March 2025
ISRO undocked the SpaDeX satellites at about 09:20 IST on 13 March 2025; they had been docked on 16 January 2025.
In what orbit did the SpaDeX undocking take place on 13 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 460 km circular orbit, 45° inclination
ISRO said the undocking took place in a 460 km circular orbit with 45-degree inclination.
Which of the following was NOT among the ground stations that monitored the SpaDeX undocking?
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Correct answer: A — Port Blair
ISRO said the operations were monitored from ground stations at Bengaluru, Lucknow and Mauritius.
Consider the following statements about ISRO's SpaDeX undocking: 1. It succeeded only on the second attempt after an aborted try on 10 March 2025. 2. With it, ISRO said it had demonstrated all capabilities required for rendezvous, docking and undocking in a circular orbit. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: ISRO undocked the satellites in the very first attempt on 13 March; 10–25 March was only the feasible window. Statement 2 is correct.
To what level did India and Mauritius elevate their relationship on 12 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Enhanced Strategic Partnership
The two Prime Ministers elevated ties to an 'Enhanced Strategic Partnership' during PM Modi's State Visit to Mauritius.
In which country did PM Modi unveil Vision MAHASAGAR for the Global South in March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Mauritius
PM Modi unveiled Vision MAHASAGAR in Mauritius on 12 March 2025 — the same country where he had unveiled Vision SAGAR in 2015.
Where in Mauritius is the Atal Bihari Vajpayee Institute of Public Service and Innovation, inaugurated on 12 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Réduit
PM Modi and PM Ramgoolam jointly inaugurated the institute at Réduit; it was built with an Indian grant of US$4.74 million.
Which of the following did India announce support for during PM Modi's March 2025 visit to Mauritius?
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Correct answer: D — A new Parliament building
PM Modi announced India's support for a new Parliament building in Mauritius and Phase II of High Impact Community Development Projects.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Mauritius in March 2025: 1. An agreement between the RBI and the Bank of Mauritius on a framework for using local currencies (INR or MUR) in cross-border transactions. 2. Handover of a navigational chart of St Brandon prepared after a hydrographic survey by an Indian naval ship. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are in the official List of Outcomes: the RBI–Bank of Mauritius local-currency framework, and the handover of the St Brandon navigational chart.
Which country conferred its highest civilian award on PM Narendra Modi on 12 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Mauritius
Mauritius conferred the Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean (GCSK) on PM Modi at its National Day celebrations.
What is the name of the Mauritian award conferred on PM Modi in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean
PM Modi received the GCSK — Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean — the highest civilian award of Mauritius.
Who conferred the GCSK award on PM Modi at the Mauritius National Day celebrations of 2025?
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Correct answer: B — President Dharambeer Gokhool
Mauritian President Dharambeer Gokhool conferred the GCSK on PM Modi on 12 March 2025.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's role at Mauritius's National Day in 2025: 1. It was the first time he was Chief Guest at the Mauritius National Day. 2. He is the first Indian leader to receive the GCSK. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Modi was also Chief Guest at the National Day in 2015, when he unveiled Vision SAGAR. Statement 2 is correct as per the PMO.
Up to which generation of people of Indian origin in Mauritius did PM Modi announce OCI card eligibility on 11 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Seventh
PM Modi announced a special carve-out for Mauritius under which OCI cards can be made available to the seventh generation of people of Indian origin.
Who was the President of Mauritius whom PM Modi called on at the State House on 11 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dharambeer Gokhool
PM Modi called on President Dharambeer Gokhool at the State House and handed OCI cards to him and First Lady Brinda Gokhool.
At which place in Mauritius did PM Modi pay homage at the Samadhis of Sir Seewoosagur Ramgoolam and Sir Anerood Jugnauth on 11 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Pamplemousses
The wreath-laying was at the Sir Seewoosagur Ramgoolam Botanic Garden, Pamplemousses, where the two leaders also planted a sapling under 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam'.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's engagements in Mauritius on 11 March 2025: 1. He addressed the Indian community at the Trianon Convention Centre along with PM Navinchandra Ramgoolam. 2. He visited an Ayurveda Garden at the State House set up in collaboration with the Government of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the community event was at the Trianon Convention Centre with PM Ramgoolam, and Modi visited the Ayurveda Garden at the State House, established with Indian collaboration.
Which town was named the world's most polluted metropolitan area in IQAir's World Air Quality Report 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Byrnihat
Byrnihat, on the Assam–Meghalaya border, topped the list with an annual average PM2.5 of 128.2 µg/m³.
What was India's rank among the most polluted countries in IQAir's World Air Quality Report 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Fifth
India ranked fifth at 50.6 µg/m³, improving from third in 2023.
Which country was ranked the most polluted in IQAir's World Air Quality Report 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Chad
Chad topped the list at 91.8 µg/m³, followed by Bangladesh, Pakistan, the DR Congo and India.
Consider the following statements about IQAir's World Air Quality Report 2024: 1. India's annual average PM2.5 concentration was more than ten times the WHO annual guideline of 5 µg/m³. 2. New Delhi was the most polluted capital city. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: India averaged 50.6 µg/m³ against the WHO guideline of 5 µg/m³, and New Delhi remained the world's most polluted capital.
Justice Joymalya Bagchi, whose appointment as a Supreme Court judge was notified on 10 March 2025, was a judge of which High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Calcutta High Court
Justice Bagchi was a judge of the Calcutta High Court, where he was appointed on 27 June 2011.
Under which provision of the Constitution did the President appoint Justice Joymalya Bagchi as a Supreme Court judge?
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Correct answer: D — Article 124(2)
The 10 March 2025 notification cites clause (2) of Article 124, under which the President appoints Supreme Court judges.
Who was the last Chief Justice of India from the Calcutta High Court before Justice Joymalya Bagchi's elevation, as noted by the Collegium in March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Justice Altamas Kabir
The Collegium noted that no CJI had come from the Calcutta High Court since Justice Altamas Kabir retired on 18 July 2013.
With Justice Joymalya Bagchi's appointment, the Supreme Court's working strength became 33 against a sanctioned strength of:
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Correct answer: C — 34
The sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court is 34 judges, including the Chief Justice of India.
Consider the following statements about Justice Joymalya Bagchi's elevation in March 2025: 1. He was first in the combined all-India seniority of High Court judges. 2. By seniority, he is in line to serve as Chief Justice of India from May 2031 until 2 October 2031. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the Collegium said he stood 11th in the combined all-India seniority, and cited regional representation. Statement 2 is correct.
Which team did India beat in the final of the ICC Men's Champions Trophy on 9 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — New Zealand
India beat New Zealand by four wickets in the final in Dubai.
Who was named Player of the Match in the ICC Champions Trophy 2025 final?
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Correct answer: D — Rohit Sharma
Captain Rohit Sharma was Player of the Match for his 76 off 83 balls.
Who was named Player of the Tournament at the ICC Champions Trophy 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rachin Ravindra
New Zealand's Rachin Ravindra was Player of the Tournament, finishing as the leading run-scorer with 263 runs.
Before 2025, in which years had India won the ICC Champions Trophy?
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Correct answer: A — 2002 and 2013
The ICC said India became the first side to win the competition three times, after their successes in 2002 and 2013.
Consider the following statements about the ICC Champions Trophy 2025: 1. India finished the tournament unbeaten. 2. The final was played at the Gaddafi Stadium, Lahore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct, as noted by the ICC. Statement 2 is wrong: under the hybrid model, India's matches including the final were played at the Dubai International Cricket Stadium.
What was the theme of the 7th Jan Aushadhi Diwas, observed on 7 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jan Aushadhi: Daam Kam Dawai Uttam
The 2025 theme was 'Jan Aushadhi: Daam Kam Dawai Uttam' (lower price, better medicine).
How many Jan Aushadhi Kendras were there after more than 200 new ones opened during the 2025 Jan Aushadhi week?
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Correct answer: C — 15,291
More than 200 new Jan Aushadhi Kendras opened, taking the total to 15,291 as of 7 March 2025.
On the 7th Jan Aushadhi Diwas (7 March 2025), Union Minister J.P. Nadda visited the Jan Aushadhi Kendra at which AIIMS?
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Correct answer: B — AIIMS Bilaspur
Nadda visited the Jan Aushadhi Kendra at AIIMS Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh, and interacted with beneficiaries.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP): 1. It began in November 2008 as the Jan Aushadhi Scheme of the Department of Pharmaceuticals. 2. It was revamped in 2015 as the Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Yojana before being given its present name. 3. It is administered by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
The scheme was launched in November 2008 by the Department of Pharmaceuticals with Central Pharma PSUs, revamped in September 2015 as Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Yojana, and later renamed PMBJP. It is under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, not the Health Ministry.