SF Prep

CLAT Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

7 days 1 month 3 months 6 months 12 months All
437 news · 1556 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 99 questions
DGCA imposes ₹22.20 crore penalty on IndiGo over December 2025 flight disruptions
Q1

What total financial penalty did DGCA impose on IndiGo over its December 2025 flight disruptions?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — ₹22.20 crore

PIB (Civil Aviation): ₹1.80 crore in one-time penalties plus ₹20.40 crore for 68 days of continued non-compliance, a total of ₹22.20 crore. The ₹50 crore is a bank guarantee, not a penalty.

Q2 Advanced

Under which scheme must IndiGo furnish a ₹50 crore bank guarantee, released in phases as reforms are verified?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — IndiGo Systemic Reform Assurance Scheme (ISRAS)

PIB (Civil Aviation): the ₹50 crore bank guarantee is under the IndiGo Systemic Reform Assurance Scheme (ISRAS).

Q3 Advanced

How many IndiGo flights were cancelled during the disruptions of 3–5 December 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2,507

PIB (Civil Aviation): 2,507 flights were cancelled and 1,852 delayed.

Q4 Advanced

Consider the following statements about DGCA's action on IndiGo (January 2026): 1. DGCA formed a four-member committee to inquire into the disruptions. 2. The penalties were imposed under Rule 133A of the Aircraft Rules, 1937. 3. Over 30 lakh passengers were affected by the disruptions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only

PIB (Civil Aviation): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: over 3 lakh (not 30 lakh) passengers were affected.

Q5 Advanced

Which IndiGo official is to be relieved of operational duties following DGCA's findings on the December 2025 disruptions?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — The SVP (OCC)

PIB (Civil Aviation): the CEO was cautioned and the COO warned, while the SVP (OCC) is to be relieved of operational duties.

Agriculture Minister details proposed Seed Act 2026: QR-code traceability and penalties up to ₹30 lakh
Q6

Under the proposed Seed Act 2026, what will every seed packet carry so that farmers can trace the seed's origin?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — A QR code

PIB (Agriculture): every seed packet will carry a QR code which, when scanned, shows complete information about its origin.

Q7 Advanced

What maximum penalty has been proposed under the new Seed Act for selling substandard seeds?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — ₹30 lakh

PIB (Agriculture): a penalty of up to ₹30 lakh and stringent punishment have been proposed for selling substandard seeds.

Q8 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the proposed Seed Act 2026, as explained by the Agriculture Minister: 1. Registration of seed companies will be mandatory. 2. Farmers will be barred from sharing their own seeds with other farmers. 3. A nationwide seed traceability system will be set up. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only

PIB (Agriculture): statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: farmers can sow their own seeds and share them with other farmers.

Startup India completes a decade; PM says India is the world's third-largest startup ecosystem
Q9

According to the PM's address on National Startup Day 2026, where does India rank among the world's startup ecosystems?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Third

PIB (PMO): the PM said India is today the world's third-largest startup ecosystem.

Q10 Advanced

How many startups does India have now, according to the PM at the Startup India decade programme?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — More than 2 lakh

PIB (PMO): fewer than 500 startups ten years ago have grown to more than 2 lakh today.

Q11 Advanced

According to the PM, India had only four unicorns in 2014. About how many active unicorns does it have now?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 125

PIB (PMO): India had only four unicorns in 2014; today there are nearly 125 active unicorns.

Q12

Where was the programme marking a decade of Startup India held on 16 January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam

PIB (PMO): the programme was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.

PM inaugurates 28th Conference of Commonwealth Speakers and Presiding Officers at Samvidhan Sadan
Q13

Where was the 28th Conference of Speakers and Presiding Officers of the Commonwealth (CSPOC) inaugurated in January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Central Hall, Samvidhan Sadan, New Delhi

PIB (PMO): the PM inaugurated the 28th CSPOC in the Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan, Parliament House Complex, New Delhi.

Q14 Advanced

What is the main theme of the 28th CSPOC hosted by India in January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Effective Delivery of Parliamentary Democracy

PIB (PMO): the PM said the main theme of the conference is 'Effective Delivery of Parliamentary Democracy'.

Q15 Advanced

According to the PM, how many times has India hosted the CSPOC, counting the 2026 edition?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Fourth time

PIB (PMO): the PM said this is the fourth occasion when the conference is being held in India.

NITI Aayog releases Export Preparedness Index 2024; Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat among leading large states
Q16 Advanced

The Export Preparedness Index 2024, released in January 2026, is which edition of the index?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Fourth

PIB (NITI Aayog): the first edition of the EPI was published in August 2020 and EPI 2024 is the 4th edition.

Q17 Advanced

Which of the following is NOT one of the four pillars of the Export Preparedness Index 2024?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Research & Innovation

PIB (NITI Aayog): the four pillars are Export Infrastructure, Business Ecosystem, Policy & Governance and Export Performance.

Q18 Advanced

Which of the following was NOT listed among the leading performers in the 'Large States' category of the Export Preparedness Index 2024?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Karnataka

PIB (NITI Aayog): the leading large states were Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh. Karnataka was not in the list.

Stitched sail ship INSV Kaundinya reaches Muscat on maiden voyage from Porbandar
Q19

From which Indian port did INSV Kaundinya begin the maiden voyage that ended in Muscat in January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Porbandar

PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): INSV Kaundinya arrived in Muscat after completing its maiden voyage from Porbandar.

Q20 Advanced

The design of INSV Kaundinya is inspired by a fifth-century CE vessel depicted in which artwork?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Ajanta Cave paintings

PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): INSV Kaundinya is inspired by a fifth-century CE vessel depicted in the Ajanta Cave paintings.

Q21 Advanced

INSV Kaundinya's arrival in Muscat came as India and Oman commemorate how many years of diplomatic relations?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 70 years

PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): both countries are commemorating 70 years of diplomatic relations.

PFRDA issues NPS Vatsalya Scheme Guidelines 2025 for minors' pension savings
Q22

What is the minimum initial and annual contribution under NPS Vatsalya, as per the guidelines issued in January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — ₹250

PIB (Finance): the minimum initial and annual contribution is ₹250, with no maximum limit.

Q23 Advanced

Consider the following statements about NPS Vatsalya: 1. It is open to NRIs and OCIs below 18 years of age. 2. Partial withdrawal is allowed after three years, up to 25% of own contributions. 3. There is a maximum annual contribution limit of ₹1.5 lakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only

PIB (Finance): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: there is no maximum limit on contribution.

Q24 Advanced

On which date was NPS Vatsalya launched by the Union Finance Minister?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 18 September 2024

PIB (Finance): NPS Vatsalya was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25 and launched on 18 September 2024.

German Chancellor Friedrich Merz makes first official visit to India; visa-free transit for Indians announced
Q25

In which city did PM Narendra Modi hold talks with German Chancellor Friedrich Merz on 12 January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Ahmedabad

PIB (PMO): PM Modi welcomed Chancellor Merz in Ahmedabad, and the two held restricted and delegation-level talks there on 12 January 2026.

Q26 Advanced

Consider the following statements about German Chancellor Friedrich Merz's visit to India in January 2026: 1. It was his first visit to Asia as Federal Chancellor. 2. 2026 marks 75 years of India–Germany diplomatic relations. 3. The visit followed the 7th India–Germany Inter-Governmental Consultations held in Berlin. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only

PIB (PMO Joint Statement): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the 7th IGC was held in New Delhi on 25 October 2024.

Q27 Advanced

Which travel facility for Indian passport holders was announced during German Chancellor Merz's visit to India in January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Visa-free transit through Germany

PIB (PMO List of Outcomes): the announcements included visa-free transit for Indian passport holders transiting through Germany.

CPI inflation at 1.33% in December 2025; food inflation negative for seventh month
Q28

What was India's year-on-year CPI (headline) inflation for December 2025, as released by MoSPI on 12 January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1.33%

PIB (MoSPI): headline CPI inflation for December 2025 was 1.33% (provisional), 62 basis points higher than November 2025.

Q29 Advanced

What was the all-India food inflation (CFPI) for December 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — −2.71%

PIB (MoSPI): CFPI inflation for December 2025 was −2.71% (provisional); rural −3.08% and urban −2.09%.

Q30 Advanced

Consider the following statements about CPI data for December 2025: 1. Headline inflation stayed below the RBI's lower tolerance limit for the fourth consecutive month. 2. Food inflation was negative for the seventh consecutive month. 3. Headline inflation fell compared with November 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only

PIB (MoSPI): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: headline inflation rose by 62 basis points over November 2025.

Q31 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India's inflation target, relevant to the December 2025 CPI data: 1. The Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, determines the inflation target under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934. 2. The target is 4% CPI inflation with a lower tolerance limit of 2% and an upper tolerance limit of 6%. 3. The six-member Monetary Policy Committee is constituted under Section 45ZA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only

RBI (Monetary Policy overview): the target is set under Section 45ZA, at 4% CPI with 2% and 6% tolerance limits, retained for April 2021 to March 2026. Statement 3 is wrong: the MPC is constituted under Section 45ZB.

Centre notifies National Sports Governance (National Sports Bodies) Rules, 2026
Q32 Advanced

Under which Act were the National Sports Governance (National Sports Bodies) Rules, 2026 notified?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — National Sports Governance Act, 2025

PIB (Sports): the Rules were notified under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025.

Q33 Advanced

Under the National Sports Governance (National Sports Bodies) Rules, 2026, what share of the Sportspersons of Outstanding Merit in a General Body must be women?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Fifty per cent

PIB (Sports): the Rules provide for at least four SOMs in General Bodies and specifically provide for fifty per cent women SOMs.

Q34 Advanced

What is the minimum age for a sportsperson applying to be designated a Sportsperson of Outstanding Merit (SOM) under the 2026 Rules?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 25 years

PIB (Sports): SOM applicants must be at least 25, retired from active sport, and must not have played selection-linked competition for at least one year.

India at 16th IRENA Assembly: 50% non-fossil power capacity reached five years ahead of NDC target
Q35

Where was the 16th Assembly of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) held in January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Abu Dhabi

PIB (MNRE): Pralhad Joshi addressed the 16th IRENA Assembly in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates.

Q36 Advanced

According to India's statement at the 16th IRENA Assembly, in which year did India reach 50% of installed electricity capacity from non-fossil sources?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2025

PIB (MNRE): India achieved 50% of its installed electricity capacity from non-fossil sources in 2025, five years ahead of its NDC target.

Q37 Advanced

Which country assumed the Presidency of IRENA at its 16th Assembly in January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Dominican Republic

PIB (MNRE): Joshi congratulated the Dominican Republic on assuming the IRENA Presidency; Kenya, Solomon Islands, Spain and Antigua and Barbuda are Vice Presidents.

Q38 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), as stated in January 2026: 1. IRENA has 170 members, including the European Union. 2. India is one of the founder members of IRENA. 3. India's target is 500 GW of non-fossil installed capacity by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3

PIB (MNRE): all three are correct — IRENA has 170 members (169 states and the EU), India is a founder member, and India's target is 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030.

India adds record 49.12 GW non-fossil capacity in 2025; total reaches 266.78 GW
Q39

How much new non-fossil capacity did India add in 2025, according to MNRE (January 2026)?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 49.12 GW

PIB (MNRE): 49.12 GW of new non-fossil capacity was added in 2025.

Q40 Advanced

What was India's installed solar capacity at the end of 2025, as reported by MNRE?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 135.81 GW

PIB (MNRE): solar capacity rose from 97.86 GW in 2024 to 135.81 GW in 2025.

Q41 Advanced

Consider the following statements based on MNRE data released in January 2026: 1. India's non-fossil installed capacity grew by 22.6% in 2025 to 266.78 GW. 2. Wind capacity grew faster than solar capacity in 2025. 3. India's national target is 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only

PIB (MNRE): statements 1 and 3 are correct; solar grew 38.8% while wind grew only 13.2%, so statement 2 is wrong.

Piyush Goyal holds India–EU FTA talks with EU Trade Commissioner Maroš Šefčovič in Brussels
Q42 Advanced

With whom did Piyush Goyal hold India–EU FTA talks in Brussels on 8–9 January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Maroš Šefčovič

PIB (Commerce): Goyal held talks with Maroš Šefčovič, EU Commissioner for Trade and Economic Security.

Q43 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the India–EU FTA engagement in January 2026: 1. Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agrawal met the European Commission's Director-General for Trade, Sabine Weyand, on 6–7 January. 2. The talks were held in Geneva. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

PIB (Commerce): Rajesh Agrawal and Sabine Weyand met on 6–7 January; the talks were held in Brussels, not Geneva.

CCPA acts against 27 restaurants for mandatory service charge, calls it an unfair trade practice
Q44

Against how many restaurants did the CCPA take suo motu cognizance in January 2026 for levying mandatory service charge?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 27

PIB (Consumer Affairs): the CCPA took suo motu cognizance against 27 restaurants across the country.

Q45 Advanced

Under which provision of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 did the CCPA treat default service charge as an unfair trade practice in January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Section 2(47)

PIB (Consumer Affairs): the action was for unfair trade practices under Section 2(47) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Q46 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the CCPA's guidelines on service charge, as cited in January 2026: 1. The guidelines were issued on 4 July 2022. 2. They allow service charge if it is collected under a different name. 3. The Delhi High Court upheld them in a judgment dated 28 March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only

PIB (Consumer Affairs): the guidelines were issued on 4 July 2022 and were upheld by the Delhi High Court on 28 March 2025; they say no service charge shall be collected by any other name, so statement 2 is wrong.

Amit Shah chairs 9th NCORD apex meeting; nationwide three-year anti-drug campaign from 31 March 2026
Q47 Advanced

From which date will the three-year nationwide anti-drug campaign announced at the 9th NCORD apex meeting begin?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 31 March 2026

PIB (Home Affairs): a collective campaign against drugs will be carried out for three years from 31 March 2026.

Q48

Where did Amit Shah inaugurate a new Narcotics Control Bureau office on 9 January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Amritsar

PIB (Home Affairs): the Home Minister inaugurated the NCB office at Amritsar at the NCORD meeting.

Q49 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Narco-Coordination Centre (NCORD), as stated in January 2026: 1. The NCORD mechanism was established in 2016. 2. It aims to improve coordination between the States, the Ministry of Home Affairs and other stakeholders on drugs. 3. Its 9th Apex-Level meeting was chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only

PIB (Home Affairs): statements 1 and 2 are correct; the 9th Apex-Level meeting was chaired by Home Minister Amit Shah, not the PM.

Centre notifies National Sports Board (Search-cum-Selection Committee) Rules, 2026
Q50 Advanced

Who chairs the Search-cum-Selection Committee for the National Sports Board under the rules notified in January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Cabinet Secretary

PIB (Youth Affairs and Sports): the committee is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary.

Q51 Advanced

Under which law were the National Sports Board (Search-cum-Selection Committee) Rules, 2026 notified?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — National Sports Governance Act, 2025

PIB (Youth Affairs and Sports): the rules were notified under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025.

Q52 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the National Sports Board, as described in January 2026: 1. Its Search-cum-Selection Committee includes two recipients of national sports awards. 2. The committee recommends names for the Board's Chairperson and two Members. 3. The Board will grant recognition to National Sports Bodies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3

PIB (Youth Affairs and Sports): all three are correct.

First Advance Estimates: India's real GDP to grow 7.4% in 2025-26
Q53

What real GDP growth rate for 2025-26 did the NSO's First Advance Estimates (January 2026) project?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 7.4%

PIB (MoSPI): real GDP is estimated to grow by 7.4% in 2025-26 against 6.5% in 2024-25.

Q54 Advanced

Which base year is used for the constant-price GDP figures in the First Advance Estimates for 2025-26?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2011-12

PIB (MoSPI): the estimates are given at constant (2011-12) and current prices.

Q55 Advanced

What is the estimated level of real GDP (constant prices) for 2025-26 in the First Advance Estimates?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — ₹201.90 lakh crore

PIB (MoSPI): real GDP is estimated at ₹201.90 lakh crore in 2025-26, against ₹187.97 lakh crore in 2024-25.

Q56 Advanced

Consider the following statements based on the First Advance Estimates of GDP for 2025-26: 1. Nominal GDP is estimated to grow at 8.0%. 2. Real GVA is estimated to grow at 7.3%. 3. Agriculture and allied sector is estimated to grow faster than manufacturing and construction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only

PIB (MoSPI): statements 1 and 2 are correct; agriculture is estimated at 3.1% against 7.0% for manufacturing and construction, so statement 3 is wrong.

Government approves 22 proposals worth ₹41,863 crore in third tranche of ECMS
Q57

How many proposals were approved in the third tranche of the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) on 2 January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 22

PIB (MeitY): 22 proposals were approved in the third tranche; 24 had been approved earlier, taking the total to 46.

Q58 Advanced

What is the projected investment of the 22 ECMS proposals approved in January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹41,863 crore

PIB (MeitY): projected investment is ₹41,863 crore; ₹2,58,152 crore is projected production and ₹12,704 crore was the earlier tranche.

Q59 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the third tranche of ECMS approvals (January 2026): 1. The approved products include anode material, a critical item for lithium-ion cells. 2. The approved units are spread across eight states. 3. The approvals cover only bare components and no sub-assemblies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only

PIB (MeitY): anode material is among the supply-chain items, and the units are in eight states. Three sub-assemblies (camera module, display module, optical transceiver) were also approved, so statement 3 is wrong.

Shivraj Singh Chouhan assures MGNREGA functionaries of continuity under VB-G RAM G Act
Q60

In his video-conference with MGNREGA functionaries on 30 December 2025 about the VB-G RAM G Act, Shivraj Singh Chouhan interacted with roughly how many functionaries?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Over 2 lakh

PIB (Rural Development): more than 2 lakh MGNREGA functionaries joined from about 45,000 locations.

Q61 Advanced

The Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB-G RAM G) Act, 2025 replaces which law?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005

PIB (assent release, 21 December 2025): the Act replaces the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005.

Q62 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. It guarantees not less than 125 days of wage employment per rural household in each financial year. 2. States may notify a pause period aggregating sixty days in a financial year to free labour for peak sowing and harvesting. 3. Its cost is shared 75:25 between the Centre and all States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only

PIB (assent release): Section 5(1) guarantees at least 125 days and Section 6 allows a 60-day aggregate pause. Cost-sharing is 60:40, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States and 100% central for UTs without legislatures, so statement 3 is wrong.

Q63 Advanced

Under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, what is the Centre–State cost-sharing ratio for North Eastern and Himalayan States?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 90:10

PIB (assent release): the cost-sharing pattern is 60:40 between Centre and States, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States, and 100% central funding for UTs without legislatures.

Ports Ministry notifies guidelines for ₹44,700 crore shipbuilding schemes SBFAS and SbDS
Q64

What is the total corpus of the Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Scheme (SBFAS), whose guidelines were notified on 27 December 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹24,736 crore

PIB (MoPSW): SBFAS has a total corpus of ₹24,736 crore. ₹19,989 crore is the SbDS outlay, ₹44,700 crore the combined outlay, and ₹96,000 crore the projects SBFAS is expected to support.

Q65 Advanced

Under the Shipbreaking Credit Note introduced by SBFAS, ship owners scrapping vessels at Indian yards receive a credit equal to what share of the scrap value?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 40%

PIB (MoPSW): ship owners scrapping vessels at Indian yards will receive a credit equivalent to 40% of the scrap value.

Q66 Advanced

Under the Shipbuilding Development Scheme (SbDS), the India Ship Technology Centre will be set up under which institution?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Indian Maritime University

PIB (MoPSW): SbDS provides for an India Ship Technology Centre under the Indian Maritime University to support research, design, innovation and skills.

Q67 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the shipbuilding schemes whose guidelines were notified in December 2025: 1. SBFAS provides financial assistance of 15% to 25% per vessel, depending on the vessel category. 2. Greenfield shipbuilding clusters get 100% capital support through a 50:50 Centre–State special purpose vehicle. 3. Both SBFAS and SbDS are valid only until 31 March 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only

PIB (MoPSW): SBFAS gives 15–25% per vessel and greenfield clusters get 100% capital support via a 50:50 Centre–State SPV. Both schemes are valid until 31 March 2036, with an in-principle extension to 2047, so statement 3 is wrong.

Amit Shah inaugurates NIA's Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025; crime manual and databases launched
Q68

Which agency organised the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025 inaugurated in New Delhi on 26 December 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — National Investigation Agency

PIB 2208950: the two-day conference was organised by the National Investigation Agency (NIA) under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Q69 Advanced

According to the Home Minister at the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025, the terrorists who carried out the Baisaran (Pahalgam) attack were neutralised through:

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Operation Mahadev

PIB 2208950: the planners were punished through Operation Sindoor and those who carried out the attack were neutralised through Operation Mahadev.

Q70 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025: 1. An Organised Crime Network Database was launched at the conference. 2. The Home Minister asked states to adopt a common ATS structure for their police. 3. It was a one-day conference organised by the Intelligence Bureau. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only

PIB 2208950: the Organised Crime Network Database was launched and states were asked to implement a common ATS structure. The conference was a two-day event organised by the NIA, so statement 3 is wrong.

President confers Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2025 on 20 children
Q71

How many children received the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar on 26 December 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 20

PIB backgrounder: 20 children from 18 States and Union Territories were selected for the PMRBP 2025.

Q72 Advanced

Where was the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2025 conferred by the President on 26 December 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Vigyan Bhawan

PIB backgrounder: the awards were conferred at a special ceremony at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. The national Veer Bal Diwas programme was held separately at Bharat Mandapam.

Q73 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar: 1. It is given to Indian children aged 5 to 18 years as on 31 July of the year. 2. A maximum of 25 awards are normally conferred in a year. 3. The award is never conferred posthumously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only

PIB backgrounder: eligibility is 5–18 years as on 31 July and at most 25 awards are given annually. Posthumous conferment is possible in rare cases, and two 2025 bravery awards were posthumous, so statement 3 is wrong.

Q74 Advanced

The selection committee for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar is chaired by the:

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Secretary, Ministry of Women and Child Development

PIB backgrounder: the PMRBP Committee is constituted by the Minister for Women and Child Development and chaired by the Secretary, MWCD.

India to chair the Kimberley Process from 1 January 2026
Q75

India will chair which international initiative against trade in 'conflict diamonds' from 1 January 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Kimberley Process

PIB 2208375: the Kimberley Process Plenary selected India to assume the chairpersonship of the Kimberley Process from 1 January 2026.

Q76 Advanced

How many times will India have chaired the Kimberley Process when it takes over in 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Third

PIB 2208375: this will be the third time India has been entrusted with the chair of the Kimberley Process.

Q77 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Kimberley Process: 1. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme came into effect on 1 January 2003. 2. It has 60 participants, with the European Union and its member states counted as one. 3. Its participants account for about three-fourths of global rough diamond trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only

PIB 2208375: KPCS came into effect on 1 January 2003 and KP has 60 participants (EU counted as one). Participants account for over 99% of global rough diamond trade, so statement 3 is wrong.

President releases Constitution of India in Santhali (Ol Chiki script)
Q78

In which script is the Santhali version of the Constitution of India, released on 25 December 2025, written?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Ol Chiki

PIB 2208453: the President said the Constitution is now available in the Santhali language, written in the Ol Chiki script.

Q79 Advanced

Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution by which Amendment Act?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 92nd Amendment Act, 2003

PIB 2208453 and 2208484: Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.

Q80 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Santhali Constitution released in December 2025: 1. The Ol Chiki script was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925. 2. The translation was published by the Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice. 3. It was released at a joint sitting in Parliament House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only

PIB 2208484: Ol Chiki was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925 and the translation was published by the Legislative Department. It was released at Rashtrapati Bhavan, so statement 3 is wrong.

PMGSY completes 25 years: 7.87 lakh km of rural roads built
Q81

The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), which completed 25 years in December 2025, was launched on:

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Correct answer: B — 25 December 2000

PIB backgrounder 2208381: PMGSY was launched on 25 December 2000 to ensure all-weather connectivity to unconnected rural habitations.

Q82 Advanced

PMGSY-IV (2024–29) aims to connect how many rural habitations?

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Correct answer: A — 25,000

PIB backgrounder 2208381: under PMGSY-IV, 25,000 habitations are to be connected through 62,500 km of roads with an outlay of ₹70,125 crore. (1,63,339 habitations were sanctioned under Phase I.)

Q83 Advanced

In which year was the Road Connectivity Project for Left Wing Extremism Affected Areas (RCPLWEA) under the PMGSY framework launched?

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Correct answer: C — 2016

PIB backgrounder 2208381: RCPLWEA was launched in 2016 as a targeted intervention; PMGSY Phase II began in 2013.

Centre bans new mining leases across the entire Aravallis; ICFRE to widen no-mining zones
Q84 Advanced

Which body has the Environment Ministry asked to identify additional no-mining zones and prepare a Management Plan for Sustainable Mining for the Aravallis (December 2025)?

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Correct answer: A — Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education

PIB 2208234: MoEF&CC directed ICFRE to identify additional areas where mining should be prohibited while preparing the MPSM for the entire Aravalli region.

Q85

As described by the Environment Ministry in December 2025, the Aravalli Range stretches between:

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Correct answer: A — Gujarat and the National Capital Region

PIB 2208234: the Aravallis form a continuous geological ridge extending from Gujarat to the National Capital Region.

Q86 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Centre's December 2025 directions on the Aravallis: 1. States must not grant any new mining leases anywhere in the Aravallis. 2. All mines already operating in the Aravallis must close immediately. 3. The Management Plan for Sustainable Mining will be placed in the public domain for consultation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only

PIB 2208234: the ban covers grant of new mining leases and the MPSM will be placed in the public domain. Existing mines are to be regulated stringently in line with the Supreme Court's order, not closed, so statement 2 is wrong.

LVM3-M6 launches BlueBird Block-2, heaviest payload ever lifted from Indian soil
Q87

The BlueBird Block-2 satellite launched by LVM3-M6 on 24 December 2025 belongs to which company?

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Correct answer: C — AST SpaceMobile

ISRO and PIB 2208090: the mission launched the BlueBird Block-2 satellite of US-based AST SpaceMobile under a commercial agreement with NSIL.

Q88 Advanced

Into which orbit did LVM3-M6 place the BlueBird Block-2 satellite?

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Correct answer: A — Low Earth Orbit

ISRO and The Hindu: LVM3-M6 placed BlueBird Block-2 in low Earth orbit (LEO).

Q89 Advanced

Consider the following statements about ISRO's LVM3: 1. LVM3-M6 was the sixth operational flight of LVM3. 2. LVM3's upper stage is the C25 cryogenic stage. 3. LVM3 can carry about 8,000 kg to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only

ISRO: LVM3-M6 is the sixth operational flight and LVM3 has S200 strap-ons, an L110 core and a C25 cryogenic upper stage. Its GTO capability is 4,200 kg, so statement 3 is wrong.

Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2025: Vigyan Ratna to Jayant Narlikar posthumously; Team award to CSIR Aroma Mission
Q90

Who was conferred the Rashtriya Vigyan Ratna Puraskar 2025 (posthumously) on 23 December 2025?

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Correct answer: A — Jayant Vishnu Narlikar

PIB 2207860: the Vigyan Ratna for lifetime achievement was awarded posthumously to astrophysicist Prof. Jayant Vishnu Narlikar.

Q91 Advanced

The Rashtriya Vigyan Team Puraskar 2025 was won by which team, credited with the 'Purple Revolution'?

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Correct answer: C — CSIR Aroma Mission

PIB 2207860: the Vigyan Team Award went to the CSIR-led Aroma Mission, which promoted lavender cultivation in the Himalayan region ('Purple Revolution').

Q92 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2025: 1. It was the second edition of the awards. 2. The Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is for scientists below the age of 45. 3. Lavender cultivation promoted by the winning team began at Bhaderwah and Gulmarg. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3

PIB 2207860: the 2025 ceremony was the second edition; Vigyan Yuva–SSB is for scientists below 45; and lavender entrepreneurship began from Bhaderwah and Gulmarg in J&K. All three are correct.

India and New Zealand conclude Free Trade Agreement negotiations
Q93

Under the India–New Zealand FTA concluded in December 2025, New Zealand will provide zero-duty access on what share of its tariff lines for Indian exports?

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Correct answer: C — 100%

PIB 2207300: New Zealand will eliminate tariffs on 100% of its tariff lines, giving duty-free access to all Indian exports.

Q94 Advanced

How much investment has New Zealand committed to facilitate into India under the FTA concluded in December 2025?

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Correct answer: A — USD 20 billion over 15 years

PIB 2207300: New Zealand has committed to facilitate investments of USD 20 billion into India over the next fifteen years.

Q95 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the India–New Zealand FTA: 1. Negotiations were formally launched on 16 March 2025. 2. India has kept dairy products out of its market access offer. 3. The FTA provides a quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas for Indian professionals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3

PIB 2207300: talks were launched on 16 March 2025, market access excludes dairy, and there is a quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas. All three are correct.

President gives assent to VB—G RAM G Act, 2025; 125-day rural job guarantee to replace MGNREGA
Q96

How many days of wage employment per rural household per financial year does the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025 guarantee?

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Correct answer: B — 125

PIB 2207187 and the Act's Section 5(1): not less than 125 days, up from the earlier 100-day entitlement under MGNREGA.

Q97 Advanced

Which law does the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025, which received Presidential assent in December 2025, replace?

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Correct answer: D — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005

PIB 2207187: the Act replaces MGNREGA, 2005. The Gazette text says MGNREGA stands repealed from an appointed date notified by the Centre.

Q98 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. Centre–State cost sharing is 60:40, and 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States. 2. States may notify a pause aggregating to sixty days in a financial year during peak sowing and harvesting seasons. 3. The ceiling on administrative expenditure has been reduced from 9% to 6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only

PIB 2207187: cost sharing is 60:40 (90:10 for NE and Himalayan States) and States may notify a 60-day aggregate pause. The administrative ceiling was raised from 6% to 9%, so statement 3 is wrong.

Q99 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Gazette text of the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. It is Act No. 36 of 2025. 2. MGNREGA, 2005 stood repealed on the date of the President's assent. 3. The cost of the material component of works shall not exceed 40% at the district level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only

Gazette (PRS copy): Act No. 36 of 2025, and the material component is capped at 40% at district level. MGNREGA stands repealed from an appointed date notified by the Centre, not on the date of assent, so statement 2 is wrong.