Bihar Police Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many downloads had the Aadhaar App crossed, as announced by UIDAI on 18 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 40 million
The Aadhaar App crossed 40 million (4 crore) downloads.
Until when has the email update feature (earlier priced at ₹75) been made free on the Aadhaar App?
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Correct answer: D — 31 December 2026
The email update feature, earlier priced at ₹75, is free on the Aadhaar App till 31 December 2026.
Which body hosted the Draft Advocates (Amendment) Bill, 2026 on its website on 18 July 2026 for public consultation?
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Correct answer: B — Bar Council of India
The Bar Council of India hosted the draft Bill on its official website on 18 July 2026.
What was the last date for submitting comments on the Draft Advocates (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 31 July 2026
Comments were invited on or before 31 July 2026 (3:00 PM).
Which categories of projects got a limited exemption from ALMM List-II (solar PV cells) till 31 December 2026, as decided by MNRE on 18 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Net-metering and open-access RE projects
MNRE gave the limited window only to net-metering projects and open-access renewable energy projects; there is no blanket extension.
Consider the following statements about MNRE's 18 July 2026 decision on ALMM List-II: 1. ALMM List-II relates to solar PV cells. 2. The earlier exemption for net-metering and open-access projects ran till 31 May 2026. 3. MNRE granted a blanket extension of ALMM List-II applicability for all solar projects. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: MNRE said there will be no blanket extension.
Where was the 3rd India–EU Trade and Technology Council (TTC) Ministerial Meeting, co-chaired by Piyush Goyal in July 2026, held?
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Correct answer: C — Brussels
Goyal co-chaired the 3rd India–EU TTC Ministerial Meeting in Brussels.
After the EU listed 21 more Indian fishery establishments at the 3rd India–EU TTC, what became the total number of approved Indian establishments?
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Correct answer: A — 625
With 21 more listed, the total of approved Indian fishery establishments reached 625.
With which country did India agree to advance technical talks on interoperability between UPI and that country's 'Bizum' payments platform during Piyush Goyal's July 2026 visit?
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Correct answer: D — Spain
India and Spain agreed to advance technical discussions on UPI–Bizum interoperability; Goyal also outlined the '10×10×10' vision for India–Spain ties.
Which State ranked first among Large States in NITI Aayog's Investment Friendliness Index released in July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Gujarat
Gujarat ranked first among Large States, followed by Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
Which State topped the Hilly and North-Eastern States category of the Investment Friendliness Index?
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Correct answer: C — Uttarakhand
Uttarakhand ranked highest among Hilly and North-Eastern States, followed by Assam and Himachal Pradesh.
How many indicators does NITI Aayog's Investment Friendliness Index framework comprise?
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Correct answer: A — 84
The IFI framework has 84 indicators across eight pillars, including investor-perception measures.
Consider the following statements about the Investment Friendliness Index (IFI): 1. The IFI covers all 28 States and 8 Union Territories. 2. Goa topped the City States and Union Territories category. 3. The development of the IFI was announced in the Union Budget 2025–26. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct as per NITI Aayog's release.
On whom did Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya confer its first-ever honorary Ph.D. at its 4th Convocation on 17 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — E. Sreedharan
GSV conferred its first-ever Ph.D. (Honoris Causa) on E. Sreedharan, the 'Metro Man of India'.
Which degree did Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya award for the first time at its 4th Convocation?
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Correct answer: D — MBA in Metro Rail Management
For the first time, GSV awarded an MBA degree in Metro Rail Management.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on SpiceJet for dark patterns on its flight booking platform (announced 17 July 2026)?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1 lakh
CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹1,00,000 on SpiceJet Limited.
Automatic enrolment of consumers into SpiceJet's loyalty programme through a pre-ticked checkbox was flagged by CCPA as which dark pattern?
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Correct answer: C — Forced Action
CCPA classified the pre-ticked automatic enrolment into the SpiceClub Loyalty Programme as 'Forced Action'.
The commencement of which two laws was notified by the Government of India, as announced on 17 July 2026, to strengthen the anti-doping framework?
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Correct answer: D — National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 and National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025
The Government notified the commencement of the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 and the National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025.
India's anti-doping Acts fulfil India's obligations under which international convention?
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Correct answer: B — UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport
The Acts fulfil India's obligations under the UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport and align with the World Anti-Doping Code.
Where is Bharat Tex 2026, described as the world's largest integrated textile event, being held?
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Correct answer: C — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Bharat Tex 2026 is being held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
About how much textile investment was committed in the first three days of Bharat Tex 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹14,300 crore
Bharat Tex 2026 catalysed around ₹14,300 crore of textile investment commitments with 30+ MoUs.
What bioeconomy size does NITI Aayog's roadmap launched on 16 July 2026 target for India by 2035?
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Correct answer: B — $691 billion
The roadmap targets $691 billion by 2035 and $2.6 trillion by 2047.
How many National BioMissions does NITI Aayog's bioeconomy roadmap recommend as execution platforms?
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Correct answer: D — Six
A central recommendation is the creation of six National BioMissions.
As per NITI Aayog's roadmap, what share of India's GDP did the bioeconomy contribute in 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 4.8%
India's bioeconomy was $195.3 billion in 2025, contributing 4.8% to national GDP.
Consider the following statements about the bioeconomy roadmap launched on 16 July 2026: 1. The roadmap was developed by the NITI Frontier Tech Hub. 2. India's bioeconomy grew from $10 billion in 2014 to $195.3 billion in 2025. 3. At the launch, India's first Engineering Biology graduation course was announced. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct as per the NITI Aayog and Ministry of Science & Technology releases.
Who was appointed Secretary of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, as announced on 16 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Srinivasa Kumar Tummala
The ACC approved the appointment of Dr Srinivasa Kumar Tummala as Secretary, Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Before his appointment as MoES Secretary, Dr Srinivasa Kumar Tummala headed the IOTWMS Secretariat of UNESCO-IOC in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Perth
Tummala was Head of the Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning and Mitigation System Secretariat, UNESCO-IOC, Perth, Australia.
How many improved crop varieties did ICAR develop over the past year, as stated on its 98th Foundation Day (16 July 2026)?
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Correct answer: A — 386
ICAR developed 386 improved varieties across 44 crops over the past year.
ICAR Foundation Day, observed on 16 July, marks the Council's establishment in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1928
ICAR Foundation Day commemorates the establishment of the Council in 1928.
Consider the following statements about the varieties ICAR developed over the past year: 1. The varieties cover 44 crops. 2. 94% of the varieties are climate-resilient. 3. 29 of the varieties are biofortified. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct: 386 varieties across 44 crops, 94% climate-resilient and 29 biofortified.
On which date did the India–UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) enter into force?
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Correct answer: B — 15 July 2026
CETA and the Double Contribution Convention entered into force on 15 July 2026.
India–UK CETA provides zero-duty access to approximately what share of India's exports to the UK?
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Correct answer: D — 99%
CETA gives zero-duty access to nearly 99% of India's exports, covering almost 100% of trade value.
Under the India–UK Double Contribution Convention that came into force with CETA, the exemption period for Indian workers on temporary assignment in the UK was raised to how many years?
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Correct answer: A — 5 years
The DCC exemption from UK social security contributions was increased from 3 years to 5 years.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK CETA: 1. Negotiations were concluded on 6 May 2025 after fourteen rounds. 2. CETA was signed in London on 24 July 2025. 3. The Double Contribution Convention was signed on the same day as CETA. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Double Contribution Convention was signed later, on 10 February 2026.
What is the total outlay of Semicon 2.0, approved by the Union Cabinet on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,27,500 crore
Semicon 2.0 has a total budget outlay of ₹1,27,500 crore.
On how many pillars is Semicon 2.0 built?
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Correct answer: A — Six
Semicon 2.0 has six pillars: design, machines and materials, fabs, ATMP/OSAT, R&D, and talent development.
According to the Semicon 2.0 Cabinet release, in which year is India's first semiconductor fab scheduled to be commissioned?
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Correct answer: D — 2028
The release states that the first fab is scheduled to be commissioned in 2028.
Consider the following statements about India's semiconductor programmes: 1. The Semicon India programme was approved by the Cabinet in December 2021 with an outlay of ₹76,000 crore. 2. The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) was set up under the 2021 programme to drive the sector. 3. Under ISM 1.0, twelve semiconductor manufacturing units have been approved. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: the Cabinet approved the ₹76,000-crore programme and set up ISM on 15 December 2021, and twelve units have been approved under ISM 1.0.
How many skill categories are covered by the IndiaSkills Competition 2026–27 guidelines unveiled on World Youth Skills Day 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 63
The guidelines cover 63 industry-relevant skill categories.
What is the approximate size of the proposed Skills Outcomes Fund announced by MSDE on World Youth Skills Day 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹530 crore
MSDE proposed a Skills Outcomes Fund of about ₹530 crore combining government, CSR and philanthropic capital.
What Return on Equity (RoE) band does NIPU-2026 introduce for new urea plants?
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Correct answer: D — 12% to 16%
NIPU-2026 introduces a viable RoE band with a floor of 12% and a ceiling of 16%.
Which body approved the National Investment Policy for Urea-2026 (NIPU-2026) on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
The CCEA chaired by the Prime Minister approved NIPU-2026 on the proposal of the Department of Fertilizers.
Consider the following statements about urea investment policies: 1. Under the New Investment Policy (NIP)-2012, six new urea units were set up. 2. The investment window under NIP-2012 expired in October 2019. 3. India currently has 33 operational urea manufacturing units. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct as per the Department of Fertilizers' Cabinet release.
What is the budgetary outlay of the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS) approved on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹62,500 crore
The Cabinet approved MPMS with a budgetary outlay of ₹62,500 crore.
What additional incentive does MPMS provide on eligible sales for design and R&D to build Indian brands?
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Correct answer: C — 3%
MPMS gives an additional 3% incentive on eligible sales for design and R&D of the product to build Indian brands.
Consider the following statements about the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS): 1. The scheme runs from FY 2026-27 to FY 2030-31. 2. India is the world's second-largest mobile phone manufacturer by volume. 3. The scheme gives a flat 10% incentive on all eligible sales. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the incentive is at differentiated rates of 2.25% to 5%, with extra incentives for domestic sourcing and design.
With the eighth tranche launched on 15 July 2026, how many critical mineral blocks have been offered in total so far?
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Correct answer: C — 88
The eighth tranche takes the total number of critical mineral blocks offered to 88, of which 56 have been auctioned.
How many critical and strategic mineral blocks are on offer in the eighth tranche of auctions launched on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 20
The eighth tranche comprises 20 critical and strategic mineral blocks across nine States.
What was India's overall unemployment rate (15+ years) in June 2026 as per the PLFS monthly bulletin?
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Correct answer: A — 5.5%
The PLFS June 2026 bulletin put the overall unemployment rate at 5.5%.
What was the female labour force participation rate (15+ years) in June 2026 as per PLFS?
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Correct answer: D — 32.7%
Female LFPR was 32.7% in June 2026, 0.7 percentage points above June 2025 (32.0%).
What is the base year of the trial Index of Services Production (ISP) first released by MoSPI in July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 2024-25
The sub-sectoral trial ISP has base year 2024-25.
The first trial Index of Services Production released in July 2026 covers how many sub-sectors?
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Correct answer: C — 19
The ISP was released for 19 sub-sectors covering about 60% of the services sector.
Consider the following statements about the Index of Services Production (ISP): 1. The 19 sub-sectors cover about 60% of the services sector. 2. Subsequent ISPs will be released on the 29th of every month. 3. The Technical Advisory Committee on ISP was constituted in May 2025. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: ~60% coverage, release on the 29th of each month, and TAC-ISP constituted in May 2025 (report released 7 July 2026).
What is the target of the Railways' 'Reform Express' initiative announced by Ashwini Vaishnaw?
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Correct answer: A — 52 reforms in 52 weeks
The Ministry's target is 52 reforms in 52 weeks; after 14 July 2026 the total stood at 17.
After the eight reforms announced on 14 July 2026, how many reforms had been implemented under 'Reform Express'?
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Correct answer: C — 17
Eight new reforms took the total under Reform Express to 17.
According to the Railways, about what share of India's annual fly ash generation did Indian Railways transport in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — About 4%
Railways moved about 13 million tonnes of the roughly 340 million tonnes generated, nearly 4%.
Where does the 'Shaurya Vijay Yatra' flagged off on 14 July 2026 culminate?
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Correct answer: A — Kargil War Memorial, Dras
The expedition runs from the National War Memorial, New Delhi to the Kargil War Memorial in Dras, Ladakh.
What is the motto of the 'Shaurya Vijay Yatra' motorcycle expedition for Kargil Vijay Diwas 2026?
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Correct answer: C — One Ride, One Nation, One Salute
The motto of the 13-day, 1,900 km expedition is 'One Ride, One Nation, One Salute'.
The first round of India–Maldives FTA negotiations in 2026 was held in which mode?
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Correct answer: B — Virtual mode
The first round was held in virtual mode from 29 June to 7 July 2026.
Who led India's negotiating team in the first round of India–Maldives FTA negotiations?
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Correct answer: D — Ujjwal Kumar Ghosh
Chief Negotiator Ujjwal Kumar Ghosh, Joint Secretary, Department of Commerce, led India; Yusuf Riza led the Maldives.
Consider the following statements about India–Maldives economic ties as of July 2026: 1. India is the second-largest trading partner of the Maldives. 2. Bilateral trade in 2025–26 was about USD 771.76 million. 3. The two countries are marking 50 years of diplomatic relations. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: India and the Maldives are commemorating 60 years of diplomatic relations.
What was the all-India WPI inflation rate (year-on-year) for June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 9.87%
WPI inflation was 9.87% in June 2026, up from 9.68% in May 2026.
Which major group of the WPI recorded the highest year-on-year inflation in June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Fuel and Power
Fuel and Power inflation was 27.41%, against 7.0% for Primary Articles and 7.48% for Manufactured Products.
Consider the following statements about the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) released in July 2026: 1. The current WPI series has base year 2022-23. 2. Provisional WPI for a month is released on the 14th of the following month. 3. The WPI Food Index has a weight of about 24.99%. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: base 2022-23, release on the 14th of the next month (or next working day), and Food Index weight 24.99%.
By what margin did India beat England in the first women's Test at Lord's in July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 270 runs
India won the one-off Test at Lord's by 270 runs on 13 July 2026.
Who was named Player of the Match in India's Test win over England at Lord's in July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Kranti Gaud
Kranti Gaud was Player of the Match for 5-37 and 2-54.
Consider the following statements about the India–England women's Test at Lord's in July 2026: 1. It was the first women's Test match ever played at Lord's. 2. Yastika Bhatia scored a century in India's second innings. 3. It was the first match of a three-Test series. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (Bhatia made 113). Statement 3 is wrong: it was a one-off Test.
What was India's CPI-based retail inflation (provisional) for June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 4.38%
Retail inflation was 4.38% in June 2026, up from 3.93% in May.
What was the food inflation based on the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) in June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 5.32%
CFPI-based food inflation was 5.32% in June 2026, against 4.78% in May.
Consider the following statements about the CPI data for June 2026: 1. The CPI series used has base year 2024=100. 2. Rural inflation was higher than urban inflation. 3. Housing inflation was above headline inflation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (rural 4.74% vs urban 3.92%). Statement 3 is wrong: housing inflation was 2.10%, below the headline 4.38%.
NIDAR 2.0, launched by MeitY in July 2026, is a national innovation challenge in which field?
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Correct answer: B — Drone application and research
NIDAR stands for National Innovation Challenge for Drone Application and Research.
The VEGA processor, around which NIDAR 2.0 teams must design a flight controller, is based on which architecture and developed by which body?
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Correct answer: C — RISC-V architecture; C-DAC
VEGA is a family of indigenous microprocessors designed by C-DAC under MeitY's Microprocessor Development Programme, based on the open-standard RISC-V architecture.
What were India's estimated total exports (merchandise and services) in April–June 2026-27?
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Correct answer: C — US$ 232.73 billion
Total exports were estimated at US$ 232.73 billion, up 11.37% from US$ 208.98 billion.
Which merchandise export group recorded the highest year-on-year growth in June 2026 among the major drivers named by the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Gems & Jewellery
Gems & Jewellery grew 34.64%, ahead of engineering goods (20.74%), electronic goods (18.93%) and rice (16.48%).
Where was the 56th International Physics Olympiad (IPhO) 2026 held?
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Correct answer: A — Bucaramanga, Colombia
The 56th IPhO 2026 was held in Bucaramanga, Colombia.
How many gold medals did the Indian contingent win at the 56th International Physics Olympiad 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Five
All five members of the Indian contingent won gold medals.
What penalty did the Competition Commission of India impose on HP India by its order dated 13 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹11.98 crore
CCI imposed ₹11.98 crore on HP India and about ₹2.30 crore combined on sixteen resellers.
The CCI case against HP India and its resellers arose from a lesser penalty application filed by HP India under which section of the Competition Act, 2002?
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Correct answer: B — Section 46
HP India filed a lesser penalty (leniency) application under Section 46; the penalty itself was imposed under Section 27 for violating Section 3(3)(d) read with 3(1).