Environment & Ecology Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What administered ex-mill price was fixed on 29 January 2025 for ethanol from C-heavy molasses for ESY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — ₹57.97 per litre
PIB 2097305: the price was fixed at ₹57.97 per litre, up from ₹56.58 per litre.
The Ethanol Supply Year (ESY) used under the Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme runs from:
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Correct answer: B — 1 November to 31 October
PIB 2097305: ESY is defined as the period from 1 November of a year to 31 October of the following year.
Consider the following statements about ethanol blending in India: 1. Average blending by public sector OMCs reached 14.60% in ESY 2023-24. 2. The 20% blending target has been advanced to ESY 2025-26. 3. OMCs plan to achieve 20% blending in ESY 2024-25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097305: blending averaged 14.60% in ESY 2023-24 and the 20% target was advanced to ESY 2025-26; OMCs plan 18%, not 20%, in ESY 2024-25.
Which body invokes stages of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in the National Capital Region?
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Correct answer: D — Commission for Air Quality Management
PIB 2097469: the Sub-Committee on GRAP of the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas invoked Stage III on 29 January 2025.
Delhi's average AQI on 29 January 2025, which led to GRAP Stage III being invoked, was:
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Correct answer: C — 365
PIB 2097469: Delhi's AQI rose from 276 on 28 January to 365 on 29 January 2025.
Which two Indian cities became the first to receive Wetland City Accreditation under the Ramsar Convention in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Indore and Udaipur
TOI: Indore and Udaipur were accredited; Bhopal was nominated but not accredited.
Consider the following statements about Wetland City Accreditation in January 2025: 1. Indore and Udaipur were among 31 newly accredited cities. 2. Bhopal, also nominated by India, was accredited in the same round. 3. Accreditation requires meeting six international criteria. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
TOI: Indore and Udaipur were among 31 new cities and accreditation needs all six international criteria; Bhopal was nominated but not accredited.
The latest round of Wetland City Accreditation announced in January 2025, which included Indore and Udaipur, took the global list of accredited Wetland Cities to how many cities?
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Correct answer: C — 74
TOI: the independent Advisory Committee on Wetland City Accreditation accredited 31 new cities, taking the global list to 74. (85 is the number of Ramsar sites in India.)
Which institution was selected for the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar 2025 in the institutional category?
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Correct answer: B — INCOIS, Hyderabad
PIB 2095323: the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), Hyderabad, was selected.
What cash prize does the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar carry for an institution?
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Correct answer: A — ₹51 lakh
PIB 2095323: ₹51 lakh and a certificate for an institution; ₹5 lakh and a certificate for an individual.
Consider the following about INCOIS: 1. It was established in 1999 in Hyderabad. 2. Its tsunami warning centre issues alerts within 10 minutes for India and 28 Indian Ocean countries. 3. It developed the Search and Rescue Aided Tool (SARAT). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095323: INCOIS was set up in 1999 in Hyderabad, its ITEWC gives alerts within 10 minutes to India and 28 Indian Ocean countries, and it developed SARAT.
The Nayakkarpatti tungsten mineral block, whose auction was annulled in January 2025, is in which district?
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Correct answer: C — Madurai
PIB 2095480: the Nayakkarpatti tungsten block is in Madurai district of Tamil Nadu.
Which Biodiversity Heritage Site lies within the Nayakkarpatti tungsten block, leading to the annulment of its auction?
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Correct answer: B — Arittapatti
PIB 2095480: the block includes the Arittapatti Biodiversity Heritage Site and several cultural heritage sites.
The Model Resilient Village whose foundation stone was laid on 20 January 2025 at Sil/Sunani is in which district of Himachal Pradesh?
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Correct answer: D — Solan
PIB 2094608: Sil/Sunani is in Bawasni Gram Panchayat, Baddi, District Solan.
Which CSIR laboratory detailed the infrastructure design, such as shelters, roads and drinking water systems, for the Sil/Sunani Model Resilient Village?
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Correct answer: A — CSIR-CBRI
PIB 2094608: the Director of CSIR-CBRI detailed CSIR's technical contributions, including designing shelters, roads and drinking water systems.
Where was the 20th Raising Day ceremony of the NDRF held on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vijayawada
PIB 2094319: Amit Shah attended the NDRF's 20th Raising Day ceremony in Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.
Which of the following was NOT among the projects launched at the NDRF's 20th Raising Day on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — A new NDRF headquarters in New Delhi
PIB 2094319: the projects included the NIDM South Campus, the NDRF 10th Battalion and the Supaul campus of the Regional Response Centre; no new headquarters was mentioned.
Who was the Director General of the NDRF at its 20th Raising Day ceremony in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Piyush Anand
PIB 2094319: NDRF Director General Piyush Anand was present at the ceremony.
On 17 January 2025, the CAQM Sub-Committee revoked which stage of GRAP across the NCR?
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Correct answer: D — Stage III
PIB (MoEFCC): the Sub-Committee revoked Stage-III of GRAP in the entire NCR with immediate effect; Stages I and II remain.
Consider the following statements about GRAP actions in Delhi-NCR in January 2025: 1. Stages III and IV were invoked on 15 January 2025 when Delhi's average AQI breached 350. 2. Stage IV was revoked on 16 January 2025 when the AQI improved to 302. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB: GRAP Stages III and IV were invoked on 15.01.2025 when Delhi's AQI breached 350, and Stage IV was revoked on 16.01.2025 when the AQI improved to 302.
The MoEFCC workshop on 'Financing India's Green Transition Plan and Adaptation Needs', which began in Kolkata on 16 January 2025, was held under which programme?
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Correct answer: C — Green Climate Fund Readiness Programme
PIB (MoEFCC): the workshop was organised under the ongoing Green Climate Fund Readiness Programme.
At the Kolkata green finance workshop (January 2025), the MoEFCC Economic Advisor noted that which document called for developing India's own climate finance taxonomy?
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Correct answer: A — Union Budget 2024-25
PIB: Rajasree Ray pointed out that the Budget presented for 2024-25 called for developing India's own climate finance taxonomy.
'Mission Mausam', launched on 14 January 2025, aims to make India a:
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Correct answer: D — Weather-ready and Climate-smart nation
PIB (MoES): Mission Mausam aims at transforming India into a 'Weather-ready and Climate-smart' nation.
On which occasion was 'Mission Mausam' launched by the Prime Minister?
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Correct answer: A — 150th Foundation Day of IMD
PIB (PMO): PM launched Mission Mausam at IMD's 150th Foundation Day celebrations on 14 January 2025.
What was India's total installed renewable energy capacity as of December 2024, as per MNRE?
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Correct answer: B — 209.44 GW
PIB (MNRE): total RE capacity reached 209.44 GW, up 15.84% from 180.80 GW; 97.86 GW was solar alone.
How much renewable energy capacity did India add in calendar year 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 28.64 GW
PIB: 28.64 GW was added in 2024 (13.05 GW in 2023); 24.54 GW was solar and 3.42 GW wind.
As of December 2024, India's installed solar power capacity stood at about:
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Correct answer: D — 97.86 GW
PIB (MNRE): solar capacity rose 33.47% from 73.32 GW to 97.86 GW; 48.16 GW is wind and 209.44 GW total RE.
Under the revised GRAP, Stage-III is to be implemented in NCR when Delhi's AQI reaches which mark, as cited by CAQM on 12 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 350
PIB: Delhi's AQI of 278 was 72 points below the 350 mark for implementing Stage-III, as per Supreme Court directives.
Since which date had GRAP Stage-III been in force in NCR before its revocation on 12 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 9 January 2025
PIB: Stage-III of revised GRAP had been in place in the entire NCR since 09.01.2025.
Which body decided on 12 January 2025 to revoke GRAP Stage-III in NCR?
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Correct answer: C — Commission for Air Quality Management
PIB: the CAQM Sub-Committee on GRAP unanimously decided to revoke Stage-III actions.
Consider the following statements about the revocation of GRAP Stage-III on 12 January 2025: 1. Delhi's average AQI was 278 at 4 pm. 2. Actions under GRAP Stages I and II were also revoked. 3. Rain from a Western Disturbance helped improve air quality. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 3 only
PIB: AQI was 278 at 4 pm and a Western Disturbance brought rain on 11–12 January; Stages I and II remain in force.
On 10 January 2025, Jitendra Singh announced the establishment of a Regional Meteorological Centre in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Jammu
PIB (MoES): Jitendra Singh announced the establishment of a Regional Meteorological Centre in Jammu.
Which organisation has recognised the Srinagar Meteorology Centre as a 'Centennial Centre'?
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Correct answer: B — World Meteorological Organization
PIB (MoES): the Srinagar Meteorology Centre is recognised as a Centennial Centre by the World Meteorological Organization.
The Regional Meteorological Centre for Jammu was announced at an event marking which IMD milestone?
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Correct answer: C — 150th anniversary
PIB (MoES): the announcement was made at an event commemorating the 150th anniversary of IMD.
At which event was the Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform launched on 10 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Bharat Climate Forum 2025
PIB (Commerce): Piyush Goyal unveiled the platform at the Bharat Climate Forum 2025 in New Delhi on Friday (10 January).
The Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform focuses on value chains in which of the following sectors?
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Correct answer: A — Solar, wind, hydrogen and battery storage
PIB (Commerce): the platform is designed to enhance India's cleantech value chains in the solar, wind, hydrogen and battery storage sectors.
What was Delhi's average AQI at 4 pm on 9 January 2025, when CAQM invoked GRAP Stage-III?
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Correct answer: C — 357
PIB: Delhi's AQI breached the 350 mark at 4 pm as it clocked 357, per the CPCB bulletin.
Under the revised GRAP, Stage-III corresponds to which category of Delhi's air quality?
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Correct answer: D — 'Severe' (AQI 401–450)
PIB: Stage-III of revised GRAP is 'Severe' air quality (Delhi AQI ranging between 401–450).
What were cited as the reasons for the sharp rise in Delhi's AQI on 9 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Calm winds and foggy conditions
PIB: the AQI rose from 297 on 8 January to 357 on 9 January owing to calm winds and foggy conditions.
On 9 January 2025, the Animal Welfare Board of India signed an MoU with which institution to train Honorary Animal Welfare Representatives?
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Correct answer: B — NALSAR University of Law
PIB (FAHD): AWBI entered into an MoU with NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad.
As announced by AWBI in January 2025, the Animal Welfare Fortnight is observed during which period?
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Correct answer: C — 14–30 January
PIB (FAHD): AWBI to celebrate Animal Welfare Fortnight from 14 to 30 January 2025.
Since when had Stage-III of the revised GRAP been in force across NCR before it was revoked on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 3 January 2025
PIB (Environment): Stage-III actions had been in place in the entire NCR since 03.01.2025.
Consider the following statements about the CAQM decision of 5 January 2025: 1. All actions under Stage-III of the revised GRAP were revoked across NCR. 2. Actions under Stages I and II of the revised GRAP were also withdrawn. 3. Delhi's average AQI had improved to 335 at 5 PM. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Environment): Stage-III was revoked and AQI was 335 at 5 PM, but Stages I and II remain invoked and in force.
Which body's sub-committee revoked GRAP Stage-III in NCR on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Commission for Air Quality Management
PIB (Environment): the Sub-Committee on GRAP of the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) took the decision.
How much immediate relief assistance did India announce for Vanuatu on 2 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — USD 500,000
MEA: the Government of India extends a relief assistance of USD 500,000 to support relief, rehabilitation and reconstruction in Vanuatu.
Under which forum did MEA describe Vanuatu as India's close friend and partner while announcing the earthquake aid?
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Correct answer: B — Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation
MEA: India extended the assistance as a close friend and partner under the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC).
On which two estates did the Kerala Cabinet approve model townships for Wayanad landslide survivors on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Elstone and Nedumpala estates
The Hindu; Hindustan Times: the townships will come up on 58.50 hectares of Elstone Estate and 48.96 hectares of Nedumpala Estate.
What size of house will each family get in the Wayanad rehabilitation townships approved on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1,000 sq ft, single-storey
The Hindu; Hindustan Times: the homes will be 1,000 sq ft and single-storeyed.
Consider the following statements about the Wayanad rehabilitation plan approved on 1 January 2025: 1. Families at Elstone Estate will get five-cent plots and those at Nedumpala Estate 10-cent plots. 2. Elstone Estate falls under the Kalpetta municipality. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
The Hindu; Hindustan Times: five-cent plots at Elstone (Kalpetta municipality) and 10-cent plots at Nedumpala (Meppadi panchayat).
According to the Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2024 released on 31 December 2024, what is India's overall stage of ground water extraction?
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Correct answer: C — 60.47%
PIB (Jal Shakti): annual extraction of 245.64 BCM against an extractable resource of 406.19 BCM gives a stage of extraction of 60.47%; 73.4% is the share of safe units and 11.13% the share of over-exploited units.
Out of 6,746 assessment units in the 2024 ground water assessment, how many were categorised as 'Over-exploited'?
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Correct answer: A — 751
PIB (Jal Shakti): 751 units are over-exploited; 206 are critical, 711 semi-critical and 127 saline, with 4,951 safe.
Consider the following statements about the 2024 ground water assessment compared with the 2017 assessment: 1. Total annual recharge increased by 15 BCM. 2. Annual extraction increased by 3 BCM. 3. Recharge from tanks, ponds and water conservation structures rose from 13.98 BCM to 25.34 BCM. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Jal Shakti): recharge rose by 15 BCM and extraction fell (not rose) by 3 BCM; recharge from tanks, ponds and WCS rose from 13.98 BCM to 25.34 BCM. So statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The 45 MLD sewage treatment plant approved at the 59th Executive Committee meeting of NMCG for about ₹263 crore is located in which district of Uttar Pradesh?
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Correct answer: D — Chandauli
PIB (Jal Shakti): the ₹263 crore 45 MLD STP on the Hybrid Annuity Model is for Chandauli; Manikpur in Pratapgarh got a 15 KLD faecal sludge plant.
Which town in Bihar got a ₹257 crore sewerage project, including a 50 MLD STP and a 1 MLD nature-based STP, at NMCG's 59th Executive Committee meeting?
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Correct answer: B — Buxar
PIB (Jal Shakti): the ₹257 crore project with a 50 MLD STP, a 1 MLD nature-based STP, three interception pumping stations and 8.68 km of sewers is for Buxar.
Consider the following statements about the projects approved at NMCG's 59th Executive Committee meeting: 1. The meeting was chaired by NMCG Director General Rajeev Kumar Mital. 2. The Chandauli STP will be built on the Hybrid Annuity Model with 15 years of operation and maintenance. 3. Uttarpara-Kotrung in West Bengal got a 50 MLD sewage treatment plant. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Jal Shakti): DG Rajeev Kumar Mital chaired the meeting and the Chandauli STP is on HAM with 15-year O&M; Uttarpara-Kotrung got a 22 KLD faecal sludge plant, not a 50 MLD STP (that is Buxar).
According to the Annual Ground Water Quality Report 2024, India's ground water is predominantly of which type?
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Correct answer: C — Calcium-bicarbonate type
PIB (Jal Shakti): the report finds ground water to be predominantly of the calcium-bicarbonate type.
Consider the following statements about the Annual Ground Water Quality Report 2024 of the CGWB: 1. It is the first such report prepared under a Standard Operating Procedure. 2. It covers more than 15,200 monitoring locations. 3. Over 81% of samples were found suitable for irrigation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Jal Shakti): the report is the first to adopt an SOP, covers over 15,200 monitoring locations, and finds over 81% of samples safe for irrigation. All three statements are correct.
How many 'Good to Moderate' air quality days (AQI below 200) did Delhi record in 2024, according to CAQM's review of 31 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 209
PIB (CAQM): Delhi recorded 209 Good to Moderate days in 2024; 157 is the number of Poor to Severe days.
Which two months of 2024 recorded Delhi's best average AQI for those months since 2018, as per CAQM?
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Correct answer: B — February and December
PIB (CAQM): February and December 2024 had the best average AQI for those months since 2018; January and May were the worst.
Consider the following statements about Delhi's air quality in 2024 as reviewed by CAQM: 1. Delhi's average AQI for 2024 was 209. 2. January 2024, with an average AQI of 355, was the worst January since 2018. 3. Delhi had more 'Poor to Severe' days than 'Good to Moderate' days. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (CAQM): the 2024 average AQI was 209 and January (355) was the worst January; Delhi had 157 Poor–Severe days against 209 Good–Moderate days, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to India's fourth Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted to the UNFCCC on 30 December 2024, by how much did India's total GHG emissions in 2020 change compared with 2019?
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Correct answer: D — Decreased by 7.93%
PIB (MoEFCC): India's total GHG emissions in 2020 decreased by 7.93% with respect to 2019.
As per BUR-4, which sector was the second-largest contributor to India's GHG emissions in 2020, after energy?
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Correct answer: B — Agriculture
PIB (MoEFCC): energy contributed 75.66%, followed by agriculture (13.72%), IPPU (8.06%) and waste (2.56%); LULUCF acted as a net sink.
Consider the following statements regarding India's BUR-4: 1. It contains the national GHG inventory for the year 2020. 2. Between 2005 and 2020, India's emission intensity of GDP fell by 36%. 3. By October 2024, non-fossil sources made up more than half of India's installed electricity capacity. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoEFCC): BUR-4 contains the 2020 inventory and emission intensity of GDP fell by 36% (2005–2020); the non-fossil share of installed capacity was 46.52%, less than half, so statement 3 is wrong.
On 30 December 2024, Maharashtra CM Devendra Fadnavis directed the scrapping of about how many old government vehicles?
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Correct answer: D — 13,000
India Today/Indian Express: the CM directed that over 13,000 old government vehicles be scrapped.
Consider the following statements about Maharashtra's directions of 30 December 2024 on the state transport fleet: 1. State transport buses older than 15 years are to be scrapped. 2. The remaining buses are to be retrofitted with LNG and CNG systems. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
India Today/Indian Express: buses older than 15 years are to be scrapped and the remaining buses retrofitted with LNG and CNG; both statements are correct.
Which stage of the revised Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) did CAQM revoke across the NCR on 27 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Stage-III
PIB (MoEFCC): the CAQM Sub-Committee on GRAP revoked Stage-III of the revised GRAP in the entire NCR with immediate effect on 27 December 2024.
What was Delhi's average AQI at 7 PM on 27 December 2024, when CAQM decided to revoke GRAP Stage-III?
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Correct answer: A — 334
PIB (MoEFCC): Delhi's average AQI improved to 348 at 5 PM, 341 at 6 PM and 334 at 7 PM on 27 December 2024.
Consider the following statements about CAQM's order of 27 December 2024 revoking GRAP Stage-III: 1. All actions under Stages II and I of the revised GRAP remain in force in the NCR. 2. Construction sites issued specific closure orders for violations may resume work once Stage-III is revoked. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
PIB (MoEFCC): all actions under Stages II and I remain invoked, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: C&D sites and industrial units under specific closure orders shall not resume without a specific order from the Commission.
In its clarification of 24 December 2024, the Ministry of Mines asked which body to re-examine the Nayakkarpatti tungsten block and explore redefining its boundary?
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Correct answer: C — Geological Survey of India
PIB (Mines): the Geological Survey of India (GSI) was requested to re-examine the block and explore the possibility of redefining its boundary by excluding the biodiversity heritage site.
According to the Ministry of Mines, the biodiversity heritage site reported by Tamil Nadu covered about what share of the Nayakkarpatti tungsten block?
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Correct answer: D — About 10%
PIB (Mines): the State Government informed about a biodiversity site covering 193.215 ha, about 10% of the total area of the block.
Consider the following statements in the context of the Ministry of Mines' clarification on the Nayakkarpatti block (24 December 2024): 1. A composite licence is a prospecting licence-cum-mining lease. 2. The Letter of Intent to the preferred bidder is issued by the Ministry of Mines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Mines): a composite licence refers to a prospecting licence-cum-mining lease; the ministry's role is limited to the auction, and the Letter of Intent, composite licence and mining lease are issued by the State Government, so statement 2 is wrong.
According to the India State of Forest Report 2023, what share of India's geographical area is under forest and tree cover?
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Correct answer: B — 25.17%
PIB (MoEFCC): ISFR 2023 puts India's total forest and tree cover at 8,27,357 sq km, which is 25.17% of the geographical area (forest cover 21.76%, tree cover 3.41%).
As per ISFR 2023, which State/UT has the highest forest cover as a percentage of its geographical area?
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Correct answer: A — Lakshadweep
PIB (MoEFCC): Lakshadweep (91.33%) has the highest forest cover in percentage terms, followed by Mizoram (85.34%) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands (81.62%).
Which State showed the maximum increase in forest cover (242 sq km) in ISFR 2023?
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Correct answer: D — Mizoram
PIB (MoEFCC): the top three States showing maximum increase in forest cover are Mizoram (242 sq km), Gujarat (180 sq km) and Odisha (152 sq km). Chhattisgarh led the increase in combined forest and tree cover (684 sq km).
Consider the following statements about the India State of Forest Report 2023: 1. It is brought out by the Forest Survey of India on a biennial basis since 1987. 2. It is the 18th report in the series. 3. It was released at the Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy, Dehradun. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoEFCC): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because ISFR 2023 was released at the Forest Research Institute (FRI), Dehradun.
Which two facilities did Union Minister Bhupender Yadav inaugurate at the Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun, on 21 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — An Advanced Facility for Pashmina Certification and a Next Generation DNA Sequencing Facility
PIB (MoEFCC): Bhupender Yadav inaugurated the Advanced Facility for Pashmina Certification and the Next Generation DNA Sequencing Facility at WII, Dehradun.
What did the Pashmina Certification Centre (PCC) at WII issue when it was inaugurated a year before the December 2024 facilities?
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Correct answer: D — Its first unique ID barcode and certificate
PIB (MoEFCC): the new facilities build on the foundation laid the previous year, when the Minister inaugurated the Pashmina Certification Centre (PCC) and issued its first unique ID barcode and certificate.
India and the ADB signed a $42 million loan on 19 December 2024 for a coastal protection project in which state?
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Correct answer: B — Maharashtra
PIB (Finance): the $42 million loan is for the Maharashtra Sustainable Climate-Resilient Coastal Protection and Management Project.
What was the amount of the ADB loan signed for the Maharashtra Sustainable Climate-Resilient Coastal Protection and Management Project in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — $42 million
PIB (Finance): the Government of India and ADB signed a $42 million loan for the project on 19 December 2024.
Which of the following is described by ADB as a flexible nature-based solution against coastal erosion under the Maharashtra coastal protection project?
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Correct answer: A — Beach and dune nourishment
PIB (Finance): ADB's Mio Oka said the project uses hybrid approaches such as offshore reefs and rock protection works, along with flexible nature-based solutions like beach and dune nourishment.