Economy Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many mineral blocks were operationalised in FY 2025-26, a record for a single financial year?
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Correct answer: B — 30
The Ministry of Mines said 30 mineral blocks were operationalised in FY 2025-26, while more than 200 were auctioned.
The India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA), reviewed at a meeting on the sidelines of WTO MC14, was signed in:
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Correct answer: C — July 2025
The India-UK CETA was signed in July 2025 by PM Narendra Modi and PM Keir Starmer.
With which country's trade minister did Piyush Goyal discuss expediting 'CEPA' negotiations on the sidelines of WTO MC14 in March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Canada
Goyal's meeting with Canada's Minister of International Trade Maninder Sidhu focused on expediting the recently launched India-Canada CEPA negotiations.
Who is the EU Trade Commissioner whom Piyush Goyal met at WTO MC14 in March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Maroš Šefčovič
Goyal held a bilateral meeting with EU Trade Commissioner Maroš Šefčovič on the sidelines of MC14.
By how much did the Centre cut excise duty on petrol and diesel on 27 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10 per litre
Excise duty was reduced by ₹10 per litre on both petrol and diesel with immediate effect.
Consider the following statements about the excise duty cut of 27 March 2026: 1. Retail pump prices of petrol and diesel were reduced by the same amount. 2. The cut offsets part of the under-recoveries of public sector oil marketing companies. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Retail pump prices did not change. The reduction directly reduces the under-recoveries absorbed by IOCL, BPCL and HPCL.
According to the government (March 2026), international crude prices had risen in about a month from roughly USD 70 per barrel to around:
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Correct answer: B — USD 122
Crude rose from approximately USD 70 to around USD 122 per barrel – nearly 75% in under four weeks.
According to the PLFS Annual Report 2025, the unemployment rate (usual status, age 15+) in 2025 was:
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Correct answer: B — 3.1%
The unemployment rate in usual status (ps+ss) for persons aged 15+ was 3.1% for both men and women in 2025.
As per PLFS 2025, the youth (15–29 years) unemployment rate in usual status declined to:
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Correct answer: B — 9.9%
Youth unemployment fell to 9.9% in 2025 from 10.3% in 2024. 8.3% is rural youth and 13.6% urban youth.
Consider the following findings of the PLFS Annual Report 2025: 1. Female LFPR (age 15+) was 40.0%. 2. The share of regular wage/salaried workers declined compared to 2024. 3. The share of self-employed persons fell to 56.2%. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Female LFPR was 40.0% and self-employment fell to 56.2%. Regular wage/salaried share rose to 23.6% from 22.4%, so statement 2 is wrong.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 proposes to amend how many provisions of Central Acts?
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Correct answer: D — 784
It proposes amending 784 provisions of 79 Central Acts, of which 717 are to be decriminalised.
Who chaired the Select Committee that examined the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Tejasvi Surya
The Select Committee chaired by Tejasvi Surya held 49 sittings and reported on 13 March 2026.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Jan Vishwas Act, 2023 decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. 2. The Jan Vishwas Bill, 2026 was introduced in the Rajya Sabha. 3. The 2026 Bill proposes replacing imprisonment for minor defaults with monetary penalties or warnings. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
The 2023 Act decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Acts, and the 2026 Bill replaces imprisonment with penalties or warnings. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha.
As of 31 December 2025, PLI schemes had generated investment of over:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2.16 lakh crore
PLI schemes attracted investment of over ₹2.16 lakh crore; ₹20.41 lakh crore is incremental production and sales.
Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes are being implemented across how many key sectors?
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Correct answer: C — 14
PLI schemes are implemented across 14 key sectors. Make in India 2.0 covers 27 sectors.
At the Invest Karnataka Conclave 2026 (26 March 2026), how many companies signed investment agreements worth ₹51,469 crore?
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Correct answer: C — 48
48 companies signed agreements worth ₹51,469 crore, expected to create about 70,000 jobs.
The investment agreements at the Invest Karnataka Conclave 2026 are expected to create about how many jobs?
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Correct answer: C — 70,000
Industries Minister M. B. Patil said the commitments are expected to generate around 70,000 jobs.
As per IRDAI's prescribed timelines, final authorisation of a cashless health insurance claim must be given within:
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Correct answer: A — Three hours
IRDAI prescribes cashless pre-authorisation within one hour and final authorisation within three hours.
Total health insurance premiums in India in 2024-25 exceeded:
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.2 lakh crore
Total health insurance premiums exceeded ₹1.2 lakh crore in 2024-25, growing at around 9%.
Under IRDAI's timelines, an insurer must decide on a request for cashless pre-authorisation within:
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Correct answer: D — One hour
IRDAI prescribes cashless pre-authorisation within one hour; final authorisation within three hours.
Who chairs the Governing Body of the National Mineral Exploration and Development Trust (NMET)?
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Correct answer: A — Minister of Coal and Mines
The NMET Governing Body is chaired by the Union Minister of Coal and Mines, G. Kishan Reddy.
The Gruh Sugam Portal, launched in March 2026 to ease home loans for defence and government personnel, was launched by:
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Correct answer: D — National Housing Bank
The National Housing Bank (NHB) launched the Gruh Sugam Portal on 26 March 2026.
Consider the following about the Gruh Sugam Portal: 1. Defence, paramilitary and government employees can apply for home loans through their administrative units. 2. It works as a unified digital marketplace for comparing lenders' offers. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Applicants apply digitally through their administrative units, and the portal is a unified digital marketplace for discovering the best-suited offer.
As per ASUSE 2025, the estimated number of unincorporated non-agricultural establishments in India was about:
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Correct answer: C — 7.92 crore
Establishments rose from 7.34 crore in ASUSE 2023-24 to 7.92 crore in ASUSE 2025, about 7.97% growth.
In ASUSE 2025, which sector recorded the highest growth in Gross Value Added over ASUSE 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Trade
GVA growth was led by trade (16.77%), followed by manufacturing (8.52%) and other services (7.36%). Construction is excluded from ASUSE.
Consider the following about ASUSE 2025: 1. The share of establishments using the internet rose to 39.4%. 2. Women-owned proprietary establishments declined compared with ASUSE 2023-24. 3. The survey covers construction along with manufacturing, trade and other services. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Women-owned proprietary establishments rose from 26.2% to 27%, and ASUSE excludes construction; only statement 1 is correct.
India's total exports (merchandise and services) in April–January of FY 2025-26 were about:
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Correct answer: B — USD 714.73 billion
Exports were USD 714.73 billion, up 5.26% from USD 679.02 billion in April–January 2024-25. USD 828.25 billion was the full-year 2024-25 figure.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four pillars of India's Foreign Trade Policy 2023 as cited by the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Import substitution
The four pillars are trade facilitation, export promotion, state-level partnerships and digital integration; import substitution is not one of them.
'MuleHunter.AI', mentioned by the Finance Ministry in March 2026, is used to:
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Correct answer: D — Detect mule accounts used in cyber frauds
MuleHunter.AI is RBI's AI/ML-based solution to detect mule accounts used to divert and layer money from cyber frauds; it is live in 26 banks.
Consider the following about the Indian Digital Payment Intelligence Corporation (IDPIC): 1. It was incorporated as a Section 8 company under the Companies Act, 2013. 2. Its mandate is real-time detection and prevention of fraud in digital payments. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
IDPIC was incorporated on 16 October 2025 as a Section 8 company, with the mandate to detect, prevent and analyse digital payment fraud in real time using AI, ML and big data.
According to the NSO CAPEX survey released in March 2026, aggregate provisional private corporate capex for 2025-26 is estimated at about:
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Correct answer: D — ₹11.44 lakh crore
Provisional capex for 2025-26 is ₹11,43,879 crore; ₹9,55,281 crore is the investment intention for 2026-27.
As per the NSO CAPEX survey, the largest source of financing for private corporate capex in 2025-26 is:
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Correct answer: B — Internal accruals
About 65.35% of 2025-26 capex is sourced from internal accruals, while 23.25% comes from domestic debt.
In the NSO CAPEX survey, the 'realisation ratio' for 2024-25 was 96.3%. This means:
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Correct answer: D — Actual capex per enterprise was 96.3% of what was planned
Estimated capex per enterprise for 2024-25 was ₹180.2 crore and actual capex ₹173.5 crore – a realisation ratio of 96.3%.
The RoDTEP scheme, whose rates were restored in March 2026, relates to:
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Correct answer: D — Remission of duties and taxes on exported products
RoDTEP stands for Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products; its rates and value caps were restored from 23 March 2026.
By the decision of 23 March 2026, RoDTEP rates were restored to the levels in force on:
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Correct answer: C — 22 February 2026
The restored rates are those in force on 22 February 2026, withdrawing the 50% restriction imposed on 23 February 2026.
Consider the following about the RoDTEP restoration of March 2026: 1. It withdrew a 50% restriction on RoDTEP rates imposed in February 2026. 2. It applies only to exports bound for West Asian countries. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The restoration covers all eligible export products, not only West Asia-bound exports; it withdrew the 50% restriction of Notification No. 60/2025-26.
How many blocks are on offer in the seventh tranche of critical and strategic mineral auctions launched on 23 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 19
The 7th tranche offers 19 blocks across 10 States; 46 is the number auctioned in the earlier six tranches and 24 the number of notified critical and strategic minerals.
Consider the following about auctions of critical and strategic minerals: 1. The MMDR Act was amended on 17 August 2023 to notify 24 minerals as critical and strategic and let the Centre auction them. 2. The Mineral (Auction) Amendment Rules, 2026 allow an Insurance Surety Bond as an alternative to a bank guarantee. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Mines releases of 22 and 23 March 2026.
The 'orphan and widow cess' on petrol and diesel, approved by a state Assembly in March 2026, belongs to which state?
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Correct answer: B — Himachal Pradesh
The Himachal Pradesh Assembly passed the HP VAT (Amendment) Bill, 2026, on 23 March 2026.
What is the maximum 'orphan and widow cess' per litre on petrol and high-speed diesel permitted by Himachal Pradesh's VAT amendment of March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹5
The Bill allows a cess of up to ₹5 per litre; CM Sukhu said the actual rate could be much lower.
Through which entity does CGSMFI-2.0, introduced in March 2026, provide credit guarantee cover?
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Correct answer: B — National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company
CGSMFI-2.0 provides guarantee cover to banks and FIs through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC).
Under CGSMFI-2.0, what is the guarantee coverage for loans to small NBFC-MFIs/MFIs?
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Correct answer: D — 80% of the amount in default
Coverage is 80% for small, 75% for medium and 70% for large NBFC-MFIs/MFIs.
Consider the following about CGSMFI-2.0: 1. It is valid till 30 June 2026 or until loans of ₹20,000 crore are guaranteed, whichever is earlier. 2. MFIs must on-lend to small borrowers at 1% below their average lending rate of the past six months. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the scheme runs till 30 June 2026 or ₹20,000 crore of guaranteed loans, and on-lending is capped at 1% below the six-month average rate.
Under the modified MCGS-MSME of March 2026, what guarantee coverage is offered to eligible exporters?
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Correct answer: C — 75% of the amount in default
Exporters get 75% coverage on a ₹20 crore guaranteed loan, compared with the base 60% cover of the scheme.
Consider the following about the modifications to MCGS-MSME in March 2026: 1. Service-sector MSMEs have been included in the scheme. 2. The minimum share of equipment/machinery in project cost has been raised from 60% to 75%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Service-sector MSMEs were added; the minimum equipment/machinery share was reduced to 60% from 75%, not raised, so statement 2 is wrong.
What is the size of Himachal Pradesh's budget for 2026-27, presented on 21 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹54,928 crore
The 2026-27 budget is ₹54,928 crore, down from ₹58,514 crore in 2025-26.
Himachal's CM attributed the smaller 2026-27 budget mainly to the discontinuation of:
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Correct answer: B — Revenue Deficit Grant
He said the end of the Revenue Deficit Grant, after the Centre accepted the 16th Finance Commission's recommendations, costs the state about ₹8,105 crore a year on average.
Consider the following about the salary deferment announced in Himachal's 2026-27 budget: 1. 50% of the Chief Minister's salary will be deferred for six months. 2. MLAs' salaries will be deferred by 30%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The CM's salary is deferred by 50%; MLAs' by 20% (30% applies to the Deputy CM and ministers), so statement 2 is wrong.
What is the total outlay of Telangana's budget for 2026-27, presented on 20 March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹3.24 lakh crore
The 2026-27 budget outlay is ₹3,24,234 crore (about ₹3.24 lakh crore); ₹2.34 lakh crore is the revenue expenditure.
Under the Indiramma Family Life Insurance Scheme announced in Telangana's 2026-27 budget, each family gets life cover of:
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Correct answer: D — ₹5 lakh
The scheme will provide ₹5 lakh life insurance to each of 1.15 crore families from 2 June 2026.
Consider the following about Telangana's budget for 2026-27: 1. Capital expenditure is estimated at ₹47,267 crore. 2. The Indiramma Family Life Insurance Scheme will start on 2 June, Telangana's State formation day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: capital expenditure is ₹47,267 crore, and the insurance scheme begins on 2 June 2026, the State formation day.
By how much did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries grow in February 2026 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: B — 2.3%
The ICI grew 2.3% in February 2026; 4.7% was the final January figure and 2.9% the April–February cumulative growth.
Which of the eight core industries carries the largest weight in the Index of Eight Core Industries?
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Correct answer: D — Petroleum refinery products
Petroleum refinery products have the largest weight, 28.04%.
Consider the following about the core industries data for February 2026: 1. Crude oil and natural gas production declined compared with February 2025. 2. The eight core industries together account for about 40% of the weight of items in the IIP. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: crude oil fell 5.2% and natural gas 5.0%, and the core industries make up 40.27% of the IIP weight.
Which body is the nodal and implementing agency for the RELIEF export intervention approved in March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ECGC Ltd
ECGC Ltd has been designated the nodal and implementing agency for verification, claim processing, disbursement and monitoring under RELIEF.
RELIEF, approved on 19 March 2026 to help exporters amid West Asia disruption, is an intervention under:
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Correct answer: D — Export Promotion Mission
RELIEF (Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation) is an intervention under the Export Promotion Mission (EPM).
What is the approved financial outlay for RELIEF under the Export Promotion Mission?
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Correct answer: A — ₹497 crore
RELIEF will be implemented under the Export Promotion Mission with an approved outlay of ₹497 crore.
Consider the following about RELIEF (March 2026): 1. ECGC-insured consignments shipped between 14 February and 15 March 2026 can get up to 100% risk cover over and above existing ECGC cover. 2. Non-ECGC-insured MSME exporters can get full reimbursement of freight surcharges with no ceiling. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: non-insured MSME exporters get partial reimbursement of up to 50%, capped at ₹50 lakh per exporter.
Which State auctioned the most mineral blocks in FY 2025-26, when India auctioned a record 200 blocks?
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Correct answer: D — Gujarat
Gujarat led with 32 blocks, followed by Rajasthan (30) and Tamil Nadu (22).
Which mineral accounted for the largest number of blocks auctioned in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — Limestone
Limestone accounted for 76 blocks, the most auctioned mineral, followed by iron ore (40) and bauxite (30).
Consider the following about mineral block auctions in FY 2025-26: 1. A majority of the 200 auctioned blocks were Composite Licence blocks. 2. Tamil Nadu conducted mineral block auctions for the first time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: 123 of the 200 were Mining Lease blocks and 77 Composite Licence blocks. Statement 2 is correct.
Odisha's State Level Single Window Clearance Authority approved 23 industrial projects on 17 March 2026 with a total investment of:
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,510.65 crore
The 145th SLSWCA meeting approved 23 proposals worth ₹4,510.65 crore, expected to create 10,122 jobs.
Who chaired the 145th meeting of Odisha's State Level Single Window Clearance Authority on 17 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Chief Secretary Anu Garg
The SLSWCA meeting was chaired by Chief Secretary Anu Garg.
As on 31 January 2026, how many entities had been recognised as startups by DPIIT?
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Correct answer: C — 2,12,283
A total of 2,12,283 entities had been recognised as startups by DPIIT as on 31 January 2026; 1,02,054 of them have at least one woman director or partner.
The Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) under Startup India is operationalised by:
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Correct answer: B — SIDBI
FFS is operationalised by SIDBI, which provides capital to SEBI-registered Alternative Investment Funds that invest in startups.
India's total exports (merchandise and services) during April–February 2025-26 are estimated at:
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Correct answer: D — US$ 790.86 billion
Total exports for April–February 2025-26 are estimated at US$ 790.86 billion, up 5.79%; US$ 900.51 billion is the estimate of total imports.
Which sector led India's merchandise export growth in February 2026, rising 12.90% to US$ 10.36 billion?
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Correct answer: D — Engineering goods
Engineering goods exports rose 12.90% from US$ 9.17 billion in February 2025 to US$ 10.36 billion in February 2026.
Consider the following about India's trade data for February 2026: 1. Merchandise exports in February 2026 were higher than in February 2025. 2. India recorded an overall (merchandise plus services) trade deficit in February 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: merchandise exports were US$ 36.61 billion against US$ 36.91 billion in February 2025. Statement 2 is correct: the overall trade balance was –US$ 3.96 billion.
According to the PLFS monthly bulletin for February 2026, the urban unemployment rate (15+ years, CWS) was:
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Correct answer: C — 6.6%
Urban unemployment fell to 6.6% in February 2026 from 7.0% in January; rural unemployment was 4.2%.
PLFS monthly estimates of LFPR, WPR and unemployment rate are based on which approach?
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Correct answer: D — Current Weekly Status
The monthly bulletins present all-India estimates following the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach.
Consider the following about the PLFS bulletin for February 2026: 1. Female labour force participation rate (15+) rose compared with January 2026. 2. Rural unemployment rate fell sharply compared with January 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: female LFPR rose to 35.3% from 35.1%. Statement 2 is wrong: rural unemployment was unchanged at 4.2%.
What was India's annual WPI inflation rate (provisional) for February 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 2.13%
WPI inflation was 2.13% in February 2026, up from 1.81% in January; 3.27% was the inflation in primary articles.
Consider the following about WPI data for February 2026: 1. The 'Fuel & Power' group recorded negative annual inflation. 2. 'Manufactured Products' have the largest weight among the three major groups of the WPI. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Fuel & Power inflation was –3.78%, and Manufactured Products carry a weight of 64.23%.
Who delivered the keynote address at the CCI's 11th National Conference on Economics of Competition Law on 16 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Rajiv Gauba
NITI Aayog Member Rajiv Gauba delivered the keynote; CCI Chairperson Ravneet Kaur gave the special address.
Consider the following about the CCI's National Conference on Economics of Competition Law: 1. The CCI has organised it every year since 2016. 2. The March 2026 conference was its 11th edition. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the conference has been held annually since 2016, and the 16 March 2026 event was the 11th edition.