SF Prep Notes

Current Affairs Quiz — 19 October 2025

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

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10 news · 25 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 25 questions
Holy Relics of Lord Buddha return to India after first exposition in Kalmykia, Russia
Q1

The Holy Relics of Lord Buddha were exhibited in October 2025 in which republic of the Russian Federation?

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Correct answer: D — Kalmykia

PIB: the relics returned to India after a week-long exposition (11–18 October 2025) in the Republic of Kalmykia, Russia; the delegation departed from Elista, its capital.

Q2 Advanced

Who led the Indian delegation accompanying the Buddha relics to Kalmykia in October 2025?

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Correct answer: A — Manoj Sinha, Lieutenant Governor of J&K

PIB: the Indian delegation was led by Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha; UP Deputy CM Keshav Prasad Maurya inaugurated Vasudeo Kamath's art exhibition there.

Q3 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Buddha relics exposition in Kalmykia (October 2025): 1. It was organised by the Ministry of Culture with the International Buddhist Confederation, the National Museum and IGNCA. 2. Artist Vasudeo Kamath donated all 28 paintings displayed there to the National Museum in Elista. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. PIB: the exposition was a collaborative effort of the Ministry of Culture, IBC, National Museum and IGNCA; Kamath donated all 28 paintings to the National Museum of Elista.

Mines Ministry adds intermediate timelines and penalties to speed up operationalisation of auctioned mineral blocks
Q4 Advanced

The Ministry of Mines' October 2025 amendment introducing intermediate timelines for auctioned mineral blocks was made to which rules?

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Correct answer: A — Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015

PIB: the Ministry of Mines notified an amendment to the Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015, introducing intermediary timelines from LoI to execution of the mining lease.

Q5 Advanced

Under the amended mineral auction rules (October 2025), what penalty applies for delay beyond a prescribed intermediate timeline?

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Correct answer: B — Appropriation of 1% of the bank guarantee per month of delay

PIB: delay beyond the prescribed timelines attracts appropriation of the bidder's bank guarantee to the extent of 1% for each month or part of a month.

Q6 Advanced

Consider the following statements about mineral block auctions as described by the Ministry of Mines in October 2025: 1. All 585 major mineral blocks auctioned since 2015 are critical mineral blocks. 2. For a mining lease auction, the total penalty-free timeline from LoI to lease execution is 7 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Neither is correct. PIB: of 585 major mineral blocks auctioned, 34 are critical mineral blocks auctioned by the Centre; the penalty-free timeline is 3 years for a mining lease and 7 years for a composite licence.

Centre approves advance release of ₹1,950.80 crore SDRF share to Karnataka and Maharashtra
Q7

Of the ₹1,950.80 crore SDRF advance approved in October 2025, which state received the larger share?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Maharashtra

PIB: Maharashtra was approved ₹1,566.40 crore and Karnataka ₹384.40 crore out of ₹1,950.80 crore.

Q8 Advanced

As of 19 October 2025, how much had the Centre released to states under SDRF during 2025-26?

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Correct answer: D — ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states

PIB: the Centre released ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states under SDRF; the other figures relate to NDRF (₹2,189.28 crore), SDMF (₹4,571.30 crore) and NDMF (₹372.09 crore).

Q9 Advanced

Consider the following statements about disaster response funding and deployment in 2025: 1. The advance release to Karnataka and Maharashtra was the second instalment of the Central share of SDRF for 2025-26. 2. During the 2025 monsoon, NDRF teams were deployed in only 15 States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: the ₹1,950.80 crore was the 2nd instalment of the Central share of SDRF; up to 199 NDRF teams were deployed in 30 States/UTs (15 is the number of states that received NDRF funds).

ECI deploys Central Observers for Bihar Assembly election and bye-elections in 8 constituencies
Q10

Under which Article of the Constitution does the Election Commission exercise the plenary powers used to appoint Central Observers?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Article 324

PIB: the Commission appoints Central Observers under the plenary powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the RP Act, 1951.

Q11 Advanced

Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the appointment of observers by the Election Commission?

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Correct answer: A — Section 20B

PIB: Central Observers are appointed under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Q12 Advanced

Consider the following statements about observers for the Bihar elections 2025: 1. 121 General Observers were deployed for Phase 2. 2. 8 General and 8 Police Observers were deployed for the bye-elections in 8 Assembly constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. PIB: Phase 1 had 121 General Observers and Phase 2 had 122; 8 General and 8 Police Observers were deployed for the 8 bye-elections.

PM Modi urges citizens to buy Indian products this festive season: 'Garv Se Kaho Yeh Swadeshi Hai'
Q13

Which phrase did PM Modi use on 19 October 2025 while urging citizens to buy Indian products during the festive season?

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Correct answer: A — Garv Se Kaho Yeh Swadeshi Hai

PIB: the PM said, 'Let's buy Indian products and say — Garv Se Kaho Yeh Swadeshi Hai!' and asked people to share their purchases on social media.

Army Chief reviews forward posts in Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, and Vibrant Village initiatives
Q14

In October 2025, the Army Chief reviewed high-altitude formations in the central sector in which district of Uttarakhand?

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Correct answer: B — Pithoragarh

PIB: the COAS reviewed formations deployed in high-altitude areas of Pithoragarh and adjacent forward posts.

Q15 Advanced

Tent-based homestays reviewed by the Army Chief under the Vibrant Village Programme in October 2025 are located at which places?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Garbyang and Kalapani

PIB: the COAS reviewed initiatives under Operation Sadbhavna and the Vibrant Village Programme, including tent-based homestays in Garbyang and Kalapani.

Q16 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Army Chief's visit of October 2025: 1. He described the Kumaon region as a gateway to border areas with Bhutan and China. 2. The visit was to forward areas in the western sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Neither is correct. PIB: he called Kumaon a gateway to border areas with Nepal and China (not Bhutan), and the visit was to the central sector.

World Osteoporosis Day 2025: Ayush Ministry highlights Ayurvedic approaches to bone health
Q17 Advanced

According to the Ayush Ministry's World Osteoporosis Day 2025 note, Ayurveda associates osteoporosis primarily with the vitiation of which dosha?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Vata

PIB: according to Ayurveda, osteoporosis is primarily associated with the vitiation of Vata dosha, which weakens bone strength and density.

Q18 Advanced

Which classical Ayurvedic concept did the CCRAS Director General say aligns closely with the modern understanding of bone fragility (October 2025)?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Asthi Saushirya

PIB: Prof. Rabinarayan Acharya, DG, CCRAS, said the classical concept of Asthi Saushirya aligns closely with the modern understanding of bone fragility.

Notaries (Amendment) Rules, 2025 raise notary limits in Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan and Nagaland
Q19

Under the Notaries (Amendment) Rules, 2025, the maximum number of notaries in which state was raised from 2,900 to 6,000?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Gujarat

PIB: for Gujarat the figure 2,900 was replaced by 6,000; Tamil Nadu went from 2,500 to 3,500 and Rajasthan from 2,000 to 3,000.

Q20 Advanced

The Notaries (Amendment) Rules, 2025 were made under which provision?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Section 15 of the Notaries Act, 1952

PIB: the rules were notified in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 15 of the Notaries Act, 1952, amending the Notaries Rules, 1956.

Q21 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Notaries (Amendment) Rules, 2025: 1. The maximum number of notaries in Nagaland was doubled. 2. Tamil Nadu's limit was raised by 1,000. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. PIB: Nagaland went from 200 to 400 (doubled) and Tamil Nadu from 2,500 to 3,500 (an increase of 1,000).

WCD Ministry awarded for PM-JANMAN implementation; over 2,000 anganwadis made functional in PVTG areas
Q22 Advanced

How many Anganwadi Centres have been made functional in PVTG areas under PM-JANMAN, according to the WCD Ministry (October 2025)?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — More than 2,000

PIB: more than 2000 Anganwadi Centres have been made functional in Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) areas under PM JANMAN.

Q23

At which event did the WCD Ministry receive its award for PM-JANMAN implementation in October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — National Conclave on Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan

PIB: the felicitation took place during the National Conclave on 'Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan' at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, organised by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

DRI seizes 83,520 Chinese firecrackers worth ₹5.01 crore at Tuticorin port; four arrested
Q24 Advanced

In the Operation Fire Trail case at Tuticorin port (October 2025), the Chinese firecrackers had been mis-declared as:

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Engineering goods

PIB: the two containers at Tuticorin held 83,520 Chinese firecrackers mis-declared as engineering goods. (The Nhava Sheva case reported on 20 October involved goods declared as leggings.)

Q25

At which port did the DRI seize 83,520 pieces of Chinese firecrackers worth ₹5.01 crore, as reported on 19 October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Tuticorin

PIB: DRI intercepted two forty-foot containers at Tuticorin Port containing 83,520 pieces of Chinese firecrackers valued at ₹5.01 crore.