Current Affairs Quiz — 08 April 2025
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
From which date did the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 come into force?
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Correct answer: B — 8 April 2025
8 April 2025, as notified by the Ministry of Minority Affairs under section 1(2); the Act received assent on 5 April 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It received the President's assent on 8 April 2025. 2. It changes the short title of the Waqf Act, 1995 by substituting the words 'Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development' for 'Waqf'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The Act received assent on 5 April 2025; 8 April 2025 is the date it came into force.
From which date did the Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Act, 2025 come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 9 April 2025
9 April 2025, under notification S.O. 1676(E) of the Ministry of Minority Affairs, a day after the Waqf (Amendment) Act took effect.
When was the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 8 April 2015
8 April 2015; the scheme completed 10 years on 8 April 2025.
What is the current maximum loan limit under PMMY after the increase announced in the Union Budget 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 lakh
₹20 lakh, raised from ₹10 lakh with effect from 24 October 2024 through the new Tarun Plus category.
Consider the following statements about PMMY: 1. According to the Finance Minister, nearly 68% of MUDRA loan accounts have been sanctioned to women. 2. The Tarun Plus category is open to any first-time borrower. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Tarun Plus (₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh) is only for borrowers who have availed and successfully repaid loans under the Tarun category.
Under PMMY, the Shishu category covers loans up to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹50,000
₹50,000; Kishor covers loans above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5 lakh.
Which bench of the Supreme Court delivered the judgment in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu on 8 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan
Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan; the judgment was authored by Justice Pardiwala.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the Supreme Court declare the ten Tamil Nadu Bills deemed to have received assent?
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Correct answer: B — Article 142
Article 142, which empowers the Court to pass orders necessary for doing complete justice.
Consider the following statements about the timelines prescribed in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025): 1. If the Governor withholds assent contrary to the advice of the State Council of Ministers, the Bill must be returned with a message within a maximum of three months. 2. The President is required to decide on Bills reserved under Article 201 within three months, recording reasons for any delay. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Court set a three-month limit for returning a Bill with a message when assent is withheld against advice, and a three-month period for the President under Article 201.
How many re-passed Bills did the Supreme Court declare deemed to have been assented to in its 8 April 2025 judgment?
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Correct answer: D — Ten
Ten; the Assembly had re-passed them on 18 November 2023 and the Governor reserved them for the President on 28 November 2023.
How many Regional Rural Banks were amalgamated in the fourth phase notified on 8 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 26
26 RRBs in 10 states and 1 UT; the total number of RRBs falls from 43 to 28.
After the fourth phase of amalgamation, how many RRBs will function in the country?
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Correct answer: D — 28
28, in 26 states and 2 UTs, with more than 22,000 branches.
Consider the following statements about RRB amalgamation: 1. The fourth phase follows the principle of 'One State One RRB'. 2. In Phase-I (FY 2006 to FY 2010), the number of RRBs was reduced from 196 to 82. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The fourth phase is based on 'One State One RRB', and Phase-I cut RRBs from 196 to 82.
Poshan Pakhwada 2025 was which edition, and when was it held?
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Correct answer: C — 7th, 8-22 April 2025
7th, 8-22 April 2025, organised by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Consider the following about the themes of Poshan Pakhwada 2025: 1. Focus on the First 1000 Days of Life is one of the themes. 2. Universal school breakfast is one of the themes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The four themes were the First 1000 Days, the Poshan Tracker beneficiary module, CMAM, and a healthy lifestyle to address childhood obesity; school breakfast was not among them.
Where was the first Himalayan High Altitude Atmospheric and Climate Research Centre inaugurated in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Nathatop, Jammu and Kashmir
Nathatop, Jammu and Kashmir; the J&K Government provided the land and the Central University of Jammu is a research partner.
The ICE-CRUNCH project launched in April 2025 is a joint research project between Indian scientists and which institution?
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Correct answer: A — ETH Zurich, Switzerland
ETH Zurich, Switzerland; it studies ice nucleating particles and cloud condensation nuclei in the North-Western Himalayas.
Which state recorded the highest cotton procurement under MSP operations in the 2024-25 season (up to 31 March 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Telangana
Telangana, with 40 lakh bales, followed by Maharashtra (30 lakh) and Gujarat (14 lakh).
Which is the Ministry of Textiles' nodal agency for cotton procurement under MSP?
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Correct answer: A — Cotton Corporation of India
Cotton Corporation of India (CCI), which procured 100 lakh bales in 2024-25 up to 31 March 2025.
The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship partnered with which organisation on the 'India Skills Accelerator' in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — World Economic Forum
World Economic Forum (WEF); the Accelerator is a national public-private collaboration platform for skilling.
In how many cities has the Ports Ministry approved technical feasibility studies to replicate the Kochi Water Metro model?
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Correct answer: C — 24
24 cities, including Guwahati, Dibrugarh and Tezpur in Assam.
Who is the Crown Prince of Dubai who met Prime Minister Narendra Modi in New Delhi on 8 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sheikh Hamdan bin Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum
Sheikh Hamdan bin Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum; the PM said Dubai has played a key role in the India-UAE Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.
The Marwatola-II and Namchik West coal mines, for which CMDPAs were signed in April 2025, were auctioned in which round of commercial coal mining?
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Correct answer: D — 11th round
11th round; with these, CMDPAs have been signed for 120 commercial coal mines.
The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) signed an MoA in April 2025 to launch Phase 2 of 'Niveshak Didi' with:
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Correct answer: D — India Post Payments Bank
India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), under the Department of Posts.
Padma Shri Ram Sahay Panday, who died in April 2025, was an exponent of which folk dance of Bundelkhand?
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Correct answer: D — Rai
Rai, the folk dance of Bundelkhand; he received the Padma Shri in 2022.