UPSSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, whose private papers were acquired by the National Archives of India in April 2025, served as President of India during:
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Correct answer: D — 2002–2007
Dr Kalam was the 11th President of India from 2002 to 2007.
Consider the following: 1. The private paper collection of Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was acquired by the National Archives of India. 2. Dr Kalam was born on 15 October 1931 in Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Culture release of 28 April 2025.
How many Aadhaar authentication transactions were carried out in 2024-25, as per MeitY's release of 28 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 2,707 crore
Aadhaar number holders carried out more than 2,707 crore authentication transactions in 2024-25.
Consider the following about Aadhaar usage in March 2025: 1. Face authentication transactions exceeded 15 crore. 2. e-KYC transactions totalled 246.75 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. e-KYC transactions in March 2025 were 44.63 crore; 246.75 crore was the total number of authentication transactions.
In which year did the Government institute the Armed Forces Battle Casualties Welfare Fund, as cited by the Defence Ministry on 27 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2020
The Government instituted the Armed Forces Battle Casualties Welfare Fund in 2020.
Consider the following about the Armed Forces Battle Casualties Welfare Fund (AFBCWF): 1. Its accounts are maintained by the Indian Army on behalf of the Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare. 2. It provides immediate financial assistance to families of personnel who lose their lives or are grievously injured in active military operations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as stated in the Ministry of Defence release of 27 April 2025.
Consider the following about the 'Sachet' app mentioned in Mann Ki Baat on 27 April 2025: 1. It has been developed by the National Disaster Management Authority. 2. It provides information only in English and Hindi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The PM said the NDMA-developed app also provides a lot of information in regional languages.
Who wrote the book 'Satyagraha in Champaran', recommended by the PM in Mann Ki Baat on 27 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Rajendra Prasad
The PM said Dr Rajendra Prasad, the first President after Independence, contributed to the Satyagraha and wrote 'Satyagraha in Champaran'.
Consider the following based on Mann Ki Baat of 27 April 2025: 1. Babu Veer Kunwar Singh was a hero of the 1857 revolution. 2. 10 May marks the anniversary of the first freedom struggle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as mentioned by the PM.
In which year did Gandhiji reach Champaran in Bihar, as recalled in Mann Ki Baat on 27 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 1917
The PM recalled that Gandhiji reached Champaran in Bihar in 1917.
On which date was the death anniversary of Babu Veer Kunwar Singh observed, as mentioned in Mann Ki Baat on 27 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 26 April
The PM said the death anniversary of Babu Veer Kunwar Singh was observed on 26 April.
How many UDAN routes had been operationalised, as per the Civil Aviation Ministry's backgrounder marking 8 years of the scheme's first flight?
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Correct answer: A — 625
625 UDAN routes have been operationalised, connecting 90 airports.
Consider the following about the UDAN scheme: 1. It was launched on 21 October 2016. 2. India's airports grew from 74 in 2014 to 159 in 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Civil Aviation Ministry backgrounder.
The 90 airports connected under UDAN, as per the Civil Aviation Ministry backgrounder of April 2025, include how many heliports?
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Correct answer: D — 15
The 90 airports connected under UDAN include 2 water aerodromes and 15 heliports.
Consider the following about IOS SAGAR's deployment in April 2025: 1. It made a port call at Port Louis, Mauritius, from 26 to 28 April 2025. 2. On departure, it was to undertake a joint EEZ surveillance with the Mauritius Coast Guard. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Defence Ministry release of 29 April 2025.
What was the theme of World Veterinary Day 2025, as highlighted at the national workshop in New Delhi on 26 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Animal Health Takes a Team
The theme highlighted was 'Animal Health Takes a Team'.
As per the Animal Husbandry Department's release of 26 April 2025, India's livestock population is over:
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Correct answer: D — 536 million
India is home to over 536 million livestock, the largest in the world.
How many appointment letters were distributed at the 15th tranche of the Rozgar Mela on 26 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 51,000
PM Modi distributed over 51,000 appointment letters at the 15th Rozgar Mela.
At how many locations was the 15th tranche of the Rozgar Mela held on 26 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 47
The 15th Rozgar Mela was held simultaneously at 47 locations nationwide.
Consider the following about the Rozgar Mela of 26 April 2025: 1. The PM gave the new recruits the mantra 'Nagarik Parmo Dharma'. 2. The initiative has so far facilitated the onboarding of more than ten lakh young professionals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Finance Ministry release.
Consider the following about the DGCA directive to airlines of 26 April 2025: 1. It is mandatory, and non-compliance may attract action under the Civil Aviation Requirements. 2. It is valid for 30 days only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The directive is effective immediately and remains in force until further notice.
Consider the following about the DGCA's passenger handling directive of 26 April 2025: 1. Airlines must revise catering based on the scheduled (not actual) block time. 2. The directive applies only to international carriers of foreign origin. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. Catering is to be revised based on the actual block time, and the directive applies to all airline operators.
From which centre were the 20 red-crowned roofed turtles transferred for release into the Haiderpur Wetland on 26 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Garhaita Turtle Conservation Centre
The turtles were transferred from the Garhaita Turtle Conservation Centre, under the supervision of the National Chambal Sanctuary, UP.
Consider the following about the red-crowned roofed turtle release of 26 April 2025: 1. It is the first attempt at reintroducing this species into the Ganga. 2. All the turtles were released downstream in the main channel of the Ganga. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The turtles were released in two groups — one above the Haiderpur barrage and one downstream in the main channel.
How many red-crowned roofed turtles were released into the Haiderpur Wetland on 26 April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 20
On 26 April 2025, 20 turtles were transferred and released into the Haiderpur Wetland.
What is the theme of World Malaria Day 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Malaria Ends With Us: Reinvest, Reimagine, Reignite
The theme for World Malaria Day 2025 is 'Malaria Ends With Us: Reinvest, Reimagine, Reignite'.
Consider the following, as stated by the Health Ministry on World Malaria Day 2025: 1. India exited the WHO's High Burden to High Impact (HBHI) group in 2024. 2. India aims to achieve full elimination of malaria by 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. India aims for zero indigenous cases by 2027 and full elimination by 2030.
How many high-burden districts does the Intensified Malaria Elimination Project (IMEP)-3 target?
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Correct answer: C — 159
IMEP-3 targets 159 high-burden districts; 122 districts reported zero malaria cases in 2023.
Dr. K. Kasturirangan, whose passing the Prime Minister condoled on 25 April 2025, is remembered for his efforts during the drafting of which policy?
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Correct answer: B — National Education Policy
The PM said India will always be grateful to Dr. Kasturirangan for his efforts during the drafting of the National Education Policy (NEP).
Consider the following about the Prime Minister's tribute to Dr. K. Kasturirangan on 25 April 2025: 1. The PM said he served ISRO with great diligence, steering India's space programme to new heights. 2. The PM credited him with drafting the National Strategy for AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The PM credited him for his efforts on the National Education Policy, not the National Strategy for AI.
How many districts reported zero measles cases during January–March 2025, as stated at the launch of the MR elimination campaign?
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Correct answer: C — 332
332 districts reported zero measles cases and 487 districts zero rubella cases in January–March 2025.
Consider the following about the National Zero Measles-Rubella Elimination Campaign 2025-26: 1. It was launched on the first day of World Immunization Week (24–30 April). 2. India's MR vaccination coverage for the second dose is 93.7%, as per 2024-25 HMIS data. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Second-dose coverage is 92.2%; 93.7% is the first-dose coverage.
By which year does India aim to eliminate measles and rubella, as per the Health Ministry release of 24 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2026
The campaign marks a step towards India's goal of eliminating measles and rubella by 2026.
How much cargo moved on India's inland waterways in FY 2024-25, a record?
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Correct answer: D — 145.5 million tonnes
Inland waterways moved a record 145.5 million tonnes in FY 2024-25, up from 18.1 million tonnes in FY 2013-14.
Consider the following about India's inland waterways: 1. The number of National Waterways increased from 5 to 111. 2. The Jalvahak Scheme offers cargo owners a 35% operating cost incentive. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ports, Shipping and Waterways Ministry release.
India aims to raise the modal share of inland water transport from 2% to what level?
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Correct answer: B — 5%
India aims to increase the modal share of inland water transport from 2% to 5%.
Consider the following decisions of the Cabinet Committee on Security on 23 April 2025, as announced by the Foreign Secretary: 1. The Indus Waters Treaty of 1960 will be held in abeyance with immediate effect, until Pakistan credibly and irrevocably abjures its support for cross-border terrorism. 2. The Integrated Check Post Attari will be closed with immediate effect; those who crossed over with valid endorsements may return through that route before 01 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as stated in the MEA special briefing of 23 April 2025.
As per the CCS decision of 23 April 2025, to what number will the overall strength of the High Commissions be brought down by 01 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 30
The overall strength of the High Commissions will be brought down to 30 from the present 55.
As per the CCS decision of 23 April 2025, how much time was given to Pakistani nationals in India under SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES) visas to leave India?
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Correct answer: D — 48 hours
Any Pakistani national in India under an SVES visa has 48 hours to leave; the Service Advisors were given a week.
Consider the following about the CCS decisions of 23 April 2025 on Service Advisors: 1. The Defence/Military, Naval and Air Advisors in the Pakistani High Commission in New Delhi were declared persona non grata and given a week to leave India. 2. India will retain its own Defence/Navy/Air Advisors in the Indian High Commission in Islamabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. India will withdraw its own Defence/Navy/Air Advisors from Islamabad, and these posts are deemed annulled.
How many candidates did UPSC recommend for appointment in the final result of the Civil Services Examination 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 1,009
A total of 1,009 candidates were recommended; 230 are on the reserve list.
How many IAS vacancies were reported by the Government for the Civil Services Examination 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 180
The Government reported 180 IAS vacancies; 55 were for the IFS and 147 for the IPS.
In which city did PM Modi and Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman co-chair the second India–Saudi Arabia Strategic Partnership Council meeting on 22 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Jeddah
The second SPC meeting was held in Jeddah; it was the PM's first visit to the city.
Consider the following about the India–Saudi Arabia Strategic Partnership Council meeting of 22 April 2025: 1. The Council was expanded to four ministerial committees, adding committees on Defence Cooperation and on Tourism and Cultural Cooperation. 2. It was the first meeting of the Council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. It was the second meeting; the first was held in September 2023.
How much has Saudi Arabia committed to invest in India, as cited in the outcomes of the PM's visit of April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — USD 100 billion
The outcomes refer to Saudi Arabia's commitment to invest USD 100 billion in India.
Which of the following was NOT among the MoUs/agreements listed in the outcomes of the PM's State Visit to Saudi Arabia in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Customs Mutual Assistance Agreement
The listed MoUs covered space, health, anti-doping and inward surface parcels; a Customs Mutual Assistance Agreement was discussed at the India–Bhutan customs meeting, not signed with Saudi Arabia.
When PM Modi hosted US Vice President J.D. Vance on 21 April 2025, the two welcomed significant progress in negotiations for which of the following?
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Correct answer: D — India–US Bilateral Trade Agreement
India–US Bilateral Trade Agreement: the PMO release says they welcomed significant progress in its negotiations.
Consider the following about the PM's meeting with US Vice President J.D. Vance on 21 April 2025: 1. The two had earlier met in Paris in February 2025. 2. The PM said he looked forward to President Trump's visit to India later in the year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the PMO release.
Who took charge as Secretary, Department of Agricultural Research and Education and Director General, ICAR on 21 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Mangi Lal Jat
Mangi Lal Jat assumed charge as Secretary, DARE and DG, ICAR for three years.
Immediately before taking charge as DG, ICAR in April 2025, Dr. Mangi Lal Jat was serving as Deputy Director General (Research) at which institution?
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Correct answer: C — ICRISAT
ICRISAT: he was DDG (Research) and Director of the Global Research Program at ICRISAT, Hyderabad; CIMMYT and IRRI were earlier positions.
At what rate did the Centre impose a safeguard duty on imports of certain non-alloy and alloy steel flat products in April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 12%
12%: the Ministry of Steel said a 12% safeguard duty was imposed.
Consider the following about the steel import duty announced in April 2025: 1. It applies to certain non-alloy and alloy steel flat products. 2. It is an anti-dumping duty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. It is a safeguard duty, not an anti-dumping duty.
What is the final settlement amount in the Android TV case in which the CCI accepted Google's settlement proposal in April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹20.24 crore
₹20.24 crore, after applying a 15% settlement discount.
Under which provision of the Competition Act, 2002 did the CCI agree to Google's settlement proposal in the Android TV case?
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Correct answer: D — Section 48A
Section 48A: the CCI acted under Section 48A(3) read with the Settlement Regulations, 2024; Section 19(1)(a) covers the filing of information, Section 26(1) the DG investigation, and Section 4 abuse of dominance.
By how much did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries grow (provisional) in March 2025 over March 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 3.8%
3.8%: the ICI grew 3.8% in March 2025; 4.4% was the cumulative growth for 2024-25.
Consider the following about the Index of Eight Core Industries for March 2025: 1. The eight core industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production. 2. Natural gas recorded the highest growth among the eight industries in March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Cement recorded the highest growth (11.6%); natural gas declined by 12.7%.
Which of the following carries the highest weight in the Index of Eight Core Industries?
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Correct answer: C — Petroleum refinery products
Petroleum refinery products carry a weight of 28.04%, ahead of electricity (19.85%), steel (17.92%) and coal (10.33%).
At the ISSF World Cup in Lima in April 2025, Arjun Babuta won the men's 10m air rifle silver after losing by 0.1 point to which shooter?
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Correct answer: B — Sheng Lihao
Arjun Babuta scored 252.3 in the final and lost by 0.1 point to reigning Olympic champion Sheng Lihao of China, who scored 252.4.
In which city was the ISSF World Cup stage held where Arjun Babuta won the men's 10m air rifle silver in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Lima
Babuta won the silver at the ISSF World Cup (Rifle/Pistol/Shotgun) in Lima, Peru.
The Indian pair of Rudrankksh Patil and Arya Borse lost the 10m air rifle mixed team gold medal match at the ISSF World Cup in Lima in April 2025 to a pair from which country?
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Correct answer: B — Norway
Rudrankksh Patil and Arya Borse lost 11–17 to Norway's Jon-Hermann Hegg and Jeanette Hegg Duestad in the gold medal match.
Consider the following about the ISSF World Cup in Lima, April 2025: 1. Rudrankksh Patil and Arya Borse won silver in the 10m air rifle mixed team event. 2. After that medal on 20 April, India was at the top of the medal table. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: with two gold, three silver and one bronze, India was third, behind China and the USA.
Which aircraft did the Indian Air Force field in Exercise Desert Flag-10 in the UAE in April–May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — MiG-29 and Jaguar
MiG-29 and Jaguar, as per the Ministry of Defence release.
Consider the following about Exercise Desert Flag-10: 1. It is hosted by the UAE Air Force at Al Dhafra Air Base. 2. The Russian Air Force is among the participating contingents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The participants listed are Australia, Bahrain, France, Germany, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the Republic of Korea, Turkey, the UAE, the UK, the US and India; Russia is not among them.
At which air base in the United Arab Emirates did the Indian Air Force contingent arrive for Exercise Desert Flag-10 in April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Al Dhafra Air Base
The IAF contingent reached Al Dhafra Air Base in the UAE for Exercise Desert Flag-10, hosted by the UAE Air Force.
Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla's flight to the ISS, announced in April 2025, was to be part of which mission?
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Correct answer: C — Axiom Space's Ax-4
Axiom Space's Ax-4 mission, as stated by the ISRO Chairman at the review.
Shubhanshu Shukla's mission would make him the first Indian astronaut in space since whose 1984 flight aboard a Soviet Soyuz spacecraft?
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Correct answer: A — Rakesh Sharma
Rakesh Sharma flew in 1984 aboard a Soviet Soyuz spacecraft.
Consider the following, as stated by the Finance Ministry on 18 April 2025: 1. GST is levied on charges such as the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) relating to payments. 2. MDR on person-to-merchant (P2M) UPI transactions was removed with effect from January 2020. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct; since no MDR is charged on UPI, no GST applies.
According to the ACI Worldwide Report 2024 cited by the Finance Ministry, what share of global real-time transactions did India account for in 2023?
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Correct answer: C — 49%
49%, as cited in the Finance Ministry release.
What was the value of UPI transactions by March 2025, as stated by the Finance Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — ₹260.56 lakh crore
₹260.56 lakh crore by March 2025, up from ₹21.3 lakh crore in 2019-20; ₹3,631 crore was the FY24 incentive allocation.
After the inscriptions of 17 April 2025, how many collections are there in total on UNESCO's Memory of the World Register?
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Correct answer: B — 570
570: UNESCO added 74 new collections, bringing the total to 570.
Consider the following statements about India's 2025 inscriptions on the Memory of the World Register: 1. The Bhagavadgītā, as described by UNESCO, contains 700 verses in 18 chapters. 2. The inscribed Nāṭyaśāstra manuscript is attributed to Bharatamuni. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. UNESCO describes the Bhagavadgītā as 700 verses in 18 chapters, and the entry is the 'Manuscript of the Nāṭyaśāstra of Bharatamuni'.
According to UNESCO's inscription note, the Bhagavadgītā is embedded in which parva of the Mahābhārata?
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Correct answer: D — Bhīṣmaparva
Bhīṣmaparva: UNESCO notes it is embedded within the Bhīṣmaparva (adhyāya 23–40) of the Mahābhārata.
When were the Guidelines for the Prevention of Misleading Advertisements in the Coaching Sector, 2024 issued?
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Correct answer: D — 13 November 2024
13 November 2024, as stated by the CCPA.
Consider the following statements about the CCPA's April 2025 advisory to coaching centres: 1. Disclaimers must be displayed in the same font size as other important information. 2. Advertisements must disclose a student's rank, course type and whether the course was paid. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The CCPA listed both disclosure requirements.