SF Prep

UKSSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

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3325 news · 9039 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 89 questions
EPFO records all-time high net addition of 21.89 lakh members in June 2025
Q1

What net addition of members did EPFO report for June 2025, the highest since payroll tracking began?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 21.89 lakh

EPFO's provisional payroll data for June 2025 showed a net addition of 21.89 lakh members, the highest since tracking began in April 2018.

Q2 Advanced

Since when has EPFO been tracking payroll data, against which the June 2025 net addition was described as the highest?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — April 2018

The June 2025 net addition of 21.89 lakh was the highest since payroll data tracking began in April 2018.

24th India–China Special Representatives talks: Expert Group and Working Group under WMCC agreed
Q3

Who co-chaired the 24th round of India–China Special Representatives talks with Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi in New Delhi on 19 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Ajit Doval

National Security Adviser Ajit Doval co-chaired the 24th meeting of the Special Representatives with Wang Yi during his visit to New Delhi.

Q4 Advanced

At the 24th Special Representatives talks, India and China agreed to set up an Expert Group to explore an 'early harvest' in boundary delimitation under which framework?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination on India-China Border Affairs (WMCC)

The MEA statement, as reported, said the two sides agreed to set up an Expert Group under the WMCC to explore early harvest in boundary delimitation.

Q5 Advanced

The India–China Special Representatives talks held in New Delhi on 19 August 2025 were which round of the mechanism?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 24th

PIB and the MEA statement describe the 19 August 2025 meeting co-chaired by Ajit Doval and Wang Yi as the 24th meeting of the Special Representatives.

Q6 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the 24th India–China Special Representatives talks: 1. The two sides agreed to create General-level mechanisms in the eastern and middle sectors, in addition to the existing one in the western sector. 2. They agreed to seek a settlement framework in line with the 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct: the MEA statement, as reported, refers to new General-level mechanisms in the eastern and middle sectors alongside the existing western-sector mechanism, and to a fair, reasonable and mutually acceptable framework in line with the 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles.

Q7 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the mechanisms agreed at the 24th India–China Special Representatives talks: 1. The Working Group under the WMCC was set up to explore an early harvest in boundary delimitation. 2. The WMCC, under which the new groups were set up, was created in 2012. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: early harvest in boundary delimitation is the task of the Expert Group, while the Working Group is to advance effective border management. Statement 2 is correct: the WMCC was created in 2012.

Government exempts all customs duties on raw cotton imports from 19 August to 30 September 2025
Q8

Until what date did the Government exempt raw cotton imports from all customs duties, with effect from 19 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 30 September 2025

The Government exempted all customs duties on the import of raw cotton with effect from 19 August 2025 until 30 September 2025.

Q9 Advanced

What was the cumulative import duty on raw cotton that was removed by the exemption announced on 19 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 11%

The exemption removed the 5% Basic Customs Duty, the 5% AIDC and a 10% Social Welfare Surcharge on both, cumulatively an 11% import duty on cotton.

Q10 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the customs duty exemption on raw cotton announced in August 2025: 1. The exemption was notified by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT). 2. The exemption took effect from 1 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Neither statement is correct: the exemption was notified by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), and it took effect from 19 August 2025, running until 30 September 2025.

Stealth frigate INS Tamal arrives at Souda Bay, Greece on return passage to India
Q11

INS Tamal arrived at which Greek port on 19 August 2025 during her return passage to India after commissioning in Russia?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Souda Bay

INS Tamal, the latest stealth frigate, arrived at Souda Bay, Greece, on 19 August 2025 during her return passage to India post commissioning in Russia.

Q12 Advanced

During INS Tamal's port call at Souda Bay in August 2025, the crew was to be familiarised with operations at which facility?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — NATO Maritime Interdiction Operational Training Centre

The port call included familiarisation with operations and procedures at the NATO Maritime Interdiction Operational Training Centre in Souda Bay.

Election Commission lists 28 initiatives taken over the past six months
Q13

Among the ECI initiatives listed on 19 August 2025, what is the maximum number of voters now set per polling station?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1,200

The ECI listed a polling station limit of 1,200 voters to reduce crowding and shorten queues.

Q14 Advanced

ECINET, listed by the Election Commission among its recent initiatives, subsumes how many apps and websites?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 40+

ECINET is described as a one-stop digital platform subsuming 40+ apps and websites for electors and other stakeholders.

Q15 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the ECI initiatives listed on 19 August 2025: 1. Under a new SOP, EPICs are to be delivered within 30 days of an update in the electoral rolls. 2. Honorarium has been provided to EROs and AEROs for the first time. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the new SOP enables delivery of EPICs within 15 days of an update in the electoral rolls. Statement 2 is correct: honorarium was provided to EROs and AEROs for the first time.

Wang Yi calls on PM Modi; PM accepts President Xi's invitation to SCO Summit in Tianjin
Q16

Wang Yi handed over President Xi Jinping's invitation to Prime Minister Modi on 19 August 2025 for the SCO Summit being held in which Chinese city?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Tianjin

Wang Yi handed over a message and invitation from President Xi for the SCO Summit being held in Tianjin, and the Prime Minister conveyed his acceptance.

Q17 Advanced

While receiving Wang Yi on 19 August 2025, Prime Minister Modi welcomed progress in India–China ties since his meeting with President Xi held last year in which city?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Kazan

PIB states the Prime Minister welcomed the steady and positive progress in bilateral ties since his meeting with President Xi in Kazan last year.

Q18 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Wang Yi's call on Prime Minister Modi on 19 August 2025: 1. Wang Yi shared his assessment of his meeting with EAM S. Jaishankar and of the 24th Special Representatives meeting. 2. The Prime Minister cited the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra as part of the progress in ties. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct: Wang Yi shared his positive assessment of the meeting with EAM Jaishankar and the 24th SR meeting, and the Prime Minister referred to the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra while welcoming progress since Kazan.

Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 introduced in Lok Sabha; 288 provisions to be decriminalised
Q19

How many provisions does the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 propose to decriminalise to foster Ease of Doing Business?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 288

Of the 355 provisions proposed to be amended, 288 are to be decriminalised to foster Ease of Doing Business and 67 amended to facilitate Ease of Living.

Q20 Advanced

The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 covers how many Central Acts?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 16

The 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments; the 2023 Act had covered 42 Central Acts.

Q21 Advanced

Under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025, the 67 amendments meant to facilitate Ease of Living are proposed under which Acts?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — NDMC Act, 1994 and Motor Vehicles Act, 1988

The Bill proposes 67 amendments under the New Delhi Municipal Council Act, 1994 (NDMC Act) and the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to facilitate Ease of Living.

Q22 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025: 1. First-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts are to attract an advisory or warning. 2. The Minister requested that the Bill be referred to a Select Committee, which is to report by the first day of the next Session. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct: the Bill provides an advisory or warning for first-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts, and Piyush Goyal requested the Speaker to refer it to a Select Committee that is to report by the first day of the next Session.

Q23 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas legislation: 1. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. 2. The 2025 Bill covers Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the 2023 Act, notified on 11 August 2023, decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments.

Jaishankar–Wang Yi talks in New Delhi: 'three mutuals', de-escalation and resumption of direct flights
Q24

In his talks with Wang Yi on 18 August 2025, S. Jaishankar said India–China ties must be guided by the 'three mutuals'. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Mutual trust

Jaishankar listed the three mutuals as mutual respect, mutual sensitivity and mutual interest; mutual trust was not one of them.

Q25 Advanced

India and China agreed during Wang Yi's August 2025 visit to reopen border trade through three designated points. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Bum La

The reported outcomes named Lipulekh, Shipki La and Nathu La as the three designated points for reopening border trade; Bum La was not among them.

Q26 Advanced

S. Jaishankar described Wang Yi's August 2025 visit as the first by a Chinese Minister since the two countries' leaders met at which place?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Kazan, October 2024

In his opening remarks, Jaishankar said this was the first visit by a Chinese Minister since the leaders met in Kazan in October 2024.

Q27 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Jaishankar–Wang Yi talks and the outcomes of Wang Yi's visit in August 2025: 1. Jaishankar said differences must not become disputes, nor competition conflict. 2. The two sides agreed to resume direct flights from 1 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: it is part of Jaishankar's opening remarks. Statement 2 is incorrect: the sides agreed to resume direct flights at the earliest and finalise an updated Air Services Agreement, but no date was given for resumption.

PLFS: unemployment rate 5.4% in April–June 2025; first quarterly bulletin covering rural and urban areas
Q28

What was the unemployment rate (Current Weekly Status, age 15 and above) for April–June 2025 as per the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin released on 18 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 5.4%

The Unemployment Rate in CWS for persons aged 15 years and above was 5.4% during April–June 2025; rural was 4.8% and urban 6.8%.

Q29 Advanced

About how many persons aged 15 and above were employed in India during April–June 2025, according to the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 56.4 crore

On average, 56.4 crore persons aged 15 years and above were employed in the country during the April–June 2025 quarter, of whom 39.7 crore were men.

Q30 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the PLFS bulletins released on 18 August 2025: 1. The April–June 2025 Quarterly Bulletin is the first in the series to provide estimates for both rural and urban areas. 2. The monthly unemployment rate rose to 5.6% in July 2025 from 5.2% in June 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: earlier quarterly bulletins covered only urban areas, and the April–June 2025 bulletin is the first to cover both. Statement 2 is incorrect: the unemployment rate declined to 5.2% in July 2025 from 5.6% in June 2025.

12th edition of India–Sri Lanka naval exercise SLINEX-25 concludes at Colombo
Q31

SLINEX-25, which concluded at Colombo on 18 August 2025, was which edition of the India–Sri Lanka bilateral naval exercise?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 12th

The 12th edition of the India–Sri Lanka bilateral naval exercise SLINEX-25 concluded at Colombo on 18 August 2025.

Q32 Advanced

Which Indian naval ships took part in SLINEX-25?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — INS Jyoti and INS Rana

Indian naval ships INS Jyoti and INS Rana from the Eastern Fleet took part, along with SLNS Sayura and SLNS Vijayabahu of Sri Lanka.

Rajya Sabha passes Indian Ports Bill, 2025 replacing the Indian Ports Act, 1908
Q33

The Indian Ports Bill, 2025, passed by the Rajya Sabha on 18 August 2025, replaces which Act?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Indian Ports Act, 1908

The Indian Ports Bill, 2025 is designed to replace the Indian Ports Act, 1908, ending more than a century of colonial-era regulation.

Q34 Advanced

Which statutory consultative body does the Indian Ports Bill, 2025 establish to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Maritime State Development Council

The Bill establishes the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) as a statutory consultative body to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States; it will prepare a National Perspective Plan.

Q35 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Indian Ports Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates compliance with international conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management. 2. It creates Dispute Resolution Committees for sector-specific redressal. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct: the legislation mandates compliance with conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management and creates Dispute Resolution Committees for timely sector-specific redressal.

President Putin calls PM Modi, shares assessment of Alaska meeting with President Trump
Q36

In his phone call with PM Modi on 18 August 2025, President Putin shared his assessment of his meeting with President Trump held where?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Alaska

President Putin shared his assessment of his meeting with US President Donald Trump in Alaska the previous week.

Q37 Advanced

During the Modi–Putin call of 18 August 2025, the leaders discussed strengthening which partnership between India and Russia?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership

The two leaders touched upon bilateral cooperation with a view to further strengthen the Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership between India and Russia.

Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana portal goes live
Q38

What is the outlay of the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, whose registration portal went live in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — ₹99,446 crore

The Cabinet approved the Employment Linked Incentive Scheme, named Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore.

Q39 Advanced

Benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana apply to jobs created during which period?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1 August 2025 to 31 July 2027

The benefits of the scheme are applicable to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.

Q40 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana: 1. Newly employed youth can receive up to ₹15,000 in a single instalment paid by employers. 2. Employers can receive up to ₹3,000 per month per new employee. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the incentive of up to ₹15,000 to newly employed youth is paid in two instalments through DBT using the Aadhaar Bridge Payment System. Statement 2 is correct: employers can get up to ₹3,000 per month per new employee.

Uttarakhand Cabinet approves Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2025; Madrasa Education Board Act to be repealed
Q41 Advanced

From which date are the Uttarakhand Madrasa Education Board Act, 2016 and the 2019 madrasa recognition rules to stand repealed under the Bill approved by the State Cabinet in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 1 July 2026

1 July 2026, under the Uttarakhand Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2025.

Q42 Advanced

Once enacted, the Uttarakhand Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2025 will permit the study of which languages in recognised minority educational institutions?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Gurmukhi and Pali

Gurmukhi and Pali, as stated in the Cabinet decision of 17 August 2025.

Q43 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Uttarakhand Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2025: 1. It extends minority educational institution status to Sikhs, Jains, Christians, Buddhists and Parsis, besides Muslims. 2. The Cabinet decided to introduce it in the Assembly session beginning on 19 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. Earlier, minority educational institution status in Uttarakhand applied only to the Muslim community.

NCDRC and 10 States record over 100% disposal of consumer cases in July 2025
Q44

Which State recorded the highest disposal rate of consumer cases in July 2025, at 277%?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Tamil Nadu

Tamil Nadu recorded 277%, followed by Rajasthan at 214% and Telangana at 158%; the NCDRC itself achieved 122%.

Q45 Advanced

e-Jagriti, the unified consumer grievance redressal platform, was launched on which date?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 January 2025

The Department of Consumer Affairs launched e-Jagriti on 1 January 2025 as a next-generation unified digital platform for consumer grievance redressal.

Q46 Advanced

Consider the following statements about consumer case disposal and e-Jagriti as reported in August 2025: 1. A disposal rate above 100% means more cases were resolved than were filed in the period. 2. e-Jagriti has been made operational only at the NCDRC so far, not in State commissions. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: a disposal rate of over 100% indicates that the number of cases resolved exceeded the number filed. Statement 2 is incorrect: e-Jagriti is operational at the NCDRC and across all 36 States and Union Territories.

Astronaut Shubhanshu Shukla returns to India after Axiom-4 mission to the ISS
Q47

Shubhanshu Shukla, who returned to India on 17 August 2025, visited the International Space Station as part of which mission?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Axiom-4

Axiom-4, a private space mission that lifted off from Florida on 25 June 2025.

Q48 Advanced

Which Gaganyaan astronaut, Shubhanshu Shukla's backup for the Axiom-4 mission, also returned to India with him on 17 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair

Group Captain Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair, the designated backup for the mission.

Q49 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Shubhanshu Shukla's return to India on 17 August 2025: 1. The Axiom-4 mission had lifted off from Florida on 25 June 2025. 2. He was received at Delhi airport by ISRO Chairman S. Somanath. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. ISRO Chairman V. Narayanan received him at the airport, along with Jitendra Singh and Rekha Gupta.

NDA names Maharashtra Governor C.P. Radhakrishnan as its Vice-Presidential candidate
Q50

C.P. Radhakrishnan, named the NDA's Vice-Presidential candidate on 17 August 2025, was serving as the Governor of which State at the time?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Maharashtra

Amit Shah congratulated Governor of Maharashtra C.P. Radhakrishnan on being nominated as the NDA's candidate for the Vice-Presidential election.

Q51 Advanced

Which body's decision did Amit Shah credit for the nomination of C.P. Radhakrishnan as the NDA's Vice-Presidential candidate?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — The party Parliamentary Board

Amit Shah expressed gratitude to Prime Minister Narendra Modi and all members of the party Parliamentary Board for this decision.

Q52 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the reactions to C.P. Radhakrishnan's nomination as NDA Vice-Presidential candidate on 17 August 2025: 1. The Prime Minister said Radhakrishnan had done extensive grassroots work in Kerala. 2. Amit Shah said Radhakrishnan's experience would enhance the prestige of the Upper House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. The Prime Minister said Radhakrishnan had done extensive work at the grassroots in Tamil Nadu.

INS Tamal concludes port call at Naples after PASSEX with Italian LHD ITS Trieste
Q53

INS Tamal carried out a Passage Exercise with which Italian Navy ship before entering Naples harbour in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — ITS Trieste

INS Tamal participated in a PASSEX with ITS Trieste, the recently commissioned Landing Helicopter Dock of the Italian Navy, before entering harbour at Naples.

Q54 Advanced

During INS Tamal's Naples port call, the two sides discussed initiatives under which India–Italy framework?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029

The Commanding Officer and Italian officials discussed various initiatives under the India–Italy Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029.

Q55 Advanced

As referred to during INS Tamal's port call at Naples in August 2025, India and Italy have had a Strategic Partnership since which year?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 2023

2023; the two sides also discussed initiatives under the India–Italy Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029.

Tanya Hemanth wins Saipan International 2025 women's singles badminton title
Q56

Tanya Hemanth won the Saipan International 2025 badminton title in August 2025. Saipan is part of which territory?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Northern Mariana Islands

Northern Mariana Islands; the final was played at the Oleai Sports Complex.

Q57 Advanced

The Saipan International 2025, won by Tanya Hemanth, was a BWF trial event for an experimental scoring system in which each game is played to how many points?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 15

15 points, under the experimental 3x15 system, instead of the conventional 21.

Trump–Putin summit in Alaska ends without a deal on the Ukraine war
Q58

At which venue did Donald Trump and Vladimir Putin hold their summit in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson, Anchorage

AP and Reuters reported that the summit took place at Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson in Anchorage, Alaska.

Q59 Advanced

The Trump–Putin summit in Alaska in August 2025 was the two leaders' first meeting since which year?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2019

Reuters reported that the Alaska summit was the first meeting between Trump and Putin since 2019.

Q60 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Trump–Putin summit in Alaska in August 2025: 1. The two leaders announced a ceasefire agreement in Ukraine at the end of the talks. 2. Putin suggested that a next meeting could be held in Moscow. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: no agreement to end the war in Ukraine was announced, and Trump said there was no deal until there is a deal. Statement 2 is correct: Putin suggested that a meeting in Moscow could be next.

Har Ghar Tiranga 2025: 7.5 crore selfies uploaded; Tiranga Volunteer introduced
Q61

Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 was which edition of the campaign?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Fourth

Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 is the 4th edition of the nationwide movement launched in 2022 as part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.

Q62 Advanced

Which new component was introduced in Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 to enable participation of people constrained by age or limited access to technology?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Tiranga Volunteer

The Tiranga Volunteer is a new component introduced this year; more than 9 lakh volunteers came forward during Har Ghar Tiranga 2025.

Q63

According to the Ministry of Culture, about how many selfies with the national flag were uploaded during Har Ghar Tiranga 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 7.50 crore

7.50 crore selfies were uploaded during the campaign, which ran from 2 to 15 August 2025.

PM announces Mission Sudarshan Chakra: national security shield for strategic and civilian sites by 2035
Q64

By which year did the Prime Minister say important strategic and civilian places would get complete security cover under Mission Sudarshan Chakra?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2035

The Prime Minister said that in the coming 10 years, by 2035, all important places of the nation, strategic as well as civilian, would be given complete security cover through new platforms of technology.

Q65

The name of Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced on 15 August 2025, draws inspiration from which figure?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Lord Shri Krishna

The Prime Minister said the country had chosen the path of the Sudarshan Chakra taking inspiration from Lord Shri Krishna.

Q66 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra: 1. Its security cover is limited to military installations and excludes civilian sites. 2. The Prime Minister described it as a powerful weapon system that will neutralise enemy attacks and also hit back at the enemy. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Prime Minister said the cover would include strategic as well as civilian areas such as hospitals, railways and centres of faith. Statement 2 is correct: he described the mission as a powerful weapon system that will not only neutralise the enemy's attack but also hit back many times more.

Q67 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra as described in the 2025 Independence Day address: 1. The mission aims to develop a system for targeted precise action. 2. The mission is to be completed over 25 years, by the centenary of Independence in 2047. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the Prime Minister said the country would move towards developing a system for targeted precise action through Sudarshan Chakra. Statement 2 is incorrect: the timeline stated was the coming 10 years, till 2035.

Anandkumar Velkumar wins India's first roller sports medal at the World Games, a bronze in Chengdu
Q68

In which event did Anandkumar Velkumar win bronze at the World Games 2025 on 15 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Men's 1000m sprint, inline speed skating

Men's 1000m sprint, inline speed skating track event, clocking 1:22.482.

Q69

The World Games 2025, where Anandkumar Velkumar won India's first roller skating medal at the Games, were held in which city?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Chengdu

Chengdu, China.

Q70 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Anandkumar Velkumar's bronze at the World Games 2025: 1. It was India's first medal in roller skating at the World Games. 2. It took India's tally at the edition to three medals, India's highest in a single edition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. India's tally became one silver and two bronze.

NHAI rolls out FASTag Annual Pass at about 1,150 toll plazas
Q71

What is the one-time fee for the FASTag Annual Pass implemented by NHAI from 15 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — ₹3,000

The FASTag Annual Pass requires a one-time fee payment of ₹3,000 for one-year validity or 200 toll plaza crossings.

Q72 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the FASTag Annual Pass: 1. It is applicable to all commercial vehicles with a valid FASTag. 2. It is activated within two hours of payment through the Rajmargyatra app or the NHAI website. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the pass is applicable to all non-commercial vehicles with a valid FASTag. Statement 2 is correct: it gets activated within two hours of the one-time fee payment through the Rajmargyatra app or NHAI website.

Q73 Advanced

At approximately how many toll plazas was the FASTag Annual Pass implemented on 15 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — About 1,150

NHAI implemented the FASTag Annual Pass from 15 August 2025 at about 1,150 toll plazas on National Highways and Expressways.

S&P upgrades India's sovereign rating to 'BBB' with Stable outlook – first upgrade in 18 years
Q74

To what level did S&P Global Ratings upgrade India's long-term sovereign credit rating on 14 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — BBB

S&P upgraded India's long-term sovereign credit rating to 'BBB' from 'BBB-', with a Stable outlook.

Q75 Advanced

The S&P upgrade of India's sovereign rating in August 2025 was its first upgrade of India in how many years?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 18

The Ministry of Finance said this was India's first sovereign upgrade by S&P in 18 years, the previous one being in 2007.

Q76 Advanced

Consider the following statements about S&P's rating action on India in August 2025: 1. S&P assigned a Positive outlook along with the upgrade. 2. India's short-term rating was lowered from 'A-2' to 'A-3'. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Neither statement is correct. The upgrade came with a Stable outlook, and the short-term rating was raised to 'A-2' from 'A-3'.

Q77 Advanced

Consider the following statements about S&P's assessment of India in August 2025: 1. S&P's previous upgrade of India, in 2007, had elevated India to investment grade at 'BBB-'. 2. S&P projected India's GDP growth at 6.5% in FY26. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The previous upgrade in 2007 took India to investment grade at 'BBB-', and S&P projected GDP growth of 6.5% in FY26.

President approves 127 gallantry awards, including 4 Kirti Chakras and 15 Vir Chakras, on eve of I-Day 2025
Q78

How many Kirti Chakras were approved by the President on the eve of Independence Day 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

The President approved 4 Kirti Chakras among the 127 Gallantry awards on the eve of Independence Day 2025.

Q79 Advanced

How many Gallantry awards in total did the President approve for Armed Forces and CAPF personnel on the eve of Independence Day 2025?

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Correct answer: A — 127

The President approved 127 Gallantry awards and 40 Distinguished Service awards on the eve of Independence Day 2025.

Q80 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the defence awards approved on the eve of Independence Day 2025: 1. Vir Chakra awardees included Group Captains of the Indian Air Force. 2. The largest share of the 290 Mention-in-Despatches went to the Indian Army. Which of the above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Group Captains Ranjeet Singh Sidhu, Manish Arora, Animesh Patni and Kunal Kalra of the IAF were among the Vir Chakra awardees. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Indian Air Force received 167 of the 290 Mention-in-Despatches, against 115 for the Army.

Q81 Advanced

Lieutenant Shashank Tiwari of 1 Sikkim Scouts was approved for which award on the eve of Independence Day 2025?

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Correct answer: D — Kirti Chakra

Lieutenant Shashank Tiwari of The Army Service Corps, 1 Sikkim Scouts, was one of the four Kirti Chakra awardees.

WPI inflation at -0.58% in July 2025
Q82

What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for July 2025?

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Correct answer: C — -0.58%

The annual rate of inflation based on the all-India WPI was -0.58% (provisional) for July 2025, against -0.13% in June 2025.

Q83 Advanced

Consider the following statements about WPI data for July 2025: 1. Inflation in manufactured products was negative. 2. The WPI Food Index recorded negative inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: manufactured products recorded inflation of 2.05%. Statement 2 is correct: the WPI Food Index was at -2.15%.

1,090 police, fire, home guard and correctional personnel get gallantry and service medals on I-Day 2025
Q84

How many personnel of Police, Fire, Home Guard & Civil Defence and Correctional Services were awarded gallantry and service medals on Independence Day 2025?

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Correct answer: C — 1,090

A total of 1,090 personnel of Police, Fire, Home Guard & Civil Defence and Correctional Services were awarded Gallantry and Service Medals on Independence Day 2025.

Q85 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Medals for Gallantry announced by the MHA for Independence Day 2025: 1. More than half of the 233 Medals for Gallantry went to personnel from the Jammu & Kashmir region. 2. No Fire Service personnel received a Medal for Gallantry. Which of the above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: 152 of the 233 Medals for Gallantry went to personnel from the Jammu & Kashmir region. Statement 2 is incorrect: 6 Fire Service personnel received the Medal for Gallantry.

President Murmu addresses the nation on the eve of the 79th Independence Day
Q86

What GDP growth rate for the last financial year did President Droupadi Murmu cite in her address on the eve of the 79th Independence Day?

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Correct answer: B — 6.5%

In her address, the President noted GDP growth of 6.5% in the last financial year and said India was the fastest-growing major economy.

Q87 Advanced

Consider the following statements about President Droupadi Murmu's address on the eve of the 79th Independence Day: 1. She described justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the four pillars of the Constitution. 2. She referred to Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas observed on 14 August. Which of the above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The President described justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the four pillars of the Constitution and referred to Vibhajan Vibhishika Smriti Diwas.

India and Singapore hold 4th Joint Working Group on Trade & Investment in New Delhi
Q88 Advanced

The year 2025 marks how many years of the India–Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA)?

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Correct answer: C — 20

The India–Singapore CECA was signed in 2005, so 2025 marks 20 years of the agreement along with 60 years of diplomatic relations.

Q89 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India–Singapore economic ties, as noted at the 4th JWGTI in August 2025: 1. Singapore is India's largest trading partner in ASEAN. 2. Singapore is India's largest source of FDI. Which of the above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Singapore is India's largest trading partner in ASEAN, with trade of USD 34.26 billion in 2024–25. Statement 2 is incorrect: Singapore is India's second-largest source of FDI.