State Staff Selection Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Where was the Northern Region Ministers' Conference on Civil Aviation 2025 held on 4 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dehradun
Ministry of Civil Aviation: the conference was held today in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
Consider the following about the Civil Aviation conference in Dehradun (4 July 2025): 1. It was the first of a series of Regional Conferences. 2. FICCI and the Uttarakhand Civil Aviation Development Authority provided the industry interface. 3. Delhi was among the participating States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: participants were Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Ladakh and Chandigarh (Ministry of Civil Aviation).
Up to which generation of the Indian diaspora in Trinidad & Tobago was the OCI card facility extended in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6th generation
PMO list of outcomes: extension of OCI card facility up to the 6th generation of Indian diaspora members in T&T; earlier it was available up to the 4th generation.
Which two India-led global initiatives did Trinidad & Tobago announce it was joining during PM Modi's visit in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — CDRI and Global Biofuel Alliance
PMO list of outcomes: T&T announced that it is joining India's global initiatives, the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) and the Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA).
At which university will two ICCR Chairs of Hindi and Indian Studies be re-established under an India–T&T MoU of July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — University of West Indies
PMO list of outcomes: MoU on the re-establishment of two ICCR Chairs of Hindi and Indian Studies at the University of West Indies (UWI), Trinidad and Tobago.
In which city did G. Kishan Reddy release the Copper and Aluminium Vision Documents on 4 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Hyderabad
Ministry of Mines: the documents were released at the international conference organised by the Indian National Committee of the World Mining Congress in Hyderabad.
The Copper Vision Document (July 2025) plans to add how much smelting and refining capacity by 2030?
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Correct answer: A — 5 million tonnes per annum
Ministry of Mines: the Copper Vision Document outlines plans to add 5 million tonnes per annum of smelting and refining capacity by 2030.
The Aluminium Vision Document (July 2025) aims to expand India's bauxite production capacity to what level?
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Correct answer: D — 150 MTPA
Ministry of Mines: the document aims to expand bauxite production capacity to 150 MTPA and double the national aluminium recycling rate.
According to MSME Minister Jitan Ram Manjhi (4 July 2025), what share of India's GDP does the MSME sector account for?
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Correct answer: A — 30.1%
MSME Ministry: MSME accounts for 30.1% of India's GDP, 35.4% of manufacturing and 45.73% of exports.
The Udyam portal for MSME registration, which had over 3.80 crore units by July 2025, was launched on which date?
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Correct answer: C — 1 July 2020
MSME Ministry: the Udyam portal, launched on July 1, 2020, offers a free, paperless and self-declared registration process and has more than 3.80 crore units.
Where was the statue of Shrimant Bajirao Peshwa I unveiled by Amit Shah on 4 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — National Defence Academy, Pune
MHA: Shri Amit Shah unveiled the statue of Shrimant Bajirao Peshwa I at the National Defence Academy in Pune, Maharashtra.
According to Amit Shah's speech at the NDA (4 July 2025), how many battles did Bajirao Peshwa I fight in 20 years, winning all of them?
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Correct answer: D — 41
MHA: Shri Shah noted that Bajirao Peshwa fought 41 battles in a span of 20 years and emerged victorious in all of them.
According to Piyush Goyal (4 July 2025), how many Quality Control Orders are now in force, up from 14 in 2014?
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Correct answer: B — 156
Commerce Ministry: QCOs have grown from just 14 covering 106 products in 2014 to 156 QCOs covering 672 products.
At which event did Piyush Goyal share the QCO figures on 4 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 75th anniversary celebration of SGS in India
Commerce Ministry: he said this while addressing the 75th anniversary celebration of SGS in India in New Delhi.
With effect from which date was the Unified Pension Scheme introduced as an option under NPS for Central Government civil service recruits?
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Correct answer: D — 1 April 2025
Ministry of Finance: DFS Notification dated 24.01.2025 introduced UPS as an option under NPS with effect from 1 April 2025 (01.04.2025).
Which body notified the regulations for operationalising the Unified Pension Scheme under NPS in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
Ministry of Finance: the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) notified the PFRDA (Operationalisation of the Unified Pension Scheme under NPS) Regulations, 2025 on 19 March 2025.
Why did the Government say NPS tax benefits apply mutatis mutandis to UPS (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Because UPS is an option under NPS
Ministry of Finance: the Government decided that tax benefits as available under NPS shall apply mutatis mutandis to UPS as it is an option under NPS.
On 3 July 2025, the DAC accorded AoN for 10 capital acquisition proposals worth approximately how much?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.05 lakh crore
MoD: the DAC accorded AoN for 10 capital acquisition proposals amounting to approx. ₹1.05 lakh crore through indigenous sourcing.
Under which procurement category were the AoNs of 3 July 2025 accorded?
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Correct answer: D — Buy (Indian-IDDM)
MoD: to provide impetus to indigenous design and development, AoNs were accorded under the Buy (Indian-IDDM) category — Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured.
Who chairs the Defence Acquisition Council, which accorded AoNs on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Raksha Mantri
MoD: the Defence Acquisition Council met under the chairmanship of Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh.
Consider the following items cleared by the DAC on 3 July 2025: 1. Mine Counter Measure Vessels 2. Submersible Autonomous Vessels 3. Super Rapid Gun Mount Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: MoD said AoNs were accorded for Moored Mines, Mine Counter Measure Vessels, Super Rapid Gun Mount and Submersible Autonomous Vessels.
PM Modi's State Visit to Trinidad & Tobago in July 2025 was the first bilateral visit by an Indian PM to that country since which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1999
PMO: this is the first bilateral visit by an Indian Prime Minister to T&T since 1999.
Who received PM Modi at the airport in Port of Spain on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Prime Minister Kamla Persad-Bissessar
PMO: in a special gesture, the Prime Minister of Trinidad & Tobago, Kamla Persad-Bissessar, received Prime Minister Modi at the airport along with members of her Cabinet.
In July 2025, Trinidad & Tobago was celebrating how many years of the first arrival of Indian immigrants?
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Correct answer: B — 180 years
PMO: the visit came at a time when the nation is celebrating 180 years of the first arrival of Indian immigrants on its shores.
Where is India's first Equine Disease-Free Compartment, recognised by WOAH on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — RVC Centre & College, Meerut Cantonment
DAHD: the approved facility is at the Remount Veterinary Corps (RVC) Centre & College, Meerut Cantonment, Uttar Pradesh.
Which international body recognised India's first Equine Disease-Free Compartment in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — World Organisation for Animal Health
DAHD: the compartment was recognised by the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) on 3 July 2025.
Since which year has India remained free from African Horse Sickness, as noted in the EDFC release (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 2014
DAHD: India has historically remained free from African Horse Sickness since 2014.
On 3 July 2025, PM Narendra Modi became the first Indian Prime Minister to address the Parliament of which country?
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Correct answer: A — Ghana
PMO: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi addressed a special session of the Parliament of Ghana, becoming the first Indian Prime Minister to do so.
Who convened the special session of Ghana's Parliament addressed by PM Modi on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Speaker Alban Kingsford Sumana Bagbin
PMO: the session was convened by the Speaker of Parliament, Alban Kingsford Sumana Bagbin.
At the Nkrumah Memorial Park in Accra on 3 July 2025, PM Modi was accompanied by whom?
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Correct answer: B — Vice President Naana Jane Opoku-Agyemang
PMO: at the Nkrumah Memorial Park, Prime Minister was accompanied by the Vice President of Ghana, Prof. Naana Jane Opoku-Agyemang.
Consider the following about PM Modi's address to Ghana's Parliament (3 July 2025): 1. He quoted Dr. Kwame Nkrumah, Ghana's founding President. 2. He recalled that the African Union became a permanent member of the G20 during India's Presidency. 3. He thanked President John Dramani Mahama for the National Honour conferred on him. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct (PMO): he quoted Dr. Kwame Nkrumah, recalled the African Union's permanent G20 membership during India's Presidency, and thanked President Mahama and the people of Ghana for the National Honour.
Who chaired the CAQM review meetings with Haryana and Punjab in Chandigarh on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Rajesh Verma
CAQM: the review meetings were held under the Chairmanship of Shri Rajesh Verma, Chairperson of the Commission.
What minimum biomass co-firing target for thermal power plants in 2025–26 did CAQM review on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 5%
CAQM: the review covered progress on minimum 5% biomass co-firing targets for 2025–26 by thermal power plants.
Consider the following about the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM): 1. It was constituted under an Act of Parliament of 2021. 2. Its Act repealed the order constituting the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority for NCR. 3. Its jurisdiction is limited to the NCT of Delhi only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: CAQM was constituted under the CAQM Act, 2021 (Act No. 29 of 2021), whose Section 29 repealed the order constituting EPCA (India Code). Statement 3 is wrong: the Act applies to the National Capital Region and adjoining areas.
According to NITI Aayog's chemical industry report (July 2025), what is India's current share in global chemical value chains?
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Correct answer: D — 3.5%
NITI Aayog: India's 3.5% share in global chemical value chains and its chemical trade deficit of USD 31 billion in 2023 underscore high import dependence.
NITI Aayog's report says India can achieve a USD 1 trillion chemical sector and 12% GVC share by which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2040
NITI Aayog: targeted reforms will enable India to have a USD 1 trillion chemical sector and achieve 12% GVC share by 2040.
What was India's chemical trade deficit in 2023 according to NITI Aayog's July 2025 report?
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Correct answer: A — USD 31 billion
NITI Aayog: heavy reliance on imported feedstock contributed to a USD 31 billion trade deficit in 2023.
The OPCW, which held its Asia regional meeting in New Delhi in July 2025, was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2013
Cabinet Secretariat: the OPCW was awarded the 2013 Nobel Peace Prize for its extensive efforts in eliminating chemical weapons.
Which Indian body was a co-recipient of the OPCW-The Hague Award 2024, the first chemical industry body worldwide to receive it?
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Correct answer: C — Indian Chemical Council
Cabinet Secretariat: the Indian Chemical Council (ICC) was awarded the OPCW-The Hague Award 2024 as a co-recipient — the first time globally that a chemical industry body was honoured with this award.
Under which mission will the ₹150-crore Clean Plant Centre in Srinagar, announced on 3 July 2025, be set up?
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Correct answer: C — Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture
Agriculture Ministry: a ₹150-crore Clean Plant Center will be established in Srinagar under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
Which J&K initiative, a one-stop centre giving farmers access to all agricultural services, did Shivraj Chouhan praise on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Kisan Khidmat Ghar
Agriculture Ministry: he praised the state's initiative 'Kisan Khidmat Ghar' — a one-stop center providing farmers access to all agricultural services under one roof.
How many Aadhaar authentication transactions were carried out in June 2025, according to UIDAI?
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Correct answer: C — 229.33 crore
UIDAI: Aadhaar number holders carried out 229.33 crore authentication transactions in June 2025.
What record did UIDAI's face authentication set in June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 15.87 crore transactions
UIDAI: in June 2025, a record number of 15.87 crore face authentication transactions were recorded, against 4.61 crore in June 2024.
Which national honour of Ghana was conferred on PM Narendra Modi on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Officer of the Order of the Star of Ghana
PMO: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi was conferred the national honour of Ghana - Officer of the Order of the Star of Ghana - by the President of Ghana.
Who conferred Ghana's national honour on PM Modi on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — President John Dramani Mahama
PMO: the honour was conferred by the President of Ghana, H.E. John Dramani Mahama.
Ghana's national honour was conferred on PM Modi (July 2025) in recognition of what?
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Correct answer: D — His distinguished statesmanship and influential global leadership
PMO: the honour was conferred in recognition of his distinguished statesmanship and influential global leadership.
Consider the following about PM Modi's acceptance of Ghana's national honour (2 July 2025): 1. He accepted it on behalf of 1.4 billion Indians. 2. He dedicated it to the aspirations of India's youth, its cultural traditions and diversity, and India–Ghana historical ties. 3. He received it during his address to Ghana's Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (PMO). Statement 3 is wrong: the honour was conferred on 2 July by President Mahama; the address to Ghana's Parliament took place the next day, 3 July.
To what level did India and Ghana elevate their relationship during PM Modi's visit on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Comprehensive Partnership
PMO: the two leaders agreed to elevate the relationship to a Comprehensive Partnership.
PM Modi's State Visit to Ghana in July 2025 was described by PMO as the first such visit in how long?
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Correct answer: A — Three decades
PMO: Prime Minister's visit to Ghana is the first such visit in the last three decades.
An India–Ghana MoU of July 2025 on traditional medicine was signed between Ghana's ITAM and which Indian institute?
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Correct answer: C — Institute of Teaching & Research in Ayurveda
PMO list of outcomes: MoU between the Institute of Traditional & Alternative Medicine (ITAM), Ghana and the Institute of Teaching & Research in Ayurveda (ITRA), India.
Consider the following about PM Modi's visit to Ghana (2 July 2025): 1. President John Dramani Mahama received him at the airport. 2. An MoU was signed between the Bureau of Indian Standards and the Ghana Standards Authority. 3. Modi thanked Mahama for taking care of the roughly 15,000-strong Indian community in Ghana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct (PMO): President Mahama received him at the airport, BIS and the Ghana Standards Authority signed an MoU, and Modi thanked Mahama for taking care of the 15,000-strong Indian community.
Which Governor did the Mission Karmayogi team call on in Hyderabad on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jishnu Dev Varma
DoPT: the Mission Karmayogi team called on the Governor of Telangana, Shri Jishnu Dev Varma, on 2nd July 2025 in Hyderabad.
Which digital platform, central to Mission Karmayogi, was highlighted in the team's discussions in Telangana (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — iGOT Karmayogi
DoPT: a key highlight of the discussions was the iGOT Karmayogi platform for digital learning and competency-based training.
The draft amendments released on 2 July 2025 aim to allow more TV rating agencies besides which existing body?
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Correct answer: C — Broadcast Audience Research Council
I&B Ministry: the draft removes restrictive provisions to allow more players besides the current BARC (Broadcast Audience Research Council).
According to the I&B Ministry (July 2025), about how many people meters are used to capture TV viewership in India?
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Correct answer: D — 58,000
I&B Ministry: only about 58,000 people meters are presently used, representing just 0.025% of the roughly 230 million TV homes.
The Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies, proposed for amendment in July 2025, were originally issued in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 2014
I&B Ministry: the ministry proposed amendments to the Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies, originally issued in 2014.
Where did the Karnataka cabinet hold its meeting on 2 July 2025, approving projects worth ₹3,400 crore?
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Correct answer: A — Nandi Hills
PTI/Hindustan Times: the Karnataka cabinet, in a meeting held atop the Nandi Hills, approved development projects worth ₹3,400 crore.
The Karnataka cabinet decided on 2 July 2025 to rename Bengaluru Rural district as what?
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Correct answer: D — Bengaluru North
Economic Times/Deccan Herald: CM Siddaramaiah said the cabinet decided to rename Bengaluru Rural district as Bengaluru North.
Under which scheme is the Centre considering a ₹100-crore Integrated Aqua Park for Jammu and Kashmir (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — PMMSY Phase-II
Fisheries Ministry: the Government of India is considering a ₹100-crore proposal for an Integrated Aqua Park in J&K under PMMSY Phase-II.
From which country were genetically improved eyed ova of rainbow and brown trout imported for J&K?
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Correct answer: B — Denmark
Fisheries Ministry: the Government of India facilitated import of 13.40 lakh genetically improved eyed ova of rainbow and brown trout from Denmark for J&K.
The ICMR–NCDC studies on sudden unexplained deaths (July 2025) focused on adults of which age group?
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Correct answer: D — 18–45 years
Health Ministry: ICMR and NCDC worked to understand sudden unexplained deaths, especially in young adults between the ages of 18 and 45 years.
Which ICMR institute conducted the multicentric matched case–control study on sudden deaths across 47 hospitals in 19 states/UTs?
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Correct answer: A — National Institute of Epidemiology
Health Ministry: the first study, conducted by ICMR's National Institute of Epidemiology (NIE), was carried out from May to August 2023 across 47 tertiary care hospitals in 19 states and UTs.
C-FLOOD, inaugurated on 2 July 2025, was developed by C-DAC Pune together with which body?
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Correct answer: A — Central Water Commission
Jal Shakti Ministry: C-FLOOD was collaboratively developed by C-DAC, Pune and the Central Water Commission (CWC).
How far in advance does C-FLOOD provide village-level inundation forecasts?
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Correct answer: C — Two days
Jal Shakti Ministry: C-FLOOD is a web-based platform that provides two-days advance inundation forecasts up to village level.
Which river basins does C-FLOOD currently cover (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Mahanadi, Godavari and Tapi
Jal Shakti Ministry: at present, the system covers the Mahanadi, Godavari and Tapi river basins.
What is the corpus of the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme approved on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1 lakh crore
Cabinet: the Cabinet approved the RDI Scheme with a corpus of ₹1 lakh crore.
Which department will serve as the nodal department for implementing the RDI Scheme?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Science and Technology
Cabinet: the Department of Science and Technology (DST) will serve as the nodal department for implementation of the RDI Scheme.
Who chairs the Governing Board of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), which gives strategic direction to the RDI Scheme?
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Correct answer: C — Prime Minister
Cabinet: the Governing Board of ANRF, chaired by the Prime Minister, will provide overarching strategic direction to the RDI Scheme.
What is the outlay of the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme approved by the Cabinet on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹99,446 crore
Cabinet: with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, the ELI Scheme aims to incentivize the creation of more than 3.5 crore jobs over 2 years.
Under Part A of the ELI Scheme, first-time employees get one month's EPF wage up to what amount?
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Correct answer: C — ₹15,000
Cabinet: Part A offers first-time employees registered with EPFO one-month EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments.
ELI Scheme benefits apply to jobs created during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2027
Cabinet: the benefits of the Scheme would be applicable to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.
Consider the following about the ELI Scheme (July 2025): 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25 as part of the PM's package of five schemes. 2. For the manufacturing sector, employer incentives extend to the third and fourth years. 3. Employers get up to ₹15,000 per month for each additional employee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (Cabinet). Statement 3 is wrong: employers get up to ₹3,000 per month per additional employee; ₹15,000 is the cap on the one-month EPF wage for first-time employees.
The National Sports Policy 2025, approved on 1 July 2025, supersedes the National Sports Policy of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2001
Cabinet: the new policy supersedes the existing National Sports Policy, 2001.
How many key pillars is the National Sports Policy 2025 anchored on?
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Correct answer: D — Five
Cabinet: the policy is anchored on five key pillars.
Which Olympic Games does the National Sports Policy 2025 specifically mention as a target for excellence?
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Correct answer: A — 2036 Olympic Games
Cabinet: NSP 2025 lays out a roadmap to make India a strong contender at international events, including the 2036 Olympic Games.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five pillars of the National Sports Policy 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Sports for Defence Preparedness
Cabinet: the five pillars are Excellence on the Global Stage, Sports for Economic Development, Sports for Social Development, Sports as a People's Movement, and Integration with Education (NEP 2020); Sports for Defence Preparedness is not a pillar.
Where was INS Tamal commissioned on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Yantar Shipyard, Kaliningrad
Indian Navy: INS Tamal (F 71) was commissioned on 01 Jul 2025 at Yantar Shipyard, Kaliningrad, Russia.
INS Tamal is the second ship of which class of frigates?
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Correct answer: B — Tushil class
Indian Navy: INS Tamal is the eighth multi-role stealth frigate of Project 1135.6 and the second of the additional follow-on Tushil class of ships.
What share of indigenous components does INS Tamal have, according to the Navy (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 26%
Indian Navy: though built in Russia, the ship has 26% indigenous components, including the BrahMos long-range cruise missile and HUMSA-NG sonar system.
On which date was the Digital India programme launched, completing ten years on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1 July 2015
MyGov/Indian Express: Digital India was launched by PM Narendra Modi on 1 July 2015 and turned 10 on 1 July 2025.
Digital India's stated vision, as recalled on its tenth anniversary, is to transform India into what?
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Correct answer: D — A digitally empowered society and knowledge economy
Indian Express: Digital India was launched with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
What was India's record gross GST collection in 2024–25, as GST completed eight years?
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Correct answer: B — ₹22.08 lakh crore
PIB: in 2024–25, gross GST collections hit a record ₹22.08 lakh crore, marking a year-on-year growth of 9.4%.
Under which Article of the Constitution was the GST Council constituted?
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Correct answer: D — Article 279A
PIB: the GST Council was constituted as per Article 279A of the Constitution and is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
Who chairs the GST Council?
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Correct answer: A — Union Finance Minister
PIB: the GST Council consists of the Union Finance Minister (Chairperson), the Union MoS in charge of Revenue or Finance, and state Finance/Taxation Ministers.