SF Prep

State Staff Selection Current Affairs Quiz — All time

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

7 days 1 month 3 months 6 months 12 months All
6023 news · 16271 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 86 questions
TRAI issues India's first manual for rating properties on digital connectivity
Q1

Which body issued the Manual for Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity on 13 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Telecom Regulatory Authority of India

The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) issued the Manual for Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity, the country's first standardised framework of its kind.

Q2 Advanced

Consider the following statements about TRAI's digital connectivity rating manual of August 2025: 1. It was developed under the Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024. 2. TRAI noted that less than half of mobile data is consumed indoors. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the manual was developed under the Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: TRAI noted that more than 80% of mobile data is consumed indoors.

Q3 Advanced

Who was the Chairman of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) when it issued the Manual for Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Anil Kumar Lahoti

Anil Kumar Lahoti.

India crosses 100 GW of solar PV module manufacturing capacity under ALMM
Q4

What solar PV module manufacturing capacity under ALMM did India reach, as announced on 13 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 100 GW

MNRE announced that India has achieved 100 GW of solar PV module manufacturing capacity enlisted under the Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM).

Q5 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India's solar module manufacturing milestone of August 2025: 1. The ALMM Order was issued by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy in 2019. 2. India's solar module manufacturing capacity was 2.3 GW in 2014. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. MNRE issued the ALMM Order on 2 January 2019, and solar module manufacturing capacity has risen from 2.3 GW in 2014 to 100 GW.

Q6 Advanced

While announcing the 100 GW solar module milestone, the Minister linked it to India's target of how much non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 500 GW

Union Minister Pralhad Joshi said the achievement strengthens India's path towards the target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030.

IGNCA and Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences sign MoU to integrate science and culture
Q7

The Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences (BSIP), which signed an MoU with IGNCA on 13 August 2025, is located in which city?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Lucknow

Lucknow; BSIP is an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology.

Q8 Advanced

The IGNCA–BSIP MoU of 13 August 2025 supports which project on climate change in maritime history?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Project Mausam

Project Mausam.

Retail inflation falls to 1.55% in July 2025, lowest since June 2017
Q9

What was India's year-on-year CPI headline inflation for July 2025 (provisional), as released on 12 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1.55%

MoSPI data showed headline CPI inflation of 1.55% (provisional) for July 2025, 55 basis points lower than June 2025.

Q10 Advanced

The July 2025 headline CPI inflation was the lowest year-on-year inflation since which month?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — June 2017

The 1.55% headline inflation for July 2025 was the lowest year-on-year inflation since June 2017; January 2019 is the reference point for food inflation.

Q11 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India's CPI data for July 2025: 1. Food inflation measured by the CFPI was negative. 2. Rural inflation was higher than urban inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: CFPI-based food inflation was -1.76%, the lowest since January 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect: rural inflation was 1.18%, lower than urban inflation of 2.05%.

Q12

What is the base year of the Consumer Price Index series used for the July 2025 inflation data?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 2012

The CPI numbers for rural, urban and combined released for July 2025 are on base 2012=100.

Lok Sabha Speaker admits motion to remove Justice Yashwant Varma, sets up three-member inquiry committee
Q13

Who admitted the motion for removal of Justice Yashwant Varma and constituted an inquiry committee on 12 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla

Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla admitted the motion signed by 146 MPs and constituted a three-member inquiry committee.

Q14 Advanced

Under which law was the three-member committee to probe the charges against Justice Yashwant Varma constituted?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968

The Speaker constituted the committee under Section 3(2) of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

Q15 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the inquiry committee constituted in the Justice Yashwant Varma case in August 2025: 1. It includes a sitting judge of the Supreme Court. 2. It was constituted by the Chief Justice of India. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the committee includes Supreme Court judge Justice Aravind Kumar. Statement 2 is incorrect: the committee was constituted by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla after admitting the removal motion.

Q16 Advanced

Who among the following is NOT a member of the inquiry committee constituted in the Justice Yashwant Varma case?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Justice Sanjiv Khanna

The committee comprises Justice Aravind Kumar of the Supreme Court, Madras High Court Chief Justice Manindra Mohan Shrivastava and senior advocate B.V. Acharya; Sanjiv Khanna is not a member.

Cabinet approves four semiconductor units in Odisha, Punjab and Andhra Pradesh worth about ₹4,600 crore
Q17

What was the combined outlay of the four semiconductor projects approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — About ₹4,600 crore

The Cabinet approved four semiconductor projects with a cumulative investment of about ₹4,600 crore, expected to create 2,034 skilled jobs.

Q18 Advanced

India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices, approved in August 2025, will come up in which state?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Odisha

SiCSem will set up India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices at Info Valley, Bhubaneswar, Odisha.

Q19 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the semiconductor approvals of 12 August 2025: 1. With these approvals, the number of projects approved under the India Semiconductor Mission rose to 10. 2. The CDIL unit approved on this date is located in Andhra Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: approved ISM projects reached 10, with cumulative investment of about ₹1.60 lakh crore across six states. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CDIL unit is located in Punjab; the ASIP unit is in Andhra Pradesh.

Q20 Advanced

SiCSem's silicon carbide fab approved in August 2025 is to be set up in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd. of which country?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — United Kingdom

SiCSem is setting up the compound semiconductor fab in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd., UK.

Parliament passes National Sports Governance Bill and National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025
Q21

Under the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament in August 2025, which body grants recognition to sports bodies?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — National Sports Board

The bill sets up a National Sports Board to grant recognition to sports bodies; the National Sports Tribunal is a separate institution created by the bill.

Q22 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025: 1. Executive committees of sports bodies can have up to 15 members, including at least four women. 2. The Lok Sabha passed the bill before the Rajya Sabha did. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The bill provides for executive committees of up to 15 members with at least two outstanding sportspersons and four women, and the Lok Sabha passed it on 11 August before the Rajya Sabha approved it on 12 August 2025.

Q23 Advanced

The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed alongside the sports governance bill reinforces the autonomy of which body?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA)

The anti-doping amendment reinforces the autonomy of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), as required by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).

Q24 Advanced

Which of the following is NOT among the bodies provided for in the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — National Sports Ombudsman Council

The bill provides for a National Olympic Committee, a National Paralympic Committee, national and regional federations, a National Sports Board and a National Sports Tribunal; it does not create a 'National Sports Ombudsman Council'.

UPSC to begin centenary year celebrations from 1 October 2025
Q25

On which date was the Public Service Commission, the predecessor of UPSC, first set up?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 1 October 1926

The Public Service Commission was first set up on 1 October 1926; UPSC will mark its centenary from 1 October 2025 to 1 October 2026.

Q26 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the history of the UPSC: 1. The first Public Service Commission was set up on the recommendations of the Lee Commission. 2. The commission was renamed the Union Public Service Commission on 26 January 1950. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 under the Government of India Act, 1919 on the Lee Commission's recommendations, and it was renamed UPSC on 26 January 1950.

Cabinet approves Lucknow Metro Phase-1B of 11.165 km with 12 stations
Q27

What is the length of the Lucknow Metro Phase-1B corridor approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 11.165 km

The Cabinet approved Phase-1B of the Lucknow Metro, an 11.165 km corridor with 12 stations, at a cost of ₹5,801 crore.

Q28 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Lucknow Metro Phase-1B approved in August 2025: 1. All 12 stations on the corridor will be elevated. 2. After this corridor, Lucknow will have a 34 km active metro network. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: of the 12 stations, 7 will be underground and 5 elevated. Statement 2 is correct: with Phase-1B, Lucknow will have a 34 km active metro network.

World Elephant Day 2025: national event held at Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu
Q29

Where was the national event for World Elephant Day 2025 held?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Coimbatore

The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change held the national World Elephant Day event at Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu on 12 August 2025.

Q30 Advanced

Consider the following statements shared by the Environment Ministry on World Elephant Day 2025: 1. India is home to about 60% of the world's wild elephants. 2. India has 50 notified Elephant Reserves. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: India is home to about 60% of the world's wild elephants. Statement 2 is incorrect: the ministry cited 33 Elephant Reserves, along with 150 elephant corridors.

CCEA approves ₹8,146 crore 700 MW Tato-II hydro project in Arunachal Pradesh
Q31

The Tato-II Hydro Electric Project approved by the CCEA on 12 August 2025 is located in which district of Arunachal Pradesh?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Shi Yomi

The 700 MW Tato-II Hydro Electric Project is located in Shi Yomi district of Arunachal Pradesh.

Q32 Advanced

What is the installed capacity of the Tato-II Hydro Electric Project approved in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 700 MW

The Tato-II project has an installed capacity of 700 MW (4 x 175 MW).

Q33 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Tato-II Hydro Electric Project: 1. It will be implemented through a joint venture between NEEPCO and the Government of Arunachal Pradesh. 2. Arunachal Pradesh will receive 12% free power and another 1% towards the Local Area Development Fund. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The project will be implemented by a JV of NEEPCO and the Government of Arunachal Pradesh, and the state will get 12% free power plus 1% towards the Local Area Development Fund.

Health Ministry launches SHRESTH index to benchmark state drug regulators
Q34

The SHRESTH index launched by the Union Health Ministry on 12 August 2025 is meant to benchmark which of the following?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — State drug regulatory systems

SHRESTH is a national initiative to benchmark and strengthen state drug regulatory systems through a transparent, data-driven framework.

Q35 Advanced

Which organisation proposed the SHRESTH index launched in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation

SHRESTH was proposed by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) as a virtual gap-assessment tool for states.

Pixxel-led consortium wins IN-SPACe bid to build India's first PPP Earth observation constellation
Q36

Which company led the consortium selected by IN-SPACe in August 2025 to build India's first PPP-based Earth Observation constellation?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Pixxel

IN-SPACe selected a consortium led by Pixxel, with Piersight Space, SatSure Analytics India and Dhruva Space, under its EO-PPP model.

Q37 Advanced

How many satellites will the Earth Observation constellation awarded under IN-SPACe's EO-PPP model in August 2025 comprise?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 12

The Pixxel-led consortium will deploy a constellation of 12 satellites carrying optical, hyperspectral and SAR sensors, investing over ₹1,200 crore.

Supreme Court orders removal of stray dogs from Delhi-NCR streets to shelters
Q38 Advanced

Which Supreme Court bench passed the order of 11 August 2025 directing that stray dogs in Delhi-NCR be moved to shelters?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan

The order in the suo motu case 'In Re: City Hounded by Strays, Kids Pay Price' was passed by a bench of Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan.

Q39

In its order of 11 August 2025, the Supreme Court asked authorities to start by creating shelters for about how many stray dogs?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5,000

The court directed the authorities to begin by creating shelters for about 5,000 dogs and to report within eight weeks.

Q40 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's stray dogs order of 11 August 2025: 1. The court directed that dogs picked up should not be released back onto the streets. 2. The directions applied only to the New Delhi Municipal Council area. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the court directed that the stray dogs picked up must not be released back. Statement 2 is incorrect: the directions covered the NCT of Delhi, Noida, Ghaziabad, Gurugram and Faridabad.

Q41 Advanced

As per the Supreme Court's order of 11 August 2025, dogs in shelters are to be sterilised, dewormed and immunised in line with which rules?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023

The court directed that the dogs be sterilised, dewormed and immunised as per the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023.

Lok Sabha passes Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill and Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 without debate
Q42 Advanced

Who headed the Select Committee whose recommendations were incorporated in the Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Baijayant Panda

The revised Income-Tax Bill incorporated most of the recommendations of the Select Committee headed by Baijayant Panda.

Q43

The Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha in August 2025 seeks to replace which law?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Income-Tax Act, 1961

The revised Income-Tax Bill aims to replace the six-decade-old Income-Tax Act, 1961.

Q44 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the tax bills passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025: 1. Both bills were passed by voice vote without debate. 2. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Old Pension Scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: both bills were passed by voice vote without any debate amid Opposition protests. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme.

Q45 Advanced

The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025 provides tax exemptions to subscribers of which scheme?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Unified Pension Scheme

The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 aims to provide tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme and also changes block assessment for income tax search cases.

Parliament passes Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 replacing the 1958 Act
Q46

The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament on 11 August 2025 replaces the Merchant Shipping Act of which year?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1958

The bill replaces the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which had 561 sections.

Q47 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. The Act it replaces had 561 sections. 2. The new Bill is structured into 16 parts and 325 clauses. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 had 561 sections, and the new Bill offers a streamlined framework of 16 parts and 325 clauses.

Q48 Advanced

The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 aligns India's domestic laws with the conventions of which international body?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — International Maritime Organisation

The bill aims to align domestic laws with international best practices and International Maritime Organisation (IMO) conventions.

Cooperative Election Authority holds first consultative meeting with state cooperative election bodies
Q49 Advanced

The Cooperative Election Authority, which held its first consultative meeting with states on 11 August 2025, was notified under which Act?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002

The CEA was notified on 11 March 2024 under Section 45 of the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, as amended in 2023.

Q50

Who chaired the first consultative meeting of the Cooperative Election Authority with State Cooperative Election Authorities on 11 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Devendra Kumar Singh

The meeting was chaired by Devendra Kumar Singh, Chairperson of the Cooperative Election Authority.

Indian and Sri Lankan Coast Guards hold 8th High-Level Meeting in New Delhi
Q51

Which edition of the High-Level Meeting between the Indian Coast Guard and the Sri Lanka Coast Guard was held in New Delhi on 11 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 8th

The 8th High-Level Meeting between the ICG and SLCG was held in New Delhi on 11 August 2025.

Q52 Advanced

In which year was the Memorandum of Understanding between the Indian Coast Guard and the Sri Lanka Coast Guard signed, under which the August 2025 visit took place?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2018

The SLCG delegation visited India from 10 to 14 August 2025 under the framework of the MoU signed between the ICG and SLCG in 2018.

ECI begins delisting another 476 registered unrecognised political parties
Q53 Advanced

Political parties are registered with the Election Commission of India under which provision?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Section 29A of the RP Act, 1951

Political parties, including RUPPs, are registered with the ECI under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Q54

How many registered unrecognised political parties did the ECI delist in the first round on 9 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 334

In the first round, the ECI delisted 334 RUPPs on 9 August 2025, reducing listed RUPPs from 2,854 to 2,520; 476 more were identified in the second round.

Q55 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the ECI's RUPP delisting exercise of August 2025: 1. Registration guidelines provide for delisting a party that does not contest elections continuously for six years. 2. After the first round, the number of listed RUPPs rose to 2,854. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: a party that does not contest elections continuously for six years is taken off the list. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first round reduced listed RUPPs from 2,854 to 2,520.

About ₹3,900 crore in PMFBY claims transferred to 35 lakh farmers from Jhunjhunu
Q56

From which place did Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan digitally transfer PMFBY claim payouts on 11 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan

Shivraj Singh Chouhan transferred the crop insurance payouts under PMFBY directly to farmers' bank accounts from Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan.

Q57 Advanced

About how much was disbursed under PMFBY to nearly 35 lakh farmers on 11 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹3,900 crore

Around ₹3,900 crore was disbursed to the accounts of nearly 35 lakh farmers under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.

PM inaugurates 184 Type-VII flats for MPs at Baba Kharak Singh Marg
Q58

How many Type-VII multi-storey flats for MPs did PM Modi inaugurate at Baba Kharak Singh Marg on 11 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 184

PM Modi inaugurated 184 newly constructed Type-VII multi-storey flats for Members of Parliament at BKS Marg, New Delhi.

Q59 Advanced

The four towers of the MPs' housing complex inaugurated at BKS Marg in August 2025 are named after rivers. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Narmada

The four towers are named Kosi, Krishna, Godavari and Hooghly; there is no tower named Narmada.

World Lion Day 2025: Asiatic lion population reaches 891, celebrations held at Barda Wildlife Sanctuary
Q60

Where were the World Lion Day 2025 celebrations of the Environment Ministry and Gujarat government held?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Barda Wildlife Sanctuary

World Lion Day 2025 was celebrated at Barda Wildlife Sanctuary in Devbhumi Dwarka district, Gujarat.

Q61 Advanced

According to the Environment Minister on World Lion Day 2025, what is India's Asiatic lion population in 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 891

Bhupender Yadav said India's lion population has grown to 891 in 2025, up from 674 in 2020.

Q62 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Asiatic lion conservation, as highlighted on World Lion Day 2025: 1. Project Lion was announced by the Prime Minister on 15 August 2020. 2. The lion population was 674 in 2020. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. Project Lion was announced in the Independence Day address of 15 August 2020, and the population has risen from 674 in 2020 to 891 in 2025.

Q63

What is the scientific name of the Asiatic lion?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Panthera leo persica

The Asiatic lion's scientific name is Panthera leo persica, as noted by the Environment Minister on World Lion Day 2025.

PM inaugurates Bengaluru Metro Yellow Line, lays Phase-3 foundation and flags off three Vande Bharat trains
Q64

The Bangalore Metro Yellow Line inaugurated by PM Modi on 10 August 2025 runs between which two points?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — RV Road (Ragigudda) and Bommasandra

The Yellow Line of Bangalore Metro Phase-2 runs from RV Road (Ragigudda) to Bommasandra, over 19 km with 16 stations.

Q65 Advanced

Bangalore Metro Phase-3, whose foundation stone was laid on 10 August 2025, is also known as which line?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Orange Line

The Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of Bangalore Metro's Phase-3, namely the Orange Line, worth over ₹15,610 crore.

Q66 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Bengaluru metro projects of 10 August 2025: 1. The Yellow Line has a route length of over 19 km with 16 stations. 2. Metro Phase-3 will have 31 underground stations. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the Yellow Line covers over 19 km with 16 stations. Statement 2 is incorrect: Phase-3 will have a route length of more than 44 km with 31 elevated stations.

Q67 Advanced

Which of the following was NOT among the three Vande Bharat Express trains flagged off by PM Modi from Bengaluru on 10 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Bengaluru–Mysuru

The three trains were Bengaluru–Belagavi, Nagpur (Ajni)–Pune and Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Katra–Amritsar; no Bengaluru–Mysuru Vande Bharat was flagged off.

India win 14 medals, including three golds, at Asian U19 Boxing Championships in Bangkok
Q68

How many medals did India win at the U19 Asian Boxing Championships 2025 in Bangkok?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 14

India's U19 boxers won 14 medals — three gold, seven silver and four bronze; 27 was India's combined tally across the U19 and U22 events.

Q69 Advanced

Which of the following Indian boxers did NOT win a gold medal at the U19 Asian Boxing Championships 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Hemant

India's three U19 golds were won by Nisha (54 kg), Muskan (57 kg) and Rahul Kundu (75 kg); Hemant was not among the gold medallists.

Aadhaar Face Authentication crosses 200 crore transactions
Q70

What milestone did UIDAI mark for Aadhaar Face Authentication on 10 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 200 crore transactions

UIDAI celebrated 200 crore Aadhaar Face Authentication transactions on 10 August 2025.

Q71 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Aadhaar Face Authentication: 1. It reached 100 crore transactions in January 2025. 2. The rise from 100 crore to 200 crore transactions took more than a year. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Face Authentication transactions doubled to 100 crore in January 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the count doubled from 100 crore to 200 crore in less than six months.

Q72

Who was the CEO of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) when Aadhaar Face Authentication crossed 200 crore transactions in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Bhuvnesh Kumar

Bhuvnesh Kumar.

Foundation laid for ₹1,800 crore Brahma–BEML Rail Manufacturing Hub in Madhya Pradesh
Q73

The 'Brahma–BEML Rail Manufacturing Hub', whose foundation stone was laid on 10 August 2025, is coming up in which state?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Madhya Pradesh

The hub is being set up at Umaria village of Obedullaganj, in the Vidisha Parliamentary Constituency of Madhya Pradesh.

Q74 Advanced

What is the investment in the Brahma–BEML Rail Manufacturing Hub whose foundation stone was laid in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹1,800 crore

The foundation stone was laid for the ₹1,800 crore Brahma–BEML Rail Manufacturing Hub, which will make Vande Bharat and metro coaches along with defence products.

Sreeshankar wins long jump at India's first World Athletics Continental Tour Bronze event in Bhubaneswar
Q75

Who won the men's long jump at the inaugural Indian Open World Athletics Continental Tour Bronze event in Bhubaneswar on 10 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Murali Sreeshankar

Murali Sreeshankar won with a season-best 8.13 m on his final attempt; Shahnavaz Khan was second with 8.04 m.

Q76 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the athletics meet held in Bhubaneswar on 10 August 2025: 1. It was the inaugural World Athletics Continental Tour Bronze event held in India. 2. It was held at Kalinga Stadium. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The Indian Open was the inaugural World Athletics Continental Tour Bronze event in India, held at Kalinga Stadium, Bhubaneswar.

Q77 Advanced

Who won the men's 200 m in 20.77 seconds at the Indian Open, the World Athletics Continental Tour Bronze event held in Bhubaneswar on 10 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Animesh Kujur

Animesh Kujur; Annu Rani won the women's javelin with 62.01 m.

India's defence production hits record ₹1.51 lakh crore in FY 2024-25
Q78

What was India's annual defence production in FY 2024-25, as announced by the Raksha Mantri on 9 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹1,50,590 crore

Annual defence production reached an all-time high of ₹1,50,590 crore in FY 2024-25.

Q79 Advanced

By how much did India's defence production grow in FY 2024-25 over FY 2023-24?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 18%

Production rose 18% over the ₹1.27 lakh crore recorded in FY 2023-24.

Q80 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India's defence production in FY 2024-25: 1. The private sector's share of total production rose from 21% in FY 2023-24 to 23%. 2. Production by DPSUs grew faster than production by the private sector. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the private sector's share rose from 21% to 23%. Statement 2 is incorrect: DPSU production grew 16% while private-sector production grew 28%.

Q81 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India's defence exports and production: 1. Defence exports reached a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25. 2. Defence production in FY 2019-20 was ₹79,071 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. Exports hit a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25 (up 12.04% from ₹21,083 crore), and production has risen 90% from ₹79,071 crore in FY 2019-20.

India's first animal stem cell biobank opens at NIAB, Hyderabad
Q82

India's first-of-its-kind Animal Stem Cell BioBank, inaugurated on 9 August 2025, is located at which institute?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — NIAB, Hyderabad

The Animal Stem Cell BioBank and Laboratory was inaugurated at the National Institute of Animal Biotechnology (NIAB), Hyderabad.

Q83 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Animal Stem Cell BioBank at NIAB: 1. It will focus on regenerative medicine and cellular therapies for livestock. 2. Its expansion will be supported by the National Biopharma Mission of DBT–BIRAC. Which of the above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The biobank will focus on regenerative medicine and cellular therapies for livestock, and will be expanded with support from the National Biopharma Mission of DBT–BIRAC.

ECI delists 334 registered unrecognised political parties
Q84

How many Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) did the Election Commission delist on 9 August 2025?

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Correct answer: A — 334

The ECI delisted 334 RUPPs that were found non-compliant.

Q85 Advanced

Before the August 2025 delisting, how many State Parties were registered with the Election Commission of India?

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Correct answer: B — 67

The ECI said there were 6 National Parties, 67 State Parties and 2,854 RUPPs registered with it.

Q86 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the ECI's delisting of RUPPs in August 2025: 1. Delisted parties lose benefits under Sections 29B and 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. A party aggrieved by the order can appeal to the Commission within 30 days. Which of the above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. Delisted parties cannot claim benefits under Sections 29B and 29C of the RP Act, 1951, and an aggrieved party may appeal to the Commission within 30 days of the order.