SF Prep

RRB Group D Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

7 days 1 month 3 months 6 months 12 months All
1753 news · 4674 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 28 questions
Piyush Goyal co-chairs first India–Qatar Joint Commission in Doha; goal to double trade by 2030, UPI launched in Qatar
Q1

At the first meeting of the upgraded India–Qatar Joint Commission (October 2025), the two sides set a goal of doubling bilateral trade by:

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Correct answer: B — 2030

PIB: the sides set a shared goal of doubling bilateral trade by 2030.

Q2 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Piyush Goyal's October 2025 visit to Qatar: 1. The upgraded Joint Commission replaced the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce. 2. India–Qatar bilateral trade in 2024–25 was over USD 24 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: it was the first meeting of the upgraded Joint Commission, elevated from the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce; trade was valued at over USD 14 billion in 2024–25.

Labour Ministry releases draft 'Shram Shakti Niti 2025' — National Labour & Employment Policy — for public feedback
Q3 Advanced

The draft Shram Shakti Niti 2025 is described as rooted in which civilisational ethos?

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Correct answer: B — Śrama dharma

PIB: the policy is rooted in India's civilisational ethos of śrama dharma — the dignity and moral value of work.

Q4 Advanced

Under the draft National Labour & Employment Policy – Shram Shakti Niti 2025, which platform is to serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment?

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Correct answer: D — National Career Service (NCS)

PIB: the National Career Service (NCS) platform will serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment, enabling job matching, credential verification and skill alignment.

India wins ISSA 'Outstanding Achievement in Social Security' Award 2025; social protection cover 19% → 64.3%
Q5 Advanced

Which country received the ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security immediately before India (in 2022)?

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Correct answer: D — Iceland

PIB: previous recipients include Brazil (2013), China (2016), Rwanda (2019) and Iceland (2022).

Q6 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. According to the ILO, India's social protection coverage rose from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025. 2. The ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security is presented every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: coverage expanded from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025, as highlighted by the ILO; the ISSA Award is presented once every three years at the World Social Security Forum.

Q7 Advanced

India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly has been raised to which number, the maximum permissible for any member country?

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Correct answer: C — 30

PIB: Dr Mandaviya stressed the rise in India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly to 30, the maximum permissible limit for any member country.

PM Surya Ghar: public sector banks sanction 5.79 lakh rooftop-solar loans worth ₹10,907 crore
Q8 Advanced

As of September 2025, public sector banks had sanctioned loans under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana amounting to about:

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Correct answer: D — ₹10,907 crore

PIB: as of September 2025, PSBs had sanctioned over 5.79 lakh loan applications amounting to ₹10,907 crore.

Q9 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the model loan scheme under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: 1. It offers collateral-free loans of up to ₹2 lakh. 2. It provides a 12-month moratorium from disbursement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: the model loan scheme offers loans up to ₹2 lakh without collateral and a 6-month moratorium period from disbursement.

Leprosy in India: prevalence falls to 0.57 per 10,000 in 2024–25; 31 States below elimination threshold
Q10

In which year did India achieve leprosy elimination status at the national level (prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population)?

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Correct answer: B — 2005

PIB (MoHFW explainer): India achieved elimination status in March 2005 at the national level, meaning a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population, and has sustained it.

Q11 Advanced

Nikusth 2.0, the revamped web portal for leprosy data and monitoring, was launched on which occasion?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — National Anti-Leprosy Day, 30 January 2023

PIB: Nikusth 2.0, a revamped web-based ICT portal for recording, reporting and monitoring leprosy activities, was launched on 30 January 2023 (National Anti-Leprosy Day) by the Union Health Minister.

Q12 Advanced

Consider the following statements about leprosy in India: 1. As of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population. 2. The new case detection rate rose from 7.0 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 9.73 per 100,000 in 2024–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: as of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had achieved a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000. The new case detection rate fell (not rose) from 9.73 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 7.0 in 2024–25.

People's Plan Campaign 2025–26 'Sabki Yojana, Sabka Vikas' under way for Panchayat plans of FY 2026–27
Q13 Advanced

Which Article of the Constitution entrusts Panchayats with preparing plans for economic development and social justice, the basis of the People's Plan Campaign?

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Correct answer: D — Article 243G

PIB (MoPR): Article 243G recognises Panchayats as institutions of local self-government and entrusts them with the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice; PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule.

Q14 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the People's Plan Campaign (PPC): 1. Panchayat Development Plans cover the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. 2. PPC 2025–26, launched on 2 October 2025, prepares Panchayat Development Plans for the financial year 2025–26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB (MoPR): PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule. PPC 2025–26 was launched on 2 October 2025 to prepare PDPs for the financial year 2026–27, not 2025–26.

Exercise Konkan 2025: Indian Navy and Royal Navy begin bilateral drill off India's western coast
Q15

Exercise Konkan, which began on 5 October 2025, is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and which navy?

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Correct answer: C — Royal Navy (United Kingdom)

PIB (Indian Navy): Exercise KONKAN-25 is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of the UK, held off India's western coast from 5 to 12 October 2025.

Q16 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Exercise Konkan 2025: 1. It was conducted off the eastern coast of India in the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of INS Vikrant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. PIB: the exercise was held off the western coast of India (western seaboard), and the Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of the indigenous aircraft carrier INS Vikrant; the UK CSG 25 was led by HMS Prince of Wales.

Mines Ministry issues guidelines for ₹1,500 crore Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme
Q17 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the ₹1,500 crore Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme: 1. Its eligible feedstock includes e-waste, spent lithium-ion batteries and other scrap. 2. Its incentives are meant for units engaged only in black mass production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB (Ministry of Mines): eligible feedstock is e-waste, spent LiBs and other scrap. Incentives are for the value chain engaged in actual extraction of critical minerals, not the value chain involved only in black mass production.

Q18 Advanced

Applications under the Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme, opened on 2 October 2025, can be made up to which date?

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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026

PIB: the scheme is open for applications from 2 October 2025 for six months, i.e. up to 1 April 2026.

Employment rose to 64.33 crore in 2023–24, unemployment fell to 3.2%: government explainer
Q19

According to the government explainer of October 2025, what was India's unemployment rate in 2023–24?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 3.2%

PIB explainer: the unemployment rate fell sharply from 6.0% in 2017–18 to 3.2% in 2023–24.

Q20 Advanced

Consider the following statements based on the government's October 2025 employment explainer: 1. EPFO added fewer than 1 crore net subscribers in 2024–25. 2. The share of self-employment fell from 58.4% in 2017–18 to 52.2% in 2023–24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Neither is correct. PIB: EPFO added over 1.29 crore net subscribers in 2024–25 (up from 61.12 lakh in 2018–19). Self-employment rose (not fell) from 52.2% in 2017–18 to 58.4% in 2023–24, while casual labour fell from 24.9% to 19.8%.

UIDAI waives Aadhaar Mandatory Biometric Update charges for children aged 7–15
Q21 Advanced

Before UIDAI's October 2025 waiver, what fee was charged per Mandatory Biometric Update (MBU) for a child outside the free age windows?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — ₹125

PIB (MeitY/UIDAI): the first and second MBUs were free if done at ages 5–7 and 15–17; thereafter a prescribed fee of ₹125 per MBU was charged. The waiver makes MBU effectively free for all children aged 5–17.

Q22 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Aadhaar for children: 1. Fingerprints and iris biometrics are not captured for Aadhaar enrolment of children below five years of age. 2. UIDAI's waiver of MBU charges, effective 1 October 2025, will remain in force for two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: fingerprints and iris are not captured below age five because they are not mature. The MBU charge waiver took effect on 1 October 2025 and is in force for one year, not two.

Non-FASTag users to pay 1.25 times toll via UPI, double in cash, from 15 November 2025
Q23

Under the amended National Highways fee rules notified in October 2025, a vehicle without a valid FASTag that pays via UPI will be charged how much of the applicable user fee?

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Correct answer: C — 1.25 times

PIB (MoRTH): non-FASTag users paying in cash will be charged twice the applicable fee, while those paying via UPI will be charged only 1.25 times (e.g. ₹100 → ₹125 by UPI, ₹200 in cash).

Q24 Advanced

From which date did the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2025 come into effect?

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Correct answer: D — 15 November 2025

PIB (MoRTH): the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2025 come into effect from 15 November 2025.

'India-Singapore @60' business session in Singapore marks 60 years of diplomatic ties
Q25

During his visit to Singapore for 'India-Singapore @60' in October 2025, Piyush Goyal met which President of Singapore at the Istana?

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Correct answer: C — Tharman Shanmugaratnam

PIB (Ministry of Commerce): a highlight of the three-day visit was a meeting with H.E. Tharman Shanmugaratnam, President of the Republic of Singapore, at the Istana.

Q26 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the 'India-Singapore @60' business session of 4 October 2025: 1. It marked the 60th anniversary of diplomatic relations and was co-organised by FICCI, CII and ASSOCHAM. 2. Singapore was represented at the session by its Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: the session marked the 60th anniversary of India–Singapore diplomatic relations and was co-organised by FICCI, CII and ASSOCHAM. Singapore was represented by Ms Gan Siow Huang, Minister of State, Ministry of Trade & Industry — not the Prime Minister.

MoSPI releases Discussion Paper 2.0 on treating free PDS items in CPI
Q27 Advanced

According to MoSPI, the free foodgrain distribution scheme launched on 1 January 2023 covers what share of the population?

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Correct answer: B — 75% rural and 50% urban

PIB (MoSPI): the free food grain distribution scheme launched by the Government of India from 1 January 2023 covers 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population.

Q28

Which body released the Discussion Paper 2.0 on 'The Treatment of Free PDS Items in CPI Compilation' in October 2025?

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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

PIB: the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), which is conducting the CPI base revision, released Discussion Paper 2.0 and invited comments.