DSSSB Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which bench of the Supreme Court passed the interim order on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 on 15 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — CJI B.R. Gavai and Justice A.G. Masih
The interim order of 15 September 2025 was passed by a bench of Chief Justice of India B.R. Gavai and Justice A.G. Masih.
Under the Supreme Court's interim directions on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, what is the maximum number of non-Muslim members allowed in the Central Waqf Council and in a State Waqf Board, respectively?
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Correct answer: A — 4 and 3
The Court directed that the Central Waqf Council should not have more than 4 non-Muslim members and a State Waqf Board not more than 3, recording the Solicitor General's statement to the same effect.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's interim order of 15 September 2025 on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. The Court stayed the operation of the entire Act until the petitions are finally decided. 2. The condition that a person must be practising Islam for at least five years to create a waqf was stayed until State Governments frame rules for a mechanism to determine it. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Court found no case to stay the entire statute. Statement 2 is correct: the five-year condition was stayed until State Governments frame rules, since without a mechanism it could lead to arbitrary exercise of power.
While staying the Collector's powers to decide disputes over waqf property under the amended Act, which constitutional principle did the Supreme Court say would be violated if the executive determined citizens' rights?
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Correct answer: D — Separation of powers
The Court said permitting the Collector to adjudicate the rights of citizens would violate the separation of powers, and stayed those provisions until the Waqf Tribunal decides.
India's second contract with the International Seabed Authority for polymetallic sulphides exploration, signed on 15 September 2025, covers an area in which feature of the Indian Ocean?
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Correct answer: C — Carlsberg Ridge
The 15-year contract gives India exclusive rights to explore polymetallic sulphides in an allotted 10,000 sq km area of the Carlsberg Ridge.
Consider the following statements about India's PMS exploration contract with the ISA signed in September 2025: 1. India became the first country to hold two ISA contracts for polymetallic sulphides exploration. 2. The contract is valid for 30 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India is the first country with two ISA PMS contracts (the earlier, from 2016, covers the Central and Southwest Indian Ridges). Statement 2 is incorrect: the contract is for 15 years.
The International Seabed Authority, with which India signed its second PMS exploration contract, is based in which country?
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Correct answer: B — Jamaica
The International Seabed Authority, the UN body that regulates mineral exploration in international seabed areas, is based in Jamaica.
The 'AI for Viksit Bharat Roadmap' and the Frontier Tech Repository were launched on 15 September 2025 under which NITI Aayog platform?
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Correct answer: D — Frontier Tech Hub
NITI Aayog launched both initiatives under its Frontier Tech Hub, which the Finance Minister likened to a honeycomb bringing together government, industry and innovators.
Which two levers does NITI Aayog's 'AI for Viksit Bharat Roadmap' highlight?
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Correct answer: A — Accelerating AI adoption across industries, and transforming R&D with generative AI
The roadmap highlights two major levers: accelerating adoption of AI across industries to enhance productivity and efficiency, and transforming R&D with generative AI.
In which event did Anandkumar Velkumar win gold at the Speed Skating World Championships 2025 to become India's first world champion in skating?
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Correct answer: B — Senior men's 1000m sprint
Velkumar won gold in the senior men's 1000m sprint in 1:24.924, a day after winning bronze in the 500m sprint.
Where were the Speed Skating World Championships 2025, at which Anandkumar Velkumar won gold, held?
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Correct answer: D — Beidaihe, China
The championships were held in Beidaihe, China, where Velkumar won the senior men's 1000m sprint on 15 September 2025.
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 0.52%
WPI inflation was 0.52% (provisional) in August 2025, turning positive after -0.19% in June and -0.58% in July.
What is the base year of the Wholesale Price Index series used for the August 2025 release?
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Correct answer: C — 2011-12
The WPI release for August 2025 uses the series with base year 2011-12.
What were India's estimated total exports (merchandise and services combined) in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — US$ 69.16 billion
Total exports in August 2025 were estimated at US$ 69.16 billion, up 9.34% from US$ 63.25 billion in August 2024; US$ 35.10 billion was merchandise exports alone.
Which merchandise export category recorded the highest growth (25.93%) among the major drivers listed for August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Electronic goods
Electronic goods exports rose 25.93%, from US$ 2.32 billion to US$ 2.93 billion; gems and jewellery grew 15.57%, drugs and pharmaceuticals 6.94% and petroleum products 6.54%.
According to the PLFS monthly bulletin, what was India's overall unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 5.1%
The overall unemployment rate declined for the second consecutive month, from 5.6% in June and 5.2% in July to 5.1% in August 2025.
The monthly estimates of the Periodic Labour Force Survey are based on which approach?
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Correct answer: B — Current Weekly Status
The PLFS monthly bulletins present LFPR, WPR and unemployment rate estimates at the all-India level following the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025, approved on 14 September 2025, replaces a manual that was last promulgated in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2009
The DPM, which regulates revenue procurement by the Defence Services, was last promulgated in 2009; the revised DPM 2025 was approved by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025 primarily governs which type of procurement by the Ministry of Defence?
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Correct answer: D — Revenue procurement of goods and services
The DPM lays down principles for all revenue procurements in the Ministry, valued at around ₹1 lakh crore in the current financial year.
Consider the following statements about liquidated damages (LD) under the Defence Procurement Manual 2025: 1. No LD will be levied during the development phase of a contract. 2. The maximum LD has been lowered to 5%, rising to 10% only in cases of inordinate delay. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: DPM 2025 introduces no LD during the development phase and a minimal 0.1% LD after the prototype is developed; maximum LD is lowered to 5%, and only for inordinate delays can it reach 10%.
Under DPM 2025, for how long can the Ministry of Defence give assured orders (in terms of quantity) to suppliers who develop items?
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Correct answer: A — Up to five years, extendable by up to five more years in special circumstances
DPM 2025 provides an assured guarantee of orders in terms of quantity for up to five years and, in special circumstances, up to another five years.
Where were the World Boxing Championships 2025, at which Minakshi Hooda and Jaismine Lamboria won gold, held?
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Correct answer: D — Liverpool, United Kingdom
The World Boxing Championships 2025 were held in Liverpool, where Minakshi won the 48kg and Jaismine the 57kg title.
In which weight category did Jaismine Lamboria win gold at the World Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 57kg
Jaismine Lamboria won the women's 57kg title, beating Poland's Julia Szeremeta 4-1; Minakshi Hooda won the 48kg title.
Whom did Minakshi Hooda defeat in the women's 48kg final at the World Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Nazym Kyzaibay of Kazakhstan
Minakshi beat Kazakhstan's Paris Olympics bronze medallist Nazym Kyzaibay 4-1 in the 48kg final; she had beaten Mongolia's Altantsetseg Lutsaikhan in the semi-final.
Consider the following statements about India's campaign at the World Boxing Championships 2025: 1. India won four medals, all of them in the women's section. 2. Nupur Sheoran won gold in the women's 80+kg category. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India won two golds (Minakshi, Jaismine), a silver and a bronze, all by women, while the men drew a blank. Statement 2 is incorrect: Nupur Sheoran won silver in the 80+kg after losing the final 3-2 to Poland's Agata Kaczmarska.
Which team defeated India in the final of the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025 on 14 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — China
Hosts China beat India 4-1 in the final in Hangzhou to win their third Women's Asia Cup title.
Who scored India's only goal in the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025 final?
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Correct answer: D — Navneet Kaur
Navneet Kaur converted a penalty corner in the first minute to give India the lead before China scored four times.
Consider the following statements about the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025: 1. India's loss in the final meant they missed direct qualification for the 2026 FIH Women's World Cup. 2. The final was played in India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: continental champions qualify directly, so China qualified and India must go through the qualifiers. Statement 2 is incorrect: the final was played at the Gongshu Canal Sports Park in Hangzhou, China.
The 2026 FIH Women's Hockey World Cup, for which China qualified by winning the Asia Cup 2025, will be co-hosted by which countries?
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Correct answer: C — Belgium and the Netherlands
The 2026 FIH Women's Hockey World Cup is to be co-hosted by Belgium and the Netherlands.
What did the Prime Minister launch at the International Conference on Gyan Bharatam on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gyan Bharatam Portal for manuscript digitisation
The PM launched the Gyan Bharatam Portal, a dedicated digital platform to accelerate manuscript digitisation, preservation and public access.
According to the PM at the Gyan Bharatam conference, India has the world's largest collection of about how many manuscripts?
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Correct answer: C — 1 crore
The PM said India today has the world's largest collection of about one crore manuscripts.
Which of the following correctly lists the four pillars of India's knowledge tradition as described by the PM at the Gyan Bharatam conference?
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Correct answer: D — Preservation, Innovation, Addition, Adaptation
The PM said India's knowledge tradition is built on four pillars: Preservation, Innovation, Addition and Adaptation.
Consider the following statements about the Gyan Bharatam initiative: 1. The first Gyan Bharatam International Conference was organised by the Ministry of Education at IIT Delhi. 2. According to the Union Home Minister, the mission will survey, document and analyse more than one crore manuscripts at a cost of ₹483 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the conference was organised by the Ministry of Culture at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, from 11 to 13 September 2025. Statement 2 is correct as stated by Amit Shah.
What was the theme of the first Gyan Bharatam International Conference held from 11 to 13 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Reclaiming India's Knowledge Legacy through Manuscript Heritage
The Ministry of Culture organised the conference on 'Reclaiming India's Knowledge Legacy through Manuscript Heritage' at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, with over 1,100 participants.
Who administered the oath of office to C.P. Radhakrishnan as Vice President of India on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — President Droupadi Murmu
President Droupadi Murmu administered the oath of office of Vice President to C.P. Radhakrishnan at Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan.
Which post did C.P. Radhakrishnan hold immediately before becoming Vice President of India?
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Correct answer: A — Governor of Maharashtra
Radhakrishnan was formerly the Governor of Maharashtra; he had earlier been Governor of Jharkhand with additional charge of Telangana and Puducherry.
From which Lok Sabha constituency was C.P. Radhakrishnan elected in 1998 and 1999?
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Correct answer: B — Coimbatore
Radhakrishnan was elected to the Lok Sabha for the first time from Coimbatore in 1998 and re-elected in 1999.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. C.P. Radhakrishnan is the 17th person to hold the office of Vice President of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Radhakrishnan took oath as the 15th Vice President and Chairman of the Rajya Sabha; 'seventeenth' refers to the number of the Vice-Presidential election held in 2025, not to the office-holder.
Who was sworn in as Prime Minister of Nepal's interim government on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sushila Karki
Former Chief Justice Sushila Karki was sworn in as interim Prime Minister, becoming Nepal's first woman Prime Minister.
For which date were Nepal's new parliamentary elections scheduled after President Paudel dissolved Parliament on Sushila Karki's recommendation in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 5 March 2026
The President's office said Parliament was dissolved on Karki's recommendation and new elections were scheduled for 5 March 2026.
Consider the following statements about Sushila Karki: 1. Before becoming Nepal's first woman Prime Minister, she had been Nepal's first woman Chief Justice. 2. India's MEA welcomed the formation of the interim government led by her, hoping it would foster peace and stability. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Karki was appointed Nepal's first woman Chief Justice in 2016, and the MEA welcomed the interim government she leads, saying it was hopeful this would help foster peace and stability.
Through which platform did the Agriculture Ministry send AI-based monsoon forecasts by SMS to about 3.8 crore farmers in 2025?
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Correct answer: B — m-Kisan
The ministry sent AI-based monsoon forecasts via SMS through m-Kisan to nearly 3.8 crore farmers across 13 states.
The AI-based monsoon forecasts sent to farmers in 2025 blended which two open-access models?
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Correct answer: C — Google's NeuralGCM and ECMWF's AIFS
The forecasts used by the ministry were a blend of Google's NeuralGCM and the ECMWF's Artificial Intelligence Forecasting System (AIFS), which outperformed other forecasts at predicting local monsoon onset.
What was India's CPI-based retail inflation (provisional) for August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 2.07%
All India CPI inflation was 2.07% (provisional) in August 2025, 46 basis points higher than in July; 0.52% was the WPI figure for August.
What was the base year of the CPI series used for the August 2025 inflation release?
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Correct answer: B — 2012
The release gives Consumer Price Index numbers on base 2012=100 for rural, urban and combined.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for August 2025: 1. Food inflation based on CFPI was negative for the third consecutive month. 2. Rural headline inflation was higher than urban headline inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: CFPI food inflation was -0.69%, negative for the third month in a row. Statement 2 is incorrect: rural inflation was 1.69% while urban inflation was 2.47%.
Which EU Commissioner addressed the 65th Annual Session of ACMA on 12 September 2025 and said India and the EU aim to finalise their FTA by year-end?
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Correct answer: A — Maroš Šefčovič
Maroš Šefčovič, EU Commissioner for Trade and Economic Security, said India and the EU were negotiating a ground-breaking FTA with unprecedented momentum and working to finalise it by year-end.
At the annual session of which industry body did Piyush Goyal speak about the India–EU FTA on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Automotive Component Manufacturers Association (ACMA)
Goyal addressed the 65th Annual Session of the Automotive Component Manufacturers Association (ACMA), saying the FTA would open new opportunities for the auto component sector.
In which Indian city did PM Modi hold talks with Mauritius PM Navinchandra Ramgoolam on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Varanasi
PM Modi welcomed PM Ramgoolam to his parliamentary constituency, Kashi (Varanasi), where the talks and joint press statement took place.
Which of the following is a grant project in India's special economic package for Mauritius announced in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — New Sir Seewoosagur Ramgoolam National Hospital
The new SSR National Hospital is among the grant projects (with an AYUSH Centre of Excellence, a veterinary school and helicopters); Motorway M4, the ATC tower and Ring Road Phase II are grant-cum-LoC projects.
India agreed in principle to assist Mauritius in developing and surveilling which area, as part of the September 2025 package?
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Correct answer: A — Chagos Marine Protected Area
On the strategic side, the two sides agreed in principle on redevelopment of a port in Mauritius and assistance in development and surveillance of the Chagos Marine Protected Area.
How much budgetary assistance did India agree in principle to extend to Mauritius in the current financial year (2025-26)?
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Correct answer: D — USD 25 million
India agreed in principle to extend budgetary assistance of USD 25 million in the current financial year.
Consider the following outcomes of the Mauritius PM's state visit to India in September 2025: 1. An agreement was signed to establish a telemetry, tracking and telecommunication station for satellites and launch vehicles. 2. NTPC will work towards a 17.5 MW floating solar PV project at Tamarind Falls. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the list of outcomes includes the space telemetry, tracking and telecommunication station agreement and an announcement to take forward a 17.5 MW floating solar PV project at Tamarind Falls, with an NTPC team to finalise an agreement with CEB.
After the September 2025 expansion, at how many airports is the Fast Track Immigration–Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP) operational?
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Correct answer: B — 13
With Lucknow, Thiruvananthapuram, Trichy, Kozhikode and Amritsar added on 11 September 2025, Amit Shah said FTI-TTP is operational at a total of 13 airports.
Which of the following airports was NOT among the five added to FTI-TTP on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jaipur
The five airports added were Lucknow, Thiruvananthapuram, Trichy, Kozhikode and Amritsar.
Which two upcoming airports does the Home Ministry plan to integrate with FTI-TTP?
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Correct answer: A — Navi Mumbai and Jewar
Amit Shah said the Ministry of Home Affairs has planned to integrate the programme with the upcoming Navi Mumbai and Jewar airports.
Where did IIM Ahmedabad open its first-ever overseas campus in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Dubai
The Crown Prince of Dubai inaugurated IIM Ahmedabad's first-ever overseas campus in Dubai on 11 September 2025.
Who inaugurated the IIM Ahmedabad campus in Dubai on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sheikh Hamdan bin Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum
The campus was inaugurated by Sheikh Hamdan bin Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum, Crown Prince of Dubai, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Defence of the UAE.
What is the maximum support per project under the ₹100 crore call for proposals for hydrogen start-ups launched in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹5 crore
The scheme provides up to ₹5 crore per project for pilots in innovative hydrogen production, storage, transport and utilisation technologies.
Consider the following statements about the National Green Hydrogen Mission: 1. It was launched in 2023 with an outlay of ₹19,744 crore. 2. R&D and innovation is one of its four pillars. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Mission was launched in 2023 with an outlay of ₹19,744 crore and rests on four pillars, namely policy and regulatory framework, demand creation, R&D and innovation, and enabling infrastructure.
By which year does India target indigenous solar cell manufacturing, as announced by the MNRE Minister in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2028
Pralhad Joshi said India targets indigenous solar cell manufacturing by 2028 and is moving towards domestic wafers and ingots.
As of September 2025, India's non-fossil fuel capacity had crossed about how much, against its 2030 target of 500 GW?
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Correct answer: D — 251.5 GW
Joshi said India has crossed 251.5 GW of non-fossil capacity, achieving over half of its 2030 target of 500 GW.
Under the ECI's polling station rationalisation reviewed in September 2025, no polling station should have more than how many electors?
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Correct answer: C — 1,200
The Commission reviewed rationalisation of polling stations to ensure that no polling station has over 1,200 electors.
The ECI's conference of Chief Electoral Officers on 10 September 2025 assessed preparedness for which exercise?
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Correct answer: B — Nationwide Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls
The Commission assessed the preparedness of the offices of CEOs of all States/UTs for the nationwide SIR exercise.
Where was the ECI's conference of Chief Electoral Officers held on 10 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — India International Institute for Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi
The third CEOs' conference of the year was held at IIIDEM in New Delhi.
World Suicide Prevention Day is observed on which date?
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Correct answer: B — 10 September
The Ministry of Education's release marked World Suicide Prevention Day on 10 September 2025.
According to NCRB's 2022 report cited by the Education Ministry, students accounted for what share of all suicide deaths in India?
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Correct answer: D — 7.6%
The ministry cited NCRB's 2022 report: 13,044 students died by suicide, accounting for 7.6% of all suicide deaths.
With which leader did PM Modi speak on 10 September 2025, condemning the violation of his country's sovereignty after attacks in its capital?
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Correct answer: D — Amir of Qatar
PM Modi spoke with Qatar's Amir Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani, expressed deep concern over the attacks in Doha and condemned the violation of Qatar's sovereignty.
During the call of 10 September 2025, PM Modi appreciated Qatar's mediation efforts in which conflict?
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Correct answer: A — Gaza
The PM appreciated Qatar's role in promoting regional peace, including its mediation efforts in Gaza to achieve a ceasefire and release of all hostages.
The CCS rules released on 10 September 2025 enable Central Government employees to choose between NPS and which scheme?
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Correct answer: C — Unified Pension Scheme (UPS)
The CCS (Implementation of the Unified Pension Scheme under the National Pension System) Rules, 2025 let employees choose between NPS and the newly introduced UPS.
At which event were the CCS (Implementation of UPS under NPS) Rules, 2025 released?
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Correct answer: A — 14th Pension Adalat at Vigyan Bhawan
Jitendra Singh released the rules during the 14th Pension Adalat held at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, on 10 September 2025.
Which Prime Minister of Nepal resigned on 9 September 2025 following youth-led 'Gen Z' protests?
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Correct answer: C — K.P. Sharma Oli
K.P. Sharma Oli resigned on 9 September 2025 after protests sparked by a social media ban turned deadly.
Which body did Prime Minister Narendra Modi chair on 9 September 2025 to discuss the developments in Nepal?
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Correct answer: A — Cabinet Committee on Security
On his return from Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, the PM chaired a meeting of the Cabinet Committee on Security to discuss the developments in Nepal.
What immediately triggered the 'Gen Z' protests in Nepal that led to the Prime Minister's resignation in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — A ban on social media platforms
Reuters and AP reported that the outrage was sparked by a ban on social media platforms, alongside anger over corruption.
Consider the following statements about the Nepal crisis of September 2025: 1. The Nepal government kept the social media ban in force even after 19 people were killed on 8 September. 2. Sushila Karki became interim Prime Minister on the same day that K.P. Sharma Oli resigned. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct: the government lifted the ban after 19 people were killed on 8 September, and Oli resigned on 9 September while Karki was sworn in on 12 September.
How many votes did C.P. Radhakrishnan secure in the Vice-Presidential election of 9 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 452
Returning Officer P.C. Mody declared Radhakrishnan elected with 452 first-preference votes; B. Sudershan Reddy received 300.
Who was the Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential election of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha
The ECI said the Returning Officer was the Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha; P.C. Mody announced the result.
Out of 781 eligible electors in the Vice-Presidential election of September 2025, how many cast their votes?
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Correct answer: B — 767
The ECI said 767 of the 781 eligible electors voted and 15 ballot papers were declared invalid, leaving 752 valid votes.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election of 2025: 1. With 15 ballots declared invalid, the majority of first-preference votes required to win was 377. 2. The certificate of election was signed by the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners on 9 September 2025, the day of the poll. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. With 752 valid votes the required majority was 377, but the ECI said the certificate of election was signed on 10 September 2025, the day after the poll.
Where was the 28th Universal Postal Congress, at which India launched the UPI–UPU Integration project, held in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Dubai
Jyotiraditya Scindia unveiled the UPI–UPU Integration project at the 28th Universal Postal Congress in Dubai, UAE.
The UPI–UPU Integration project links India's UPI with which UPU system?
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Correct answer: B — UPU Interconnection Platform (IP)
The project integrates India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) with the UPU Interconnection Platform (IP), combining the postal network's reach with UPI's speed and affordability.
How much financial support did India commit to the global postal sector during this UPU cycle, as announced at the Dubai Congress?
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Correct answer: C — USD 10 million
Scindia announced India's commitment of 10 million dollars during this cycle to channel technology into innovation, with special focus on e-commerce and digital payments.
Consider the following statements about the UPI–UPU Integration project: 1. It was developed jointly by the Department of Posts, NPCI International Payments Limited and the Universal Postal Union. 2. At the Congress, India announced its candidature for the UPU's Council of Administration and Postal Operations Council. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the project was developed by the Department of Posts, NIPL and the UPU, and Scindia announced India's candidature for the Council of Administration and the Postal Operations Council.
How many new Indian fishery establishments did the European Union list for exports, as announced in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 102
The EU listed 102 new Indian fishery establishments for export to EU member countries in 2025.
Which Indian body implements the official control mechanisms whose robustness led to the EU listing of 102 new fishery establishments?
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Correct answer: B — Export Inspection Council (EIC)
The ministry said the meetings built confidence in India's robust official control mechanisms implemented by the Export Inspection Council (EIC).
In ESIC's SPREE-2025 initiative, what does 'SPREE' stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Scheme for Promoting Registration of Employers and Employees
SPREE-2025 is the Scheme for Promoting Registration of Employers and Employees, operational till 31 December 2025.
ESIC's AMNESTY Scheme-2025 is a one-time dispute resolution scheme in force during which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1 October 2025 – 30 September 2026
The AMNESTY Scheme-2025 is in effect from 1 October 2025 to 30 September 2026 to settle issues related to damages, interest and coverage under the ESI Act.