CUET Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the total corpus of the Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0 notified on 13 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000 crore
The scheme has a total corpus of ₹10,000 crore.
Consider the following statements about Startup India FoF 2.0: 1. It builds on the Fund of Funds for Startups launched in 2016 under the Startup India Action Plan. 2. SIDBI will operationalise the scheme as the Implementation Agency from the date of notification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
The commitments under Startup India FoF 2.0 to eligible Alternative Investment Funds are spread across which Finance Commission cycles?
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Correct answer: B — 16th and 17th
The corpus is for commitments to eligible AIFs spread across the 16th and 17th Finance Commission cycles.
The 200th birth anniversary commemoration that began on 11 April 2026 honours which social reformer?
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Correct answer: A — Mahatma Jyotiba Phule
The commemoration marks the 200th birth anniversary of Mahatma Jyotiba Phule (1827–1890).
Where were floral tributes to Mahatma Jyotiba Phule offered for the first time within Parliament premises on 11 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Prerna Sthal
For the first time, floral tributes were offered at Prerna Sthal in the Parliament House Complex.
Consider the following statements about the Phule 200th birth anniversary commemoration: 1. It is guided by a High-Level Committee chaired by the Prime Minister. 2. It was approved by a National Implementation Committee chaired by the Union Home Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: a 126-member High-Level Committee chaired by the PM guides it, and the NIC chaired by the Home Minister approved it on 6 April 2026.
Which organisation is the nodal agency for the Mahatma Jyotiba Phule 200th birth anniversary commemorative initiative?
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Correct answer: D — Dr. Ambedkar Foundation
The Dr. Ambedkar Foundation, Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, is the nodal agency, with activities anchored at the Dr. Ambedkar International Centre.
What is the notified threshold value for haematite iron ore, below which mined material can be discarded as waste?
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Correct answer: C — 45% Fe (min.)
The notified threshold value for haematite iron ore is 45% Fe (min.).
Under the Mineral Concession (Third Amendment) Rules, 2026, the average sale price of haematite iron ore of 35% to below 45% Fe grade will be what percentage of the ASP of the 45% to below 51% Fe grade?
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Correct answer: B — 75%
For 35% to below 45% Fe, the ASP is 75% of the ASP of the 45% to below 51% Fe grade; for below 35% Fe, it is 50%.
Consider the following statements about the April 2026 amendment to the Mineral Concession rules: 1. Banded Haematite Quartzite (BHQ) and Banded Haematite Jasper (BHJ) are covered by the new ASP methodology. 2. If processing of run-of-mine lowers its economic value, royalty is charged on lumps and fines after initial screening of unprocessed run-of-mine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the Ministry of Mines.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 amends 784 provisions across how many Central Acts?
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Correct answer: B — 79
The Commerce Ministry said 784 provisions across 79 Central Acts administered by 23 ministries are amended.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026: 1. The Lok Sabha Select Committee that examined its 2025 predecessor was chaired by Tejasvi Surya. 2. Of the 784 provisions amended, 717 were amended to facilitate ease of living. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The 717 provisions were decriminalised to promote ease of doing business; 67 provisions were amended for ease of living.
On which date did the Rajya Sabha pass the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 2 April 2026
PRS Bill Track records passage by the Lok Sabha on 1 April and by the Rajya Sabha on 2 April 2026; it was introduced on 27 March.
What was the value of India's defence exports in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹38,424 crore
The Ministry of Defence said defence exports touched an all-time high of ₹38,424 crore in FY 2025-26; ₹23,622 crore was the FY 2024-25 figure.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports in FY 2025-26: 1. Defence Public Sector Undertakings contributed a larger share than the private sector. 2. India exported defence equipment to more than 80 countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: DPSUs contributed 54.84% (₹21,071 crore) against the private sector's 45.16%, and exports went to more than 80 countries.
As per the Defence Ministry, how many defence exporters were there in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — 145
The number of exporters rose to 145 from 128, a 13.3% rise.
Who was the first to complete self-enumeration when Census 2027 began on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — President Droupadi Murmu
The Home Ministry said the exercise began with the enumeration of President Droupadi Murmu, upholding the tradition of starting with the First Citizen.
Between which dates will the Houselisting and Housing Census phase of Census 2027 be conducted across the country?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April – 30 September 2026
The HLO phase runs nationally from 1 April to 30 September 2026; 16 April–15 May is the houselisting window in the first set of states/UTs.
How many questions have been notified for Phase I (Houselisting and Housing Census) of Census 2027?
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Correct answer: C — 33
A total of 33 questions for Phase I were notified in January 2026; 16 is the number of regional languages for self-enumeration.
On which date did the Income-tax Act, 2025 receive the President's assent?
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Correct answer: C — 21 August 2025
The Finance Ministry said the Bill was passed by Parliament on 12 August 2025 and received assent on 21 August 2025; the Rules were notified on 20 March 2026 and the Act came into force on 1 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about the Income-tax Act, 2025: 1. It replaces the Income-tax Act, 1961. 2. It alters the underlying tax policy to introduce new tax rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The ministry said the Act simplifies the law without altering the underlying tax policy.
Which body notified the Income-tax Rules, 2026 to operationalise the Income-tax Act, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Central Board of Direct Taxes
The Income-tax Rules, 2026 were notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on 20 March 2026.
From which date did the first phase of Census 2027 begin, as announced on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
The Registrar General said the first phase of Census 2027 would begin from 1 April 2026.
Census 2027 is which census in India's series, and which since Independence?
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Correct answer: B — 16th in series, 8th since Independence
Census 2027 will be the 16th in the series and the 8th since Independence; the last census was in 2011.
What is the reference date of Census 2027 for most of India?
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Correct answer: C — 00:00 hours, 1 March 2027
The reference date is 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027; for Ladakh, snow-bound J&K, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh it is 1 October 2026.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. It is the first census in India to be conducted digitally, with a self-enumeration option. 2. Enumeration of castes will be done during the first phase (House Listing). 3. The self-enumeration portal and mobile app are available in 16 languages. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Census 2027 is the first digital census with self-enumeration, available in 16 languages; caste enumeration will be done in the second phase (Population Enumeration), not the first.
The 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) of the WTO, which concluded on 30 March 2026, was held in:
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Correct answer: A — Yaoundé, Cameroon
MC14 was held in Yaoundé, Cameroon, and concluded on 30 March 2026.
Who led the Indian delegation at the WTO's MC14?
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Correct answer: D — Piyush Goyal
Union Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal led the Indian delegation to MC14.
At MC14, India did not agree to incorporating which agreement into the WTO framework as an Annex 4 agreement?
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Correct answer: A — Investment Facilitation for Development Agreement
India did not agree to incorporation of the Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement as an Annex 4 agreement.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of WTO MC14: 1. Members reached convergence on extending the moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions. 2. Ministers agreed to continue fisheries subsidies negotiations with the aim of making recommendations to MC15. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Convergence could not be reached on the e-commerce moratorium; ministers agreed to continue fisheries subsidies negotiations aiming at recommendations to MC15.
Who was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Nepal on 27 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Balendra Shah
Balendra (Balen) Shah of the Rastriya Swatantra Party was sworn in by President Ramchandra Paudel.
Balendra Shah, who became Nepal's Prime Minister in March 2026, belongs to which party?
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Correct answer: B — Rastriya Swatantra Party
Shah is a senior leader of the Rastriya Swatantra Party (RSP), which won 182 of 275 seats on 5 March 2026.
Consider the following statements about Nepal's new Prime Minister Balendra Shah: 1. He was earlier the Mayor of Kathmandu. 2. He defeated K. P. Sharma Oli in Jhapa-5. 3. He is the first Prime Minister of Nepal from the Madhesi community. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
Shah was Kathmandu mayor from May 2022 to January 2026, won Jhapa-5 defeating Oli, and is the first Madhesi PM.
By how much did the Centre cut excise duty on petrol and diesel on 27 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10 per litre
Excise duty was reduced by ₹10 per litre on both petrol and diesel with immediate effect.
Consider the following statements about the excise duty cut of 27 March 2026: 1. Retail pump prices of petrol and diesel were reduced by the same amount. 2. The cut offsets part of the under-recoveries of public sector oil marketing companies. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Retail pump prices did not change. The reduction directly reduces the under-recoveries absorbed by IOCL, BPCL and HPCL.
According to the government (March 2026), international crude prices had risen in about a month from roughly USD 70 per barrel to around:
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Correct answer: B — USD 122
Crude rose from approximately USD 70 to around USD 122 per barrel – nearly 75% in under four weeks.
The Defence Acquisition Council on 27 March 2026 granted Acceptance of Necessity for proposals worth about:
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Correct answer: C — ₹2.38 lakh crore
The DAC granted AoN for proposals worth about ₹2.38 lakh crore. ₹6.73 lakh crore is the total AoN for FY 2025-26.
The Medium Transport Aircraft cleared by the DAC in March 2026 are meant to replace which IAF transport fleets?
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Correct answer: D — AN-32 and IL-76
The Medium Transport Aircraft will replace the transport fleet of AN-32 and IL-76.
Match the service with the item cleared by the DAC on 27 March 2026: 1. Indian Army – a. Heavy Duty Air Cushion Vehicles 2. Indian Air Force – b. Dhanush Gun System 3. Indian Coast Guard – c. S-400 missile system
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Correct answer: A — 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Dhanush Gun System was cleared for the Army, S-400 for the Air Force and Heavy Duty Air Cushion Vehicles for the Coast Guard.
According to the PLFS Annual Report 2025, the unemployment rate (usual status, age 15+) in 2025 was:
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Correct answer: B — 3.1%
The unemployment rate in usual status (ps+ss) for persons aged 15+ was 3.1% for both men and women in 2025.
As per PLFS 2025, the youth (15–29 years) unemployment rate in usual status declined to:
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Correct answer: B — 9.9%
Youth unemployment fell to 9.9% in 2025 from 10.3% in 2024. 8.3% is rural youth and 13.6% urban youth.
Consider the following findings of the PLFS Annual Report 2025: 1. Female LFPR (age 15+) was 40.0%. 2. The share of regular wage/salaried workers declined compared to 2024. 3. The share of self-employed persons fell to 56.2%. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Female LFPR was 40.0% and self-employment fell to 56.2%. Regular wage/salaried share rose to 23.6% from 22.4%, so statement 2 is wrong.
What is the total outlay of the Modified UDAN scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹28,840 crore
Modified UDAN has a total outlay of ₹28,840 crore for FY 2026-27 to FY 2035-36. ₹12,159 crore is the airport-development component.
Consider the following about the Modified UDAN scheme (2026): 1. It proposes to develop 100 airports from existing unserved airstrips. 2. It proposes 200 modern helipads focused on priority and aspirational districts. 3. It will run for five years from FY 2026-27. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
The scheme runs for ten years (FY 2026-27 to 2035-36), so statement 3 is wrong; 100 airports and 200 helipads are both components.
Under Modified UDAN, aircraft are to be procured from HAL for which two operators?
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Correct answer: A — Pawan Hans and Alliance Air
Two HAL Dhruv helicopters will go to Pawan Hans and two HAL Dornier aircraft to Alliance Air, under the Atmanirbhar Bharat component.
Under its NDC for 2031-2035 approved in March 2026, India aims to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 2035, from the 2005 level, by:
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Correct answer: C — 47%
The new NDC targets a 47% reduction in emissions intensity of GDP by 2035 over 2005. 33-35% was the 2015 NDC target for 2030.
Consider the following about India's NDC for 2031-2035: 1. It targets 60% of cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil sources by 2035. 2. It targets an additional carbon sink of 3.5-4.0 billion tonnes of CO₂ equivalent through forest and tree cover by 2035 from the 2005 level. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are targets of the NDC 2031-35, alongside the 47% emissions-intensity target.
According to the government (March 2026), what share of India's installed electric power capacity was from non-fossil sources in February 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 52.57%
Non-fossil capacity reached 52.57% in February 2026, meeting the updated NDC target five years ahead of the timeline; the new target is 60% by 2035.
How many entries did India record in the global top 50 of the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 27
India recorded a record 27 top-50 entries in 2026, more than double the 12 in both 2024 and 2025.
In the QS Subject Rankings 2026, India's highest-ranked subject (21st globally) was Mineral & Mining Engineering at:
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Correct answer: A — ISM Dhanbad
ISM Dhanbad's Mineral & Mining Engineering was ranked 21st – India's highest-ranked subject. IIM Ahmedabad was also 21st in Business & Management Studies and Marketing.
Consider the following about India in the QS Subject Rankings 2026: 1. 99 Indian institutions featured, with 599 subject entries. 2. IIT Delhi was the leading Indian institution with six top-50 entries. 3. The rankings covered 55 subjects. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per the Ministry of Education release on the rankings released on 25 March 2026.
As per ASUSE 2025, the estimated number of unincorporated non-agricultural establishments in India was about:
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Correct answer: C — 7.92 crore
Establishments rose from 7.34 crore in ASUSE 2023-24 to 7.92 crore in ASUSE 2025, about 7.97% growth.
In ASUSE 2025, which sector recorded the highest growth in Gross Value Added over ASUSE 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Trade
GVA growth was led by trade (16.77%), followed by manufacturing (8.52%) and other services (7.36%). Construction is excluded from ASUSE.
Consider the following about ASUSE 2025: 1. The share of establishments using the internet rose to 39.4%. 2. Women-owned proprietary establishments declined compared with ASUSE 2023-24. 3. The survey covers construction along with manufacturing, trade and other services. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Women-owned proprietary establishments rose from 26.2% to 27%, and ASUSE excludes construction; only statement 1 is correct.
What is the theme of World TB Day 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Yes! We Can End TB!
The 2026 theme is 'Yes! We Can End TB!'. World TB Day is observed every year on 24 March.
According to the Health Ministry (March 2026), by how much did TB incidence in India decline over the past decade?
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Correct answer: C — 21%
TB incidence fell 21% and TB mortality 25% over the past decade, both outpacing global averages.
Consider the following launched or reported on World TB Day 2026: 1. A 100-day TB Mukt Bharat campaign covering 1.58 lakh villages and urban wards. 2. An AI-enabled chatbot named 'Khushi' in the TB Mukt Bharat App. 3. About 10.9 lakh asymptomatic TB patients detected since the intensified Abhiyaan began in December 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. Of 32.65 lakh patients detected after screening over 20 crore people, about 10.9 lakh had no classical symptoms.
According to the NSO CAPEX survey released in March 2026, aggregate provisional private corporate capex for 2025-26 is estimated at about:
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Correct answer: D — ₹11.44 lakh crore
Provisional capex for 2025-26 is ₹11,43,879 crore; ₹9,55,281 crore is the investment intention for 2026-27.
As per the NSO CAPEX survey, the largest source of financing for private corporate capex in 2025-26 is:
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Correct answer: B — Internal accruals
About 65.35% of 2025-26 capex is sourced from internal accruals, while 23.25% comes from domestic debt.
In the NSO CAPEX survey, the 'realisation ratio' for 2024-25 was 96.3%. This means:
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Correct answer: D — Actual capex per enterprise was 96.3% of what was planned
Estimated capex per enterprise for 2024-25 was ₹180.2 crore and actual capex ₹173.5 crore – a realisation ratio of 96.3%.
The RoDTEP scheme, whose rates were restored in March 2026, relates to:
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Correct answer: D — Remission of duties and taxes on exported products
RoDTEP stands for Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products; its rates and value caps were restored from 23 March 2026.
By the decision of 23 March 2026, RoDTEP rates were restored to the levels in force on:
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Correct answer: C — 22 February 2026
The restored rates are those in force on 22 February 2026, withdrawing the 50% restriction imposed on 23 February 2026.
Consider the following about the RoDTEP restoration of March 2026: 1. It withdrew a 50% restriction on RoDTEP rates imposed in February 2026. 2. It applies only to exports bound for West Asian countries. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The restoration covers all eligible export products, not only West Asia-bound exports; it withdrew the 50% restriction of Notification No. 60/2025-26.
On 22 March 2026 Narendra Modi surpassed whose record to become the longest-serving head of a government in India?
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Correct answer: D — Pawan Kumar Chamling
Modi passed the 8,930-day record of former Sikkim Chief Minister Pawan Kumar Chamling.
The record surpassed by Narendra Modi on 22 March 2026 was of how many days as head of a government?
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Correct answer: B — 8,930 days
Chamling's record was 8,930 days; Modi reached 8,931 days.
Consider the following about the record set on 22 March 2026: 1. The count includes Narendra Modi's tenure as Chief Minister of Gujarat. 2. The previous record-holder was a former Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The 8,931 days cover Modi's time as Gujarat CM and then as PM; the previous record-holder, Pawan Kumar Chamling, was Chief Minister of Sikkim.
Which body, chaired by the Prime Minister, met on 22 March 2026 to review mitigating measures for the West Asia conflict?
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Correct answer: A — Cabinet Committee on Security
The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS), chaired by PM Narendra Modi, reviewed the situation and mitigating measures.
At the CCS meeting of 22 March 2026, the Prime Minister directed the creation of:
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Correct answer: D — A group of Ministers and Secretaries working in a whole-of-government approach
The PM directed that a group of Ministers and Secretaries be created to work dedicatedly in a whole-of-government approach, with sectoral groups consulting stakeholders.
Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0, whose operational guidelines were released on 22 March 2026, has been extended till:
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Correct answer: A — December 2028
The Cabinet approved extension of Jal Jeevan Mission till December 2028, with focus on sustainability and service delivery.
Jal Mahotsav 2026 was a 15-day campaign held between which two days?
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Correct answer: D — International Women's Day and World Water Day
Jal Mahotsav 2026 ran from 8 March (International Women's Day) to 22 March (World Water Day).
Consider the following about the release of JJM 2.0 guidelines on 22 March 2026: 1. The guidelines were released by the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation. 2. The 5th Sujal Gram Samvad held alongside involved communities from 5 villages of 5 states. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The guidelines were released by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, so statement 1 is wrong; the 5th Sujal Gram Samvad involved 5 villages of 5 states.
Through which entity does CGSMFI-2.0, introduced in March 2026, provide credit guarantee cover?
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Correct answer: B — National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company
CGSMFI-2.0 provides guarantee cover to banks and FIs through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC).
Under CGSMFI-2.0, what is the guarantee coverage for loans to small NBFC-MFIs/MFIs?
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Correct answer: D — 80% of the amount in default
Coverage is 80% for small, 75% for medium and 70% for large NBFC-MFIs/MFIs.
Consider the following about CGSMFI-2.0: 1. It is valid till 30 June 2026 or until loans of ₹20,000 crore are guaranteed, whichever is earlier. 2. MFIs must on-lend to small borrowers at 1% below their average lending rate of the past six months. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the scheme runs till 30 June 2026 or ₹20,000 crore of guaranteed loans, and on-lending is capped at 1% below the six-month average rate.
Prakriti 2026, at which the Indian Carbon Market Portal was launched, was organised by:
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Correct answer: D — Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Prakriti 2026, the International Conference on Carbon Markets, was organised by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency.
According to the Power Minister on 21 March 2026, GEI targets have been notified for about how many obligated entities under the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme?
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Correct answer: B — About 490
GEI targets have been notified for nearly 490 obligated entities across seven energy-intensive sectors.
Consider the following about the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme as described on 21 March 2026: 1. It has nine notified methodologies on the offset side. 2. Compliance targets cover obligated entities across twelve energy-intensive sectors. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
There are nine notified methodologies; compliance targets cover about 490 entities across seven, not twelve, energy-intensive sectors.
The National Dental Commission, which came into effect on 19 March 2026, replaced:
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Correct answer: D — Dental Council of India
The NDC and its three autonomous boards replace the Dental Council of India, which is dissolved from 19 March 2026.
Who was appointed Chairperson of the National Dental Commission in March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Sanjay Tewari
Dr Sanjay Tewari is the Chairperson of the NDC; Dr Janakiram heads the education board and Lt Gen (Retd) Sahoo the assessment board.
Who heads the Dental Assessment and Rating Board under the National Dental Commission?
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Correct answer: B — Lt Gen (Retd) Nanda Kishore Sahoo
Lt Gen (Retd) Nanda Kishore Sahoo is President of the Dental Assessment and Rating Board; Dr Himanshu Aeran is its Whole Time Member.
Consider the following about the National Dental Commission (NDC): 1. With the NDC Act in force from 19 March 2026, the Dentists Act, 1948 stands repealed. 2. The NDC has four autonomous boards, including a separate Dental Research Board. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the NDC has three autonomous boards – UG & PG Dental Education, Dental Assessment and Rating, and Ethics and Dental Registration.
Which body is the nodal and implementing agency for the RELIEF export intervention approved in March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ECGC Ltd
ECGC Ltd has been designated the nodal and implementing agency for verification, claim processing, disbursement and monitoring under RELIEF.
RELIEF, approved on 19 March 2026 to help exporters amid West Asia disruption, is an intervention under:
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Correct answer: D — Export Promotion Mission
RELIEF (Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation) is an intervention under the Export Promotion Mission (EPM).
What is the approved financial outlay for RELIEF under the Export Promotion Mission?
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Correct answer: A — ₹497 crore
RELIEF will be implemented under the Export Promotion Mission with an approved outlay of ₹497 crore.
Consider the following about RELIEF (March 2026): 1. ECGC-insured consignments shipped between 14 February and 15 March 2026 can get up to 100% risk cover over and above existing ECGC cover. 2. Non-ECGC-insured MSME exporters can get full reimbursement of freight surcharges with no ceiling. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: non-insured MSME exporters get partial reimbursement of up to 50%, capped at ₹50 lakh per exporter.
What is the outlay of the Small Hydro Power Development Scheme (FY 2026-27 to 2030-31) approved in March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2,584.60 crore
The Cabinet approved the SHP Development Scheme with an outlay of ₹2,584.60 crore for about 1,500 MW.
The Small Hydro Power Development Scheme (2026-31) supports projects of what capacity range?
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Correct answer: A — 1–25 MW
The scheme supports small hydro projects of between 1 and 25 MW capacity.
Consider the following about the Small Hydro Power Development Scheme (2026-31): 1. In North Eastern states and international border districts, central assistance is ₹3.6 crore per MW or 30% of project cost, whichever is lower, capped at ₹30 crore per project. 2. The scheme aims at about 1,500 MW of small hydro capacity. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet decision of 18 March 2026.
BHAVYA, approved by the Union Cabinet on 18 March 2026, stands for:
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna
BHAVYA is the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna, approved with ₹33,660 crore for 100 plug-and-play industrial parks.
What allocation has been approved for the BHAVYA scheme for 100 plug-and-play industrial parks?
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Correct answer: A — ₹33,660 crore
The Cabinet approved BHAVYA with an allocation of ₹33,660 crore.
Under BHAVYA, financial support for core, value-added and social infrastructure is available up to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹1 crore per acre
Financial support of up to ₹1 crore per acre will be provided for core, value-added and social infrastructure.
Consider the following about the BHAVYA scheme: 1. Industrial parks ranging from 100 to 1,000 acres will be taken up. 2. Projects will be selected on a first-come, first-served basis. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: projects will be selected through a challenge mode.
India's total exports (merchandise and services) during April–February 2025-26 are estimated at:
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Correct answer: D — US$ 790.86 billion
Total exports for April–February 2025-26 are estimated at US$ 790.86 billion, up 5.79%; US$ 900.51 billion is the estimate of total imports.
Which sector led India's merchandise export growth in February 2026, rising 12.90% to US$ 10.36 billion?
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Correct answer: D — Engineering goods
Engineering goods exports rose 12.90% from US$ 9.17 billion in February 2025 to US$ 10.36 billion in February 2026.
Consider the following about India's trade data for February 2026: 1. Merchandise exports in February 2026 were higher than in February 2025. 2. India recorded an overall (merchandise plus services) trade deficit in February 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: merchandise exports were US$ 36.61 billion against US$ 36.91 billion in February 2025. Statement 2 is correct: the overall trade balance was –US$ 3.96 billion.