CLAT Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
In how many phases will the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election be held, as announced by the ECI on 15 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Two
West Bengal votes in two phases, on 23 April and 29 April 2026; Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry vote in a single phase.
On which date will votes be counted for the 2026 Assembly elections in Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Puducherry?
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Correct answer: D — 4 May 2026
Counting for all five Assemblies is scheduled for 4 May 2026.
Which of the following Assemblies going to polls in 2026 has the largest number of seats?
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Correct answer: D — West Bengal
West Bengal has 294 seats, against 234 in Tamil Nadu, 140 in Kerala, 126 in Assam and 30 in Puducherry.
For the 2026 Assembly elections, the Election Commission fixed the maximum number of electors per polling station at:
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Correct answer: B — 1,200
The ECI press note of 15 March 2026 says there shall be a maximum of 1,200 electors in a polling station.
Consider the following about the 2026 Assembly elections announced on 15 March 2026: 1. The ECI conducts them in exercise of powers under Article 324 read with Article 172(1) of the Constitution and Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into force only after the formal notification of each phase. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct as per the ECI press note. Statement 2 is wrong: the Model Code of Conduct came into effect immediately from the announcement of the schedule.
Along with the 2026 Assembly elections, the ECI announced bye-elections to how many Assembly constituencies in Goa, Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Nagaland and Tripura?
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Correct answer: B — Eight
Bye-elections were announced for 8 Assembly constituencies spread across these six States.
From which city did PM Modi release the 22nd instalment of PM-KISAN on 13 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Guwahati
The 22nd instalment was released from the Jyoti-Bishnu International Cultural Centre in Guwahati, Assam.
About how much money was transferred under the 22nd instalment of PM-KISAN, and to how many farmers?
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Correct answer: B — ₹18,640 crore to 9.32 crore farmers
About ₹18,640 crore went to more than 9.32 crore farmers; ₹19,480 crore was the value of the Guwahati development projects launched the same day.
Consider the following statements about PM-KISAN: 1. Eligible farmer families receive ₹6,000 a year in three equal instalments of ₹2,000. 2. The Union Budget 2026–27 allocated ₹60,000 crore to the scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the scheme pays ₹6,000 a year in three instalments of ₹2,000 each through DBT, and Budget 2026–27 provided ₹60,000 crore for it, as per the PIB backgrounder.
Roughly how many women farmers benefited from the 22nd instalment of PM-KISAN?
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Correct answer: A — 2.15 crore
The PIB backgrounder says more than 2.15 crore of the 9.32 crore beneficiaries were women.
According to the PIB backgrounder on the 22nd instalment, how much has been disbursed under PM-KISAN since its launch?
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Correct answer: D — More than ₹4.27 lakh crore
The backgrounder put cumulative transfers at more than ₹4.27 lakh crore, making PM-KISAN one of the world's largest DBT schemes.
What was India's all-India CPI (combined) inflation for February 2026, as released on 12 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 3.21%
February 2026 CPI inflation was 3.21% (provisional), up from 2.74% in January; 3.47% was food inflation.
Which item recorded the highest year-on-year inflation in the February 2026 CPI?
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Correct answer: A — Silver jewellery
Silver jewellery led at 160.84%, followed by gold/diamond/platinum jewellery at 48.16% and copra at 46.16%.
Consider the following statements about India's new CPI series (base 2024=100): 1. Its item basket and weights are based on the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2023–24. 2. It retains the earlier structure of six broad groups instead of adopting COICOP 2018. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the new series adopts the UN's COICOP 2018, with 12 divisions and 358 items, replacing the earlier six broad groups.
Which items saw the steepest price falls in the February 2026 CPI?
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Correct answer: D — Garlic, onion and potato
Garlic (−31.09%), onion (−28.20%) and potato (−18.46%) had the lowest inflation; tomato was among the highest at 45.29%.
According to Hardeep Singh Puri's statement of 12 March 2026, by how much was India's LPG production raised in five days through refinery directives?
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Correct answer: C — 28%
Puri said the LPG Control Order of 8 March made refineries maximise LPG yields, raising production by 28% in five days.
What share of India's crude imports was now coming from non-Hormuz routes, as per the Petroleum Minister on 12 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — About 70%
Non-Hormuz sourcing rose to about 70% of crude imports from 55% before the conflict; about 45% used to transit Hormuz.
Consider the following about the control orders mentioned by the Petroleum Minister on 12 March 2026: 1. The Natural Gas Control Order of 9 March 2026 was issued under the Essential Commodities Act. 2. The LPG Control Order of 8 March 2026 directed refineries to channel propane and butane streams to the three oil marketing companies. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the gas order was issued under the Essential Commodities Act and set a priority sequence with homes and CNG first, and the LPG order sent C3 and C4 streams to the three OMCs for domestic cooking gas.
Roughly what share of the world's crude oil passes through the Strait of Hormuz, as cited in the Lok Sabha on 12 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 20%
Puri said about 20% of the world's crude, 20% of its natural gas and 20% of its LPG flow through the Strait of Hormuz.
How was the resolution seeking the removal of Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla disposed of on 11 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Rejected by voice vote
After nearly 13 hours of debate, the Lok Sabha rejected the resolution by voice vote amid Opposition protests.
Who was in the Chair of the Lok Sabha during the debate and vote on the resolution to remove Speaker Om Birla on 11 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Jagdambika Pal
Jagdambika Pal presided; a Speaker cannot preside while a resolution for his own removal is under consideration.
Consider the following statements about the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha under Article 94(c): 1. The resolution must be passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. 2. At least 14 days' notice must be given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Article 94(c) requires a majority of all the then members of the House (an effective majority, not just those present and voting), and its proviso requires at least 14 days' notice.
Consider the following about the Speaker while a resolution for his removal is under consideration in the Lok Sabha (Article 96): 1. The Speaker cannot preside over the sitting. 2. The Speaker has the right to speak in the House. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: under Article 96 the Speaker does not preside while a removal resolution is under consideration, but may speak and take part in the proceedings.
Before 2026, in which year was a motion for the removal of a Lok Sabha Speaker last moved, against Balram Jakhar?
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Correct answer: C — 1987
Earlier motions were moved against G. V. Mavalankar (1954), Hukam Singh (1966) and Balram Jakhar (1987); Amit Shah noted the 2026 motion came after nearly four decades.
Up to when did the Union Cabinet extend the Jal Jeevan Mission on 10 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — December 2028
The Cabinet extended JJM up to December 2028 and restructured it as JJM 2.0.
What is the enhanced total outlay of the Jal Jeevan Mission approved by the Cabinet on 10 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹8.69 lakh crore
The total outlay is ₹8.69 lakh crore, of which central assistance is ₹3.59 lakh crore.
What is the name of the uniform national digital framework under JJM 2.0 that assigns every village a Sujal Gaon / Service Area ID?
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Correct answer: D — Sujalam Bharat
'Sujalam Bharat' is the digital framework; 'Jal Arpan' is the handover of schemes and 'Jal Utsav' the annual community review.
Consider the following statements about the Jal Jeevan Mission: 1. When it began in 2019, about 17% of rural households (3.23 crore) had tap water connections. 2. Under JJM 2.0, a gram panchayat may declare itself 'Har Ghar Jal' only after in-village operation and maintenance arrangements are in place. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the 2019 baseline was 3.23 crore rural households (17%), and under the restructured mission a GP certifies 'Har Ghar Jal' only once the State has set up in-village O&M.
Up to what level of non-controlling beneficial ownership from land-border countries will be allowed under the automatic route after the Cabinet decision of 10 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 10%
Investors with non-controlling beneficial ownership from land-border countries of up to 10% will be permitted under the automatic route, with reporting to DPIIT.
Within how many days will proposals from land-border countries in specified sectors such as electronic components and polysilicon be decided, under the changes approved on 10 March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 60 days
Proposals in capital goods, electronic capital goods, electronic components, polysilicon and ingot-wafer will be processed and decided within 60 days.
The definition of 'Beneficial Owner' adopted in the amended FDI policy for land-border countries is drawn from which rules?
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Correct answer: D — Prevention of Money Laundering Rules, 2005
The amendment uses the definition and criteria of Beneficial Ownership under the Prevention of Money Laundering Rules, 2005, applied at the investor-entity level.
Consider the following statements about Press Note 3 (2020): 1. It was issued on 17 April 2020 to curb opportunistic takeovers of Indian companies during the COVID-19 pandemic. 2. Under it, an entity of a country sharing a land border with India can invest only under the government route. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: PN3 (2020), dated 17 April 2020, was issued to curb opportunistic takeovers during COVID-19, and it put all investment from land-border-country entities, or where the beneficial owner is from such a country, under the government route.
Under the 10 March 2026 changes, who may revise the list of specified sectors eligible for 60-day decisions on land-border-country investment?
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Correct answer: A — A Committee of Secretaries under the Cabinet Secretary
The Committee of Secretaries under the Cabinet Secretary may revise the list of specified sectors.
What is the estimated wheat production for 2025–26 according to the Second Advance Estimates released on 10 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 1,202.10 lakh tonnes
Wheat is estimated at 1,202.10 LMT, up 22.65 LMT from 1,179.45 LMT last year; 1,239.28 LMT is Kharif rice.
Which crop recorded record production in both the Kharif and Rabi seasons in the Second Advance Estimates for 2025–26?
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Correct answer: A — Maize
Kharif maize is a record 302.47 LMT and Rabi maize a record 159.03 LMT.
Which pulse has the largest estimated output in the Second Advance Estimates for 2025–26?
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Correct answer: D — Gram
Gram is estimated at 117.92 LMT, far above tur (34.55 LMT) and lentil (17.33 LMT).
Consider the following statements about the Second Advance Estimates of crop production for 2025–26: 1. They cover the Kharif, Rabi and summer seasons. 2. Yield estimates are based on Crop Cutting Experiments, previous trends and other factors. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the Second Advance Estimates cover only Kharif and Rabi; the summer season will be included in the Third Advance Estimates. Statement 2 is correct.
Who was chosen as Iran's new Supreme Leader in March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Mojtaba Khamenei
The Assembly of Experts chose Mojtaba Khamenei, son of the late Ali Khamenei, on 8 March 2026.
Which Iranian body chose the new Supreme Leader in March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Assembly of Experts
The Assembly of Experts, a body of 88 clerics, chose Mojtaba Khamenei as Supreme Leader.
How many members does Iran's Assembly of Experts, which chose the Supreme Leader in March 2026, have?
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Correct answer: C — 88
Reuters and Al Jazeera describe the Assembly of Experts as an 88-member body of clerics.
Consider the following statements about Iran's leadership change in March 2026: 1. The Assembly of Experts described Mojtaba Khamenei as the third Leader of the Islamic Republic of Iran. 2. Mojtaba Khamenei was chosen by Iran's Guardian Council. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Assembly's statement called him 'the third Leader'; he was chosen by the Assembly of Experts, not the Guardian Council.
Janaushadhi Diwas, whose 8th edition was observed in 2026, falls on which date?
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Correct answer: B — 7 March
The 8th Janaushadhi Diwas was observed on 7 March 2026, closing Janaushadhi Saptah 2026.
Which body implements the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP)?
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Correct answer: A — Pharmaceuticals and Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI)
PMBI, under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, runs PMBJP and organised Janaushadhi Saptah 2026.
What target has the government set for the number of Jan Aushadhi Kendras by March 2027?
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Correct answer: C — 25,000
Over 18,000 Kendras are open; the target is 25,000 by March 2027 through a franchise-based model.
Janaushadhi Suvidha oxo-biodegradable sanitary napkins are sold at what price per pad?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1
Suvidha napkins, introduced in 2019, are priced at ₹1 per pad.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana: 1. Medicines are procured only from manufacturers compliant with WHO Good Manufacturing Practices, and each batch is tested at NABL-accredited laboratories. 2. Kendra operators receive a trade margin of 20% on the MRP of each drug (excluding taxes). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PIB backgrounder: WHO-GMP sourcing with NABL batch testing, and a 20% trade margin for operators.
Who secured the first rank in the UPSC Civil Services Examination 2025, whose result was declared on 6 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Anuj Agnihotri
Anuj Agnihotri, an MBBS graduate of AIIMS Jodhpur, topped with Medical Science as his optional subject.
How many candidates were recommended for appointment in the Civil Services Examination 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 958
UPSC recommended 958 candidates (659 men and 299 women); 2,736 had qualified for the Personality Test.
What was the optional subject of Anuj Agnihotri, the CSE 2025 topper?
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Correct answer: D — Medical Science
Anuj Agnihotri qualified with Medical Science as his optional subject.
Consider the following statements about the CSE 2025 result: 1. The top 25 candidates include 11 women. 2. The top five candidates include one woman. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the top 25 have 11 women and 14 men, and the top five have one woman (Rajeshwari Suve M, rank 2) and four men.
The Union Public Service Commission, which conducts the Civil Services Examination, is established under which Article of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: A — Article 315
Article 315 provides for a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each State. Article 148 is the CAG, 280 the Finance Commission and 324 the Election Commission.
What are the names of the Census-2027 mascots unveiled on 5 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Pragati and Vikas
The mascots are 'Pragati' (female enumerator) and 'Vikas' (male enumerator).
What is the reference date for Census-2027 for most States and Union Territories?
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Correct answer: C — 1 March 2027
The reference date is 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027, except Ladakh and snow-bound areas of J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand (1 October 2026).
Which organisation developed the digital platforms soft-launched for Census-2027?
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Correct answer: D — C-DAC
The Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) developed the four digital platforms.
Consider the following statements about Census-2027: 1. Respondents can self-enumerate online in 16 languages before the door-to-door survey. 2. The caste-related question will be asked in Phase 1 (Houselisting and Housing Census). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The caste-related question will be included in Phase 2 (Population Enumeration, February 2027), not in the houselisting phase.
Who was the chief guest and delivered the inaugural keynote at the 11th Raisina Dialogue on 5 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Alexander Stubb
Finnish President Alexander Stubb was chief guest and gave the inaugural keynote; PM Modi inaugurated the Dialogue.
During President Stubb's visit, India–Finland relations were elevated to which status?
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Correct answer: A — Strategic Partnership in Digitalization and Sustainability
The two countries elevated ties to a 'Strategic Partnership in Digitalization and Sustainability'.
By which year do India and Finland aim to double their bilateral trade?
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Correct answer: C — 2030
The two sides aim to double bilateral trade by 2030, capitalising on the India–EU FTA.
Consider the following outcomes of the Finnish President's visit to India in March 2026: 1. A Joint Task Force on 6G linking the University of Oulu and the Bharat 6G Alliance. 2. Co-hosting of the World Circular Economy Forum in India in 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are listed outcomes: a 6G Joint Task Force (University of Oulu and Bharat 6G Alliance) and co-hosting the World Circular Economy Forum in India in 2026 with Finland's SITRA.
The Iranian warship IRIS Dena sank on 4 March 2026 off which coastal town?
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Correct answer: D — Galle, Sri Lanka
According to the Ministry of Defence, the ship was operating about 20 nautical miles west of Galle, Sri Lanka.
Where was the distress call from IRIS Dena received on 4 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — MRCC Colombo
The distress call was received at the Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre (MRCC) Colombo, as reported by the Sri Lanka Navy.
Which Indian Navy ship, operating nearby, reached the IRIS Dena search area by 1600 hrs on 4 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — INS Tarangini
INS Tarangini was deployed to aid the rescue effort and arrived in the search area by 1600 hrs; INS Ikshak later sailed from Kochi.
According to AP, how many people did the Sri Lanka Navy rescue after IRIS Dena sank?
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Correct answer: B — 32
AP reported that the Sri Lanka Navy rescued 32 people and recovered 87 bodies.
Consider the following statements about the IRIS Dena incident of 4 March 2026: 1. The ship was in the search-and-rescue region under India's responsibility when it sent the distress call. 2. The ship had recently taken part in International Fleet Review 2026, an exercise hosted by India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. The Ministry of Defence said the ship was in the SAR region under Sri Lanka's responsibility, so Sri Lanka led the search; BBC reported its participation in International Fleet Review 2026 hosted by India.
For which force are the six ALH Mk-III (Maritime Role) helicopters contracted on 3 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Coast Guard
The six ALH Mk-III (MR) helicopters, worth ₹2,901 crore, are for the Indian Coast Guard.
With which company did the Defence Ministry sign the contract for Vertical Launch-Shtil missiles on 3 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — JSC Rosoboronexport
The ₹2,182 crore VL-Shtil contract was signed with JSC Rosoboronexport of the Russian Federation.
What was the combined value of the ALH Mk-III and VL-Shtil contracts signed on 3 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5,083 crore
The two contracts totalled ₹5,083 crore: ₹2,901 crore for ALH Mk-III and ₹2,182 crore for VL-Shtil.
Consider the following statements about the ALH Mk-III (MR) contract of 3 March 2026: 1. It was placed with HAL under the Buy (Indian-IDDM) category. 2. The helicopters are single-engine platforms meant only for shore-based operations. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The Ministry describes the ALH Mk-III as twin-engine helicopters able to operate from shore-based airfields and from ships at sea.
Which principle did India and Canada adopt on 2 March 2026 as the guiding framework for their renewed Strategic Partnership?
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Correct answer: D — Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
The Joint Leaders' Statement adopted 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' or 'One Earth, One Family, One Future' as the overarching framework.
Which Canadian company signed a long-term uranium supply contract with India's Department of Atomic Energy during the Carney visit?
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Correct answer: A — Cameco
The DAE signed a long-term contract with Cameco for the supply of uranium ore concentrates.
According to Cameco, over which period will it supply nearly 22 million pounds of uranium ore concentrate to India?
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Correct answer: B — 2027–2035
Cameco said deliveries are expected to begin in 2027 and run through 2035, a nine-year period.
The trilateral MoU on technology and innovation signed during the visit involves India, Canada and which third country?
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Correct answer: D — Australia
The India–Canada–Australia trilateral MoU falls under the Australia–Canada–India Technology and Innovation (ACITI) Partnership.
Consider the following statements about Mark Carney's visit to India (27 February – 2 March 2026): 1. It was the first bilateral visit to India by a Canadian Prime Minister since 2018. 2. A Pulse Protein Centre of Excellence is to be set up at NIFTEM Kundli. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Joint Statement says it was the first bilateral visit by a Canadian PM since 2018, and the outcomes list a Declaration of Intent on a Joint Pulse Protein Centre of Excellence at NIFTEM Kundli.
What interest rate on EPF deposits for 2025-26 did EPFO's Central Board of Trustees recommend on 2 March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 8.25%
The CBT recommended 8.25%, the same rate as declared for 2024-25.
Who chairs the Central Board of Trustees of the EPF, as at its 239th meeting on 2 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Union Labour and Employment Minister
The Union Labour and Employment Minister, Mansukh Mandaviya, chaired the meeting; the Central Provident Fund Commissioner is the Member Secretary.
The new EPF, EPS and EDLI Schemes, 2026, approved by the CBT on 2 March 2026, are aligned with which law?
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Correct answer: B — Code on Social Security, 2020
The new schemes were approved for notification under the Code on Social Security, 2020, to replace the current schemes.
Consider the following statements about decisions of the 239th CBT meeting of EPF (2 March 2026): 1. A one-time Amnesty Scheme was approved for exempted establishments under the EPF & MP Act, 1952. 2. A pilot was approved for auto-settlement of inoperative accounts with balances of ₹10,000 or less. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The auto-settlement pilot covers inoperative accounts with unclaimed balances of ₹1,000 or less (over 1.33 lakh accounts), not ₹10,000.
Which two countries launched air strikes on Iran on 28 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — United States and Israel
The United States and Israel launched the strikes on Iran on 28 February 2026.
Iran's Supreme Leader killed in the strikes of 28 February 2026 had held the post since which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1989
Ayatollah Ali Khamenei had led Iran since 1989, according to Reuters.
Where had US–Iran nuclear talks been held two days before the strikes of 28 February 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Geneva
The strikes came two days after US–Iran nuclear talks in Geneva, mediated by Oman, ended without a breakthrough.
Consider the following statements about India's response on 28 February 2026: 1. The Civil Aviation Ministry reviewed preparedness with AAI, DGCA, airlines and airport operators. 2. Indian airlines were directed to suspend all international flights indefinitely. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Airlines were told to monitor NOTAMs and reroute or divert flights where needed, not to suspend all international flights.
Which institute's study led the Centre to temporarily discontinue rice fortification in February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Kharagpur
The Government assigned IIT Kharagpur a study on the shelf life of fortified rice kernels and fortified rice under actual storage conditions.
Which of the following was cited as the main problem with fortified rice in the February 2026 decision?
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Correct answer: A — Micronutrient loss and shorter shelf life during prolonged storage
The study found fortified rice kernels and fortified rice lose micronutrients and shelf life during prolonged storage and handling, while rice stays in storage for two to three years.
Under the February 2026 decision on rice fortification, which of the following is correct?
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Correct answer: B — States/UTs may supply either fortified or non-fortified rice as a transitional measure
Entitlements are not reduced and PDS, ICDS and Mid-Day Meal are unaffected; States/UTs get flexibility to supply fortified or non-fortified rice.
Consider the following statements about India's rice fortification initiative: 1. It was announced by the Prime Minister in his Independence Day address on 15 August 2021. 2. Universal coverage of fortified rice in all government schemes was achieved by March 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (October 2024) says the initiative followed the PM's 75th Independence Day address, the CCEA approved a phased rollout in April 2022, and universal coverage was achieved by March 2024.
What is the base year of the new GDP series released by MoSPI on 27 February 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 2022-23
The new series uses base year 2022-23, replacing the 2011-12 series.
What real GDP growth rate for 2025-26 was estimated in the Second Advance Estimates released on 27 February 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 7.6%
Real GDP growth for 2025-26 is estimated at 7.6%, against 7.1% in 2024-25; 8.6% is the nominal growth.
According to the new series, India's real GDP grew by how much in Q3 (October–December) of 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 7.8%
Real GDP grew 7.8% in Q3 of 2025-26; 8.9% was the nominal growth in that quarter.
Which of the following data sources is NOT mentioned by PIB among the new sources integrated in the 2022-23 GDP series?
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Correct answer: B — Census 2011
PIB lists ASUSE, PLFS, GST and PFMS as new, improved data sources in the revised series.
Consider the following statements about the new GDP series released in February 2026: 1. 2022-23 was chosen as base year because it is a recent normal year after the COVID-19 disruptions, with robust data across sectors. 2. In an annual revision, unlike a base year revision, the conceptual framework and data sources are changed. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. MoSPI says annual revisions only use updated data without changing the conceptual framework or adding new data sources; base year revisions change methodology, data sources and coverage.
To what level were India–Israel ties elevated during PM Modi's visit to Israel in February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Special Strategic Partnership for Peace, Innovation and Prosperity
The two Prime Ministers elevated ties to 'A Special Strategic Partnership for Peace, Innovation & Prosperity'.
Under an outcome of PM Modi's February 2026 Israel visit, NPCI International signed an MoU with which Israeli entity to enable UPI-based remittances?
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Correct answer: A — MASAV
NPCI International (NIPL) signed an MoU with MASAV, Israel, to enable cross-border remittances via UPI; MASHAV partnered ICAR on agriculture.
An MoU signed during PM Modi's February 2026 Israel visit supports the National Maritime Heritage Complex at which place?
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Correct answer: B — Lothal
One MoU is for development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) at Lothal, Gujarat.
What quota for Indian workers in Israel was announced during PM Modi's February 2026 visit?
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Correct answer: C — Up to 50,000 over 5 years
The announcements included a quota of up to 50,000 Indian workers over the next 5 years.
Consider the following statements based on the India–Israel Joint Statement of 26 February 2026: 1. Narendra Modi first visited Israel as Prime Minister in 2017, and Benjamin Netanyahu visited India in 2018. 2. The India–Israel Memorandum of Understanding on Defence Cooperation was signed during the February 2026 visit. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The joint statement welcomed the Defence Cooperation MoU signed earlier, on 4 November 2025.
On 25 February 2026, Narendra Modi became the first Indian Prime Minister to address which body?
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Correct answer: A — Israel's Knesset
Modi addressed a Special Plenary of the Knesset, the Israeli parliament, in Jerusalem — the first Indian PM to do so.
Which honour was conferred on PM Modi after his address to the Knesset in February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Medal of the Knesset
Speaker Amir Ohana bestowed the 'Medal of the Knesset' on PM Modi after the address.
Who was the Speaker of the Knesset who received PM Modi on 25 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Amir Ohana
Speaker Amir Ohana received PM Modi; Yair Lapid spoke as Leader of the Opposition.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's Knesset address of 25 February 2026: 1. He called for deeper India–Israel interaction in the IMEC and I2U2 frameworks. 2. He compared India's 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' with the Israeli principle of 'Tikkun Olam', meaning 'healing the world'. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PMO release on the address.
Who signed the Joint Statement on the India–GCC FTA with Piyush Goyal on 24 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — GCC Secretary General Jasem Mohamed Albudaiwi
The Joint Statement was signed by Piyush Goyal and GCC Secretary General Jasem Mohamed Albudaiwi in New Delhi.
When were the Terms of Reference for the India–GCC FTA signed?
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Correct answer: B — 5 February 2026
The Terms of Reference were signed on 5 February 2026; the Joint Statement launching negotiations followed on 24 February.
What was India's total trade with the GCC in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: D — USD 178.56 billion
India–GCC trade was USD 178.56 billion in FY 2024-25 (exports USD 56.87 billion and imports USD 121.68 billion).
Consider the following statements about India–GCC trade in FY 2024-25: 1. The GCC accounted for about 15.42% of India's global trade, making it India's largest trading partner bloc. 2. India ran a trade surplus with the GCC. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. India's imports (USD 121.68 billion) far exceeded its exports (USD 56.87 billion), so India ran a deficit.
What is the estimated aggregate monetisation potential of the National Monetisation Pipeline 2.0 launched in February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹16.72 lakh crore
NMP 2.0 estimates an aggregate monetisation potential of ₹16.72 lakh crore over FY 2026–FY 2030.
Which body developed the National Monetisation Pipeline 2.0 in consultation with infrastructure line ministries?
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Correct answer: B — NITI Aayog
NMP 2.0 was developed by NITI Aayog in consultation with infrastructure line ministries.
NMP 2.0 covers asset monetisation over which period?
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Correct answer: D — FY 2026 to FY 2030
NMP 2.0 covers the five-year period from FY 2026 to FY 2030.
Consider the following statements about the National Monetisation Pipeline: 1. NMP 2.0 is based on the mandate for the 'Asset Monetisation Plan 2025-30' announced in the Union Budget 2025-26. 2. NMP 1.0 had a target of ₹6 lakh crore over four years, of which nearly 90% was met. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. NMP 2.0 follows the Budget 2025-26 mandate for the Asset Monetisation Plan 2025-30, and the Finance Minister said NMP 1.0 met nearly 90% of its ₹6 lakh crore four-year target.
Brazilian President Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva held talks with PM Narendra Modi in New Delhi on 21 February 2026. Which country is described by India as its largest trading partner in Latin America?
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Correct answer: D — Brazil
PM Modi's press statement on 21 February 2026 said Brazil is India's largest trading partner in Latin America.
During the Modi–Lula talks of 21 February 2026, India and Brazil committed to take bilateral trade beyond what level over the next five years?
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Correct answer: D — $20 billion
PM Modi said both countries are committed to taking bilateral trade beyond twenty billion dollars over the next five years.
Consider the following statements about the India–Brazil talks of 21 February 2026: 1. India is working towards a Centre of Excellence for Digital Public Infrastructure in Brazil. 2. The leaders backed expansion of the India–MERCOSUR trade agreement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Modi said India is working towards a DPI Centre of Excellence in Brazil and that expansion of the India–MERCOSUR agreement will strengthen economic ties.
President Droupadi Murmu hosted Brazilian President Lula at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 21 February 2026 and congratulated him on Brazil hosting which two summits in 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BRICS and COP-30
The President congratulated Lula on the successful hosting of the BRICS Summit and the COP-30 Summit in Brazil in 2025.
Under the PM RAHAT scheme approved on 13 February 2026, accident victims will get cashless treatment of up to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.5 lakh
PM RAHAT provides cashless treatment of up to ₹1.5 lakh to accident victims.
To what number was the Lakhpati Didi target raised on 13 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 6 crore
The target was doubled to 6 crore Lakhpati Didis by March 2029.
The loan target of the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund was raised on 13 February 2026 to:
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Correct answer: D — ₹2 lakh crore
The AIF loan target was doubled from ₹1 lakh crore to ₹2 lakh crore.
What is the corpus of the Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0 approved by the PM on 13 February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10,000 crore
Startup India FoF 2.0 has a corpus of ₹10,000 crore, aimed at deep tech, early-stage ideas and advanced manufacturing.
Consider the following statements about Startup India as on 31 December 2025: 1. DPIIT had recognised over 2.07 lakh entities as startups. 2. Funds supported under the Fund of Funds for Startups had invested over ₹25,000 crore in 1,371 startups. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: 2,07,135 startups were recognised, and AIFs supported under FFS had invested ₹25,547.98 crore in 1,371 startups.
What is the total Central Assistance under the Urban Challenge Fund approved by the Cabinet in February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1 lakh crore
The Central Assistance is ₹1 lakh crore; it is expected to unlock total investment of ₹4 lakh crore.
Under the Urban Challenge Fund, Central Assistance covers what share of project cost, subject to a minimum share being raised from the market?
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Correct answer: A — 25% CA; at least 50% from market
Central Assistance covers 25% of the project cost, subject to at least 50% being raised from the market.
Consider the following statements about the Urban Challenge Fund: 1. It gives effect to proposals announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, including Cities as Growth Hubs. 2. Its Credit Repayment Guarantee Scheme offers a central guarantee of up to ₹7 crore or 70% of a first-time loan, whichever is lower. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The UCF implements the Budget 2025-26 vision on Cities as Growth Hubs, Creative Redevelopment and Water and Sanitation, and the ₹5,000 crore guarantee scheme covers up to ₹7 crore or 70% of a first loan.
Which party, led by Tarique Rahman, won the Bangladesh parliamentary election whose results were declared on 13 February 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Bangladesh Nationalist Party
The BNP-led alliance under Tarique Rahman won a two-thirds majority.
How many seats did the BNP-led alliance win in the February 2026 Bangladesh election?
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Correct answer: C — 212
The BNP-led alliance won 212 seats, a two-thirds majority; the Jamaat-led alliance won 77.
Who headed Bangladesh's interim government as Chief Adviser at the time of the February 2026 election?
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Correct answer: B — Muhammad Yunus
Power was to pass from the interim government led by Chief Adviser Muhammad Yunus.
Consider the following statements: 1. Tarique Rahman is the son of BNP founder Ziaur Rahman and former Prime Minister Khaleda Zia. 2. The February 2026 election was the first in Bangladesh since the 2024 uprising that ousted Sheikh Hasina's government. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Rahman is the son of Ziaur Rahman and Khaleda Zia, and this was the first election since the 2024 student-led uprising.
What was India's all-India CPI inflation for January 2026 in the first release on base 2024=100?
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Correct answer: C — 2.75%
Year-on-year CPI inflation for January 2026 was 2.75% (provisional) on the new base.
In the first CPI release on base 2024=100, food inflation (CFPI) for January 2026 was:
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Correct answer: B — 2.13%
All-India CFPI inflation was 2.13%; rural 1.96% and urban 2.44%.
How many divisions does the new CPI (2024=100) use, in line with COICOP 2018, in place of the earlier 6 groups?
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Correct answer: C — 12
The new series has 12 divisions in place of 6 groups, following COICOP 2018.
Consider the following statements about the item basket of the new CPI (2024=100): 1. Online media/streaming services and rural housing have been added. 2. Radio and tape recorders have been removed. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Streaming services, rural housing, pen drives and exercise equipment were added; radio, tape recorders, VCR/DVD players and second-hand clothing were removed.
What was the total value of proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 12 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — About ₹3.60 lakh crore
The DAC accorded AoN to proposals worth about ₹3.60 lakh crore.
Which aircraft was cleared as the Multi Role Fighter Aircraft (MRFA) for the IAF by the DAC on 12 February 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Rafale
The DAC cleared MRFA (Rafale) for the IAF, most of which will be manufactured in India.
Which aircraft did the DAC clear for the Indian Navy on 12 February 2026 for long-range anti-submarine warfare and maritime surveillance?
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Correct answer: D — P8I
AoN was cleared for P8I long-range maritime reconnaissance aircraft for the Navy.
Consider the following statements about the DAC decisions of 12 February 2026: 1. The Defence Acquisition Council is chaired by the Raksha Mantri. 2. 'Vibhav', cleared for the Army, is an air defence missile system. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The DAC is chaired by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh. Vibhav is an anti-tank mine, to be laid as an obstacle against enemy mechanised forces.