BSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to the PLFS monthly bulletin, what was India's overall unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 5.1%
The overall unemployment rate declined for the second consecutive month, from 5.6% in June and 5.2% in July to 5.1% in August 2025.
The monthly estimates of the Periodic Labour Force Survey are based on which approach?
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Correct answer: B — Current Weekly Status
The PLFS monthly bulletins present LFPR, WPR and unemployment rate estimates at the all-India level following the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025, approved on 14 September 2025, replaces a manual that was last promulgated in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2009
The DPM, which regulates revenue procurement by the Defence Services, was last promulgated in 2009; the revised DPM 2025 was approved by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025 primarily governs which type of procurement by the Ministry of Defence?
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Correct answer: D — Revenue procurement of goods and services
The DPM lays down principles for all revenue procurements in the Ministry, valued at around ₹1 lakh crore in the current financial year.
Consider the following statements about liquidated damages (LD) under the Defence Procurement Manual 2025: 1. No LD will be levied during the development phase of a contract. 2. The maximum LD has been lowered to 5%, rising to 10% only in cases of inordinate delay. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: DPM 2025 introduces no LD during the development phase and a minimal 0.1% LD after the prototype is developed; maximum LD is lowered to 5%, and only for inordinate delays can it reach 10%.
Under DPM 2025, for how long can the Ministry of Defence give assured orders (in terms of quantity) to suppliers who develop items?
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Correct answer: A — Up to five years, extendable by up to five more years in special circumstances
DPM 2025 provides an assured guarantee of orders in terms of quantity for up to five years and, in special circumstances, up to another five years.
Where were the World Boxing Championships 2025, at which Minakshi Hooda and Jaismine Lamboria won gold, held?
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Correct answer: D — Liverpool, United Kingdom
The World Boxing Championships 2025 were held in Liverpool, where Minakshi won the 48kg and Jaismine the 57kg title.
In which weight category did Jaismine Lamboria win gold at the World Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 57kg
Jaismine Lamboria won the women's 57kg title, beating Poland's Julia Szeremeta 4-1; Minakshi Hooda won the 48kg title.
Whom did Minakshi Hooda defeat in the women's 48kg final at the World Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Nazym Kyzaibay of Kazakhstan
Minakshi beat Kazakhstan's Paris Olympics bronze medallist Nazym Kyzaibay 4-1 in the 48kg final; she had beaten Mongolia's Altantsetseg Lutsaikhan in the semi-final.
Consider the following statements about India's campaign at the World Boxing Championships 2025: 1. India won four medals, all of them in the women's section. 2. Nupur Sheoran won gold in the women's 80+kg category. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India won two golds (Minakshi, Jaismine), a silver and a bronze, all by women, while the men drew a blank. Statement 2 is incorrect: Nupur Sheoran won silver in the 80+kg after losing the final 3-2 to Poland's Agata Kaczmarska.
Which team defeated India in the final of the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025 on 14 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — China
Hosts China beat India 4-1 in the final in Hangzhou to win their third Women's Asia Cup title.
Who scored India's only goal in the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025 final?
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Correct answer: D — Navneet Kaur
Navneet Kaur converted a penalty corner in the first minute to give India the lead before China scored four times.
Consider the following statements about the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025: 1. India's loss in the final meant they missed direct qualification for the 2026 FIH Women's World Cup. 2. The final was played in India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: continental champions qualify directly, so China qualified and India must go through the qualifiers. Statement 2 is incorrect: the final was played at the Gongshu Canal Sports Park in Hangzhou, China.
The 2026 FIH Women's Hockey World Cup, for which China qualified by winning the Asia Cup 2025, will be co-hosted by which countries?
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Correct answer: C — Belgium and the Netherlands
The 2026 FIH Women's Hockey World Cup is to be co-hosted by Belgium and the Netherlands.
Who administered the oath of office to C.P. Radhakrishnan as Vice President of India on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — President Droupadi Murmu
President Droupadi Murmu administered the oath of office of Vice President to C.P. Radhakrishnan at Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan.
Which post did C.P. Radhakrishnan hold immediately before becoming Vice President of India?
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Correct answer: A — Governor of Maharashtra
Radhakrishnan was formerly the Governor of Maharashtra; he had earlier been Governor of Jharkhand with additional charge of Telangana and Puducherry.
From which Lok Sabha constituency was C.P. Radhakrishnan elected in 1998 and 1999?
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Correct answer: B — Coimbatore
Radhakrishnan was elected to the Lok Sabha for the first time from Coimbatore in 1998 and re-elected in 1999.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. C.P. Radhakrishnan is the 17th person to hold the office of Vice President of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Radhakrishnan took oath as the 15th Vice President and Chairman of the Rajya Sabha; 'seventeenth' refers to the number of the Vice-Presidential election held in 2025, not to the office-holder.
Who was sworn in as Prime Minister of Nepal's interim government on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sushila Karki
Former Chief Justice Sushila Karki was sworn in as interim Prime Minister, becoming Nepal's first woman Prime Minister.
For which date were Nepal's new parliamentary elections scheduled after President Paudel dissolved Parliament on Sushila Karki's recommendation in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 5 March 2026
The President's office said Parliament was dissolved on Karki's recommendation and new elections were scheduled for 5 March 2026.
Consider the following statements about Sushila Karki: 1. Before becoming Nepal's first woman Prime Minister, she had been Nepal's first woman Chief Justice. 2. India's MEA welcomed the formation of the interim government led by her, hoping it would foster peace and stability. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Karki was appointed Nepal's first woman Chief Justice in 2016, and the MEA welcomed the interim government she leads, saying it was hopeful this would help foster peace and stability.
Through which platform did the Agriculture Ministry send AI-based monsoon forecasts by SMS to about 3.8 crore farmers in 2025?
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Correct answer: B — m-Kisan
The ministry sent AI-based monsoon forecasts via SMS through m-Kisan to nearly 3.8 crore farmers across 13 states.
The AI-based monsoon forecasts sent to farmers in 2025 blended which two open-access models?
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Correct answer: C — Google's NeuralGCM and ECMWF's AIFS
The forecasts used by the ministry were a blend of Google's NeuralGCM and the ECMWF's Artificial Intelligence Forecasting System (AIFS), which outperformed other forecasts at predicting local monsoon onset.
What was India's CPI-based retail inflation (provisional) for August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 2.07%
All India CPI inflation was 2.07% (provisional) in August 2025, 46 basis points higher than in July; 0.52% was the WPI figure for August.
What was the base year of the CPI series used for the August 2025 inflation release?
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Correct answer: B — 2012
The release gives Consumer Price Index numbers on base 2012=100 for rural, urban and combined.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for August 2025: 1. Food inflation based on CFPI was negative for the third consecutive month. 2. Rural headline inflation was higher than urban headline inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: CFPI food inflation was -0.69%, negative for the third month in a row. Statement 2 is incorrect: rural inflation was 1.69% while urban inflation was 2.47%.
Which EU Commissioner addressed the 65th Annual Session of ACMA on 12 September 2025 and said India and the EU aim to finalise their FTA by year-end?
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Correct answer: A — Maroš Šefčovič
Maroš Šefčovič, EU Commissioner for Trade and Economic Security, said India and the EU were negotiating a ground-breaking FTA with unprecedented momentum and working to finalise it by year-end.
At the annual session of which industry body did Piyush Goyal speak about the India–EU FTA on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Automotive Component Manufacturers Association (ACMA)
Goyal addressed the 65th Annual Session of the Automotive Component Manufacturers Association (ACMA), saying the FTA would open new opportunities for the auto component sector.
In which Indian city did PM Modi hold talks with Mauritius PM Navinchandra Ramgoolam on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Varanasi
PM Modi welcomed PM Ramgoolam to his parliamentary constituency, Kashi (Varanasi), where the talks and joint press statement took place.
Which of the following is a grant project in India's special economic package for Mauritius announced in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — New Sir Seewoosagur Ramgoolam National Hospital
The new SSR National Hospital is among the grant projects (with an AYUSH Centre of Excellence, a veterinary school and helicopters); Motorway M4, the ATC tower and Ring Road Phase II are grant-cum-LoC projects.
India agreed in principle to assist Mauritius in developing and surveilling which area, as part of the September 2025 package?
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Correct answer: A — Chagos Marine Protected Area
On the strategic side, the two sides agreed in principle on redevelopment of a port in Mauritius and assistance in development and surveillance of the Chagos Marine Protected Area.
How much budgetary assistance did India agree in principle to extend to Mauritius in the current financial year (2025-26)?
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Correct answer: D — USD 25 million
India agreed in principle to extend budgetary assistance of USD 25 million in the current financial year.
Consider the following outcomes of the Mauritius PM's state visit to India in September 2025: 1. An agreement was signed to establish a telemetry, tracking and telecommunication station for satellites and launch vehicles. 2. NTPC will work towards a 17.5 MW floating solar PV project at Tamarind Falls. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the list of outcomes includes the space telemetry, tracking and telecommunication station agreement and an announcement to take forward a 17.5 MW floating solar PV project at Tamarind Falls, with an NTPC team to finalise an agreement with CEB.
After the September 2025 expansion, at how many airports is the Fast Track Immigration–Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP) operational?
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Correct answer: B — 13
With Lucknow, Thiruvananthapuram, Trichy, Kozhikode and Amritsar added on 11 September 2025, Amit Shah said FTI-TTP is operational at a total of 13 airports.
Which of the following airports was NOT among the five added to FTI-TTP on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jaipur
The five airports added were Lucknow, Thiruvananthapuram, Trichy, Kozhikode and Amritsar.
Which two upcoming airports does the Home Ministry plan to integrate with FTI-TTP?
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Correct answer: A — Navi Mumbai and Jewar
Amit Shah said the Ministry of Home Affairs has planned to integrate the programme with the upcoming Navi Mumbai and Jewar airports.
Where did IIM Ahmedabad open its first-ever overseas campus in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Dubai
The Crown Prince of Dubai inaugurated IIM Ahmedabad's first-ever overseas campus in Dubai on 11 September 2025.
Who inaugurated the IIM Ahmedabad campus in Dubai on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sheikh Hamdan bin Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum
The campus was inaugurated by Sheikh Hamdan bin Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum, Crown Prince of Dubai, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Defence of the UAE.
In which city did APEDA open its first office in Bihar on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Patna
Piyush Goyal inaugurated APEDA's regional office in Patna at the Bihar Idea Festival on 11 September 2025.
Which GI-tagged product from Bihar was flagged off in a 7-tonne export consignment at the APEDA Patna office inauguration?
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Correct answer: D — Mithila Makhana
A 7 metric ton consignment of GI-tagged Mithila Makhana was flagged off for New Zealand, Canada and the USA, exported by Neha Arya of Darbhanga.
By which year does India target indigenous solar cell manufacturing, as announced by the MNRE Minister in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2028
Pralhad Joshi said India targets indigenous solar cell manufacturing by 2028 and is moving towards domestic wafers and ingots.
As of September 2025, India's non-fossil fuel capacity had crossed about how much, against its 2030 target of 500 GW?
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Correct answer: D — 251.5 GW
Joshi said India has crossed 251.5 GW of non-fossil capacity, achieving over half of its 2030 target of 500 GW.
Under the ECI's polling station rationalisation reviewed in September 2025, no polling station should have more than how many electors?
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Correct answer: C — 1,200
The Commission reviewed rationalisation of polling stations to ensure that no polling station has over 1,200 electors.
The ECI's conference of Chief Electoral Officers on 10 September 2025 assessed preparedness for which exercise?
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Correct answer: B — Nationwide Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls
The Commission assessed the preparedness of the offices of CEOs of all States/UTs for the nationwide SIR exercise.
Where was the ECI's conference of Chief Electoral Officers held on 10 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — India International Institute for Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi
The third CEOs' conference of the year was held at IIIDEM in New Delhi.
The Mokama–Munger section approved by the Cabinet in September 2025 is part of which corridor?
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Correct answer: B — Buxar–Bhagalpur High-Speed Corridor
The CCEA approved the Mokama–Munger section of the Buxar–Bhagalpur High-Speed Corridor in Bihar.
On which model will the Mokama–Munger four-lane section be built?
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Correct answer: D — Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM)
The 82.4 km section will be built on Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM) at a total capital cost of ₹4,447.38 crore.
Consider the following statements about the Mokama–Munger corridor approved in September 2025: 1. It is an 82.4 km greenfield, access-controlled four-lane section. 2. It has a design speed of 120 km/h and will reduce travel time to under one hour. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: the design speed is 100 km/h (average 80 km/h) and travel time will be about 1.5 hours.
World Suicide Prevention Day is observed on which date?
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Correct answer: B — 10 September
The Ministry of Education's release marked World Suicide Prevention Day on 10 September 2025.
According to NCRB's 2022 report cited by the Education Ministry, students accounted for what share of all suicide deaths in India?
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Correct answer: D — 7.6%
The ministry cited NCRB's 2022 report: 13,044 students died by suicide, accounting for 7.6% of all suicide deaths.
With which leader did PM Modi speak on 10 September 2025, condemning the violation of his country's sovereignty after attacks in its capital?
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Correct answer: D — Amir of Qatar
PM Modi spoke with Qatar's Amir Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani, expressed deep concern over the attacks in Doha and condemned the violation of Qatar's sovereignty.
During the call of 10 September 2025, PM Modi appreciated Qatar's mediation efforts in which conflict?
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Correct answer: A — Gaza
The PM appreciated Qatar's role in promoting regional peace, including its mediation efforts in Gaza to achieve a ceasefire and release of all hostages.
The CCS rules released on 10 September 2025 enable Central Government employees to choose between NPS and which scheme?
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Correct answer: C — Unified Pension Scheme (UPS)
The CCS (Implementation of the Unified Pension Scheme under the National Pension System) Rules, 2025 let employees choose between NPS and the newly introduced UPS.
At which event were the CCS (Implementation of UPS under NPS) Rules, 2025 released?
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Correct answer: A — 14th Pension Adalat at Vigyan Bhawan
Jitendra Singh released the rules during the 14th Pension Adalat held at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, on 10 September 2025.
Which Prime Minister of Nepal resigned on 9 September 2025 following youth-led 'Gen Z' protests?
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Correct answer: C — K.P. Sharma Oli
K.P. Sharma Oli resigned on 9 September 2025 after protests sparked by a social media ban turned deadly.
Which body did Prime Minister Narendra Modi chair on 9 September 2025 to discuss the developments in Nepal?
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Correct answer: A — Cabinet Committee on Security
On his return from Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, the PM chaired a meeting of the Cabinet Committee on Security to discuss the developments in Nepal.
What immediately triggered the 'Gen Z' protests in Nepal that led to the Prime Minister's resignation in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — A ban on social media platforms
Reuters and AP reported that the outrage was sparked by a ban on social media platforms, alongside anger over corruption.
Consider the following statements about the Nepal crisis of September 2025: 1. The Nepal government kept the social media ban in force even after 19 people were killed on 8 September. 2. Sushila Karki became interim Prime Minister on the same day that K.P. Sharma Oli resigned. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct: the government lifted the ban after 19 people were killed on 8 September, and Oli resigned on 9 September while Karki was sworn in on 12 September.
How many votes did C.P. Radhakrishnan secure in the Vice-Presidential election of 9 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 452
Returning Officer P.C. Mody declared Radhakrishnan elected with 452 first-preference votes; B. Sudershan Reddy received 300.
Who was the Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential election of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha
The ECI said the Returning Officer was the Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha; P.C. Mody announced the result.
Out of 781 eligible electors in the Vice-Presidential election of September 2025, how many cast their votes?
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Correct answer: B — 767
The ECI said 767 of the 781 eligible electors voted and 15 ballot papers were declared invalid, leaving 752 valid votes.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election of 2025: 1. With 15 ballots declared invalid, the majority of first-preference votes required to win was 377. 2. The certificate of election was signed by the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners on 9 September 2025, the day of the poll. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. With 752 valid votes the required majority was 377, but the ECI said the certificate of election was signed on 10 September 2025, the day after the poll.
Where was the 28th Universal Postal Congress, at which India launched the UPI–UPU Integration project, held in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Dubai
Jyotiraditya Scindia unveiled the UPI–UPU Integration project at the 28th Universal Postal Congress in Dubai, UAE.
The UPI–UPU Integration project links India's UPI with which UPU system?
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Correct answer: B — UPU Interconnection Platform (IP)
The project integrates India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) with the UPU Interconnection Platform (IP), combining the postal network's reach with UPI's speed and affordability.
How much financial support did India commit to the global postal sector during this UPU cycle, as announced at the Dubai Congress?
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Correct answer: C — USD 10 million
Scindia announced India's commitment of 10 million dollars during this cycle to channel technology into innovation, with special focus on e-commerce and digital payments.
Consider the following statements about the UPI–UPU Integration project: 1. It was developed jointly by the Department of Posts, NPCI International Payments Limited and the Universal Postal Union. 2. At the Congress, India announced its candidature for the UPU's Council of Administration and Postal Operations Council. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the project was developed by the Department of Posts, NIPL and the UPU, and Scindia announced India's candidature for the Council of Administration and the Postal Operations Council.
How many new Indian fishery establishments did the European Union list for exports, as announced in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 102
The EU listed 102 new Indian fishery establishments for export to EU member countries in 2025.
Which Indian body implements the official control mechanisms whose robustness led to the EU listing of 102 new fishery establishments?
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Correct answer: B — Export Inspection Council (EIC)
The ministry said the meetings built confidence in India's robust official control mechanisms implemented by the Export Inspection Council (EIC).
In ESIC's SPREE-2025 initiative, what does 'SPREE' stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Scheme for Promoting Registration of Employers and Employees
SPREE-2025 is the Scheme for Promoting Registration of Employers and Employees, operational till 31 December 2025.
ESIC's AMNESTY Scheme-2025 is a one-time dispute resolution scheme in force during which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1 October 2025 – 30 September 2026
The AMNESTY Scheme-2025 is in effect from 1 October 2025 to 30 September 2026 to settle issues related to damages, interest and coverage under the ESI Act.
Under which law/order are biostimulants regulated in India, following a notification of February 2021?
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Correct answer: C — Fertilizer Control Order, 1985
Notification S.O. 882(E) of 23 February 2021 included biostimulants in the Fertilizer Control Order, 1985, with Clause 20C providing for quality regulation; pesticides and plant growth regulators remain under the Insecticides Act, 1968.
Consider the following statements about biostimulant regulation in India: 1. Only 146 biostimulant products have so far been included in Schedule VI of the Fertilizer Control Order. 2. Plant growth regulators are classified as biostimulants under the Fertilizer Control Order. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct as per the ministry. Statement 2 is incorrect: the FCO definition of biostimulant excludes pesticides and plant growth regulators, which are regulated under the Insecticides Act, 1968.
In which country was the multilateral military exercise ZAPAD 2025, joined by an Indian contingent, held?
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Correct answer: A — Russia
The Indian contingent departed for the Mulino Training Ground, Nizhniy, Russia, for ZAPAD 2025 held from 10 to 16 September 2025.
A battalion of which regiment led the Indian Army component at Exercise ZAPAD 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Kumaon Regiment
The Indian Army contingent was led by a battalion of the Kumaon Regiment along with troops from other arms and services.
What was the strength of the Indian Armed Forces contingent for ZAPAD 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 65
The contingent had 65 personnel: 57 from the Indian Army, 7 from the Indian Air Force and 1 from the Indian Navy.
Who signed the India–Israel Bilateral Investment Agreement on behalf of Israel in New Delhi on 8 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Bezalel Smotrich
Israel's Finance Minister Bezalel Smotrich signed the BIA with Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
According to the Government of India, what is the present level of bilateral investment between India and Israel, cited at the signing of the BIA in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — About USD 800 million
The release said bilateral investments presently stand at a total of USD 800 million.
Consider the following statements about the India–Israel Bilateral Investment Agreement signed in September 2025: 1. It provides an independent dispute resolution mechanism through arbitration. 2. It removes the host State's right to regulate in the public interest in favour of investor protection. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The BIA provides arbitration-based dispute resolution, but the government said it balances investor protection with the State's regulatory rights, preserving policy space. So only statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following was NOT listed as an area of cooperation committed to by the Finance Ministers of India and Israel at the BIA signing in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Joint space exploration
The ministers committed to cooperation in fintech innovation, infrastructure development, financial regulation and digital payment connectivity; space exploration was not listed.
Which French Prime Minister lost a confidence vote in the National Assembly on 8 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — François Bayrou
François Bayrou and his minority government were ousted in the confidence vote on 8 September 2025.
What was the result of the confidence vote that brought down the French government on 8 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 364 against, 194 for
Reuters, AP and the BBC reported 364 votes against Bayrou and 194 in his favour.
The French government's confidence vote of 8 September 2025 was centred on which issue?
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Correct answer: A — Plans to cut spending and rein in national debt
Bayrou staked his government on winning support for plans to cut public spending and tame the ballooning national debt.
Which country's Prime Minister, Shigeru Ishiba, announced his resignation on 7 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Japan
Shigeru Ishiba, Prime Minister of Japan, announced his resignation on 7 September 2025.
Shigeru Ishiba resigned as president of which party in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Liberal Democratic Party
Ishiba said he was stepping down as prime minister and as head of the Liberal Democratic Party (LDP).
Before announcing his resignation in September 2025, Japan's PM Shigeru Ishiba said he had waited for the conclusion of which negotiations?
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Correct answer: A — Negotiations on US tariff measures
Ishiba said he waited until negotiations on US tariff measures reached a conclusion before stepping aside.
Consider the following statements about Shigeru Ishiba's resignation announced on 7 September 2025: 1. It followed his party's historic defeat in the July 2025 upper house election. 2. Ishiba said he would continue his duties until a successor was chosen. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Reuters, AP and the BBC reported that Ishiba faced pressure after the July 2025 election defeat and said he would continue his duties until a successor was selected. Both statements are correct.
Where was the final of the men's Hockey Asia Cup 2025, won by India on 7 September 2025, played?
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Correct answer: B — Rajgir, Bihar
India beat South Korea 4–1 in the final at the Rajgir Sports Complex, Bihar.
India defeated which team 4–1 in the final of the men's Hockey Asia Cup 2025?
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Correct answer: D — South Korea
India beat defending champions South Korea 4–1 in the final.
Which Indian player scored twice in the final of the men's Hockey Asia Cup 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dilpreet Singh
Dilpreet Singh scored in the 28th and 45th minutes; Sukhjeet Singh and Amit Rohidas scored one each.
By winning the Hockey Asia Cup 2025, India qualified directly for the 2026 FIH Men's Hockey World Cup, to be co-hosted by which countries?
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Correct answer: C — Belgium and the Netherlands
The 2026 FIH Men's World Cup is to be jointly hosted by Belgium and the Netherlands.
Consider the following statements about the men's Hockey Asia Cup after the 2025 edition: 1. The 2025 title was India's fourth, after wins in 2003, 2007 and 2017. 2. India is now the most successful team in the tournament's history. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
India's fourth title followed 2003 (Kuala Lumpur), 2007 (Chennai) and 2017 (Dhaka). South Korea, with five titles, remains the most successful team; India is second. So only statement 1 is correct.