Bihar Police Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was the aggregate net profit of public sector banks in FY 2025-26, as announced in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1.98 lakh crore
Aggregate net profit rose 11.1% to a record ₹1.98 lakh crore; ₹3.21 lakh crore was the operating profit and ₹86,971 crore the recoveries.
Consider the following statements about public sector banks as of 31 March 2026: 1. Their gross NPA ratio was 1.93% and net NPA ratio 0.39%. 2. Their aggregate CRAR of 16.6% was above the regulatory requirement of 11.5%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Finance Ministry's FY 2025-26 PSB performance release.
FY 2025-26 marked which consecutive year of aggregate profitability for public sector banks?
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Correct answer: D — Fourth
The record ₹1.98 lakh crore profit marked the fourth consecutive year of aggregate profitability for PSBs.
What was India's CPI-based retail inflation (base 2024=100) for April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 3.48%
Retail inflation was 3.48% (provisional) in April 2026; 3.40% was March, 4.20% food inflation and 3.16% urban inflation.
Consider the following statements about the CPI release for April 2026: 1. Food inflation (CFPI) was lower than headline CPI inflation. 2. Prices for the CPI are collected by the NSO from 1,407 urban markets and 1,465 villages. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Food inflation (4.20%) was higher than headline CPI inflation (3.48%).
What is the size of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool launched by the Department of Financial Services in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — US$1.5 billion
BMIP is a US$1.5 billion pool with a sovereign guarantee of US$1.4 billion (₹12,980 crore).
Which entity is the pool administrator of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool?
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Correct answer: D — GIC Re
GIC Re is the pool administrator; policies are issued by domestic member insurers such as New India Assurance.
The Country Strategic Opportunities Programme (COSOP) launched in May 2026 is a strategy between India and which organisation?
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Correct answer: A — International Fund for Agricultural Development
The eight-year COSOP for 2026–2033 was launched by the Government of India with IFAD.
Consider the following statements about the India–IFAD partnership: 1. India's partnership with IFAD spans nearly five decades, with 35 rural development projects implemented in India. 2. The COSOP 2026–2033 has three strategic priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The COSOP 2026–2033 has two strategic priorities: rural resilience and knowledge systems for scaling.
In the May 2026 MoU with I4C on mule accounts, 'RBIH' stands for:
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Correct answer: C — Reserve Bank Innovation Hub
RBIH is the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub, which signed the MoU with the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre.
The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) functions under which ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Home Affairs
I4C is part of the Ministry of Home Affairs, and its Suspect Registry data will feed RBIH's AI fraud detection.
What cash prize accompanies each National Florence Nightingale Award?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,00,000
Each award includes a certificate of merit, a cash prize of ₹1,00,000 and a medal.
The National Florence Nightingale Awards 2026 were conferred on 12 May 2026, which is observed as:
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Correct answer: B — International Nurses Day
The awards were presented on International Nurses Day, 12 May, with the theme 'Our Nurses. Our Future. Empowered Nurses Save Lives'.
From which date will the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 come into force nationwide, as notified on 11 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 1 July 2026
The Centre notified that the Act comes into force across all rural areas from 1 July 2026, when MGNREGA, 2005 stands repealed.
How many days of wage employment in a financial year does the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 guarantee to an eligible rural household?
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Correct answer: D — 125 days
The Act guarantees 125 days of wage employment a year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work.
Consider the following statements about the transition to the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 will stand repealed from the date the new Act comes into force. 2. All existing MGNREGA job cards become invalid on that date and every worker must register afresh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. e-KYC verified MGNREGA job cards remain valid under VB–G RAM G until Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Cards are issued.
At the 5th IGoM on West Asia on 11 May 2026, India's LPG rolling stock was reported to be enough for how many days?
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Correct answer: C — 45 days
India had 45 days of LPG rolling stock; crude oil and natural gas were 60 days each.
Consider the following statements about the 5th IGoM on West Asia (11 May 2026): 1. The meeting was chaired by the Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas. 2. The fertiliser stock of 199.65 LMT covered more than half of the assessed Kharif 2026 requirement of 390.54 LMT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The IGoM was chaired by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh; Petroleum Minister Hardeep Singh Puri attended as a member.
As per the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin for January–March 2026, what was the overall LFPR for persons aged 15 years and above (CWS)?
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Correct answer: D — 55.5%
Overall LFPR was 55.5%; 55.8% was the previous quarter, 52.8% the WPR and 58.2% the rural LFPR.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin for January–March 2026: 1. The share of rural workers engaged in agriculture rose compared with the previous quarter. 2. On average, 57.4 crore persons aged 15 years and above were employed during the quarter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The rural share of workers in agriculture fell to 55.8% from 58.5% in October–December 2025.
Before becoming Chairman & Managing Director of SAIL in May 2026, Dr Ashok Kumar Panda served as the company's
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Correct answer: D — Director (Finance)
Panda was SAIL's Director (Finance) and also held additional charge of Director (Commercial) for about nine months.
SAIL's next phase of capacity expansion, mentioned by its new CMD in May 2026, targets what capacity?
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Correct answer: B — 35 MTPA
Dr Panda said SAIL is on track for its next phase of capacity expansion to 35 MTPA.
National Technology Day, observed on 11 May, recalls which event of 1998?
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Correct answer: A — The nuclear tests at Pokhran
PM Modi recalled on 11 May 2026 that the nuclear tests at Pokhran on this day in 1998 introduced the world to India's capabilities.
The single-tube multiplex real-time RT-PCR for dengue, chikungunya and Zika, licensed by ICMR on National Technology Day 2026, was developed at which institute?
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Correct answer: C — ICMR-NIV
The multiplex RT-PCR was developed at ICMR–National Institute of Virology (NIV); NIRWoH developed the PSP94 ELISA and NIRBID the Factor VIII inhibitor test.
On which dates will India host the 1st International Big Cat Summit in New Delhi, as announced in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 1–2 June 2026
Bhupender Yadav said India will host the 1st International Big Cat Summit on 1 and 2 June in New Delhi.
Which of the following is NOT among the seven big cats that the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) works to protect?
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Correct answer: C — Clouded leopard
IBCA covers the tiger, lion, cheetah, leopard, snow leopard, jaguar and puma; the clouded leopard is not in the list.
The SEHAT Mission launched on 11 May 2026 is a joint national mission of which two bodies?
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Correct answer: B — ICAR and ICMR
SEHAT is a joint national mission of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
Consider the following statements about the SEHAT Mission: 1. Its priority areas include evaluation of bio-fortified crops and occupational health of agricultural workers. 2. It was launched jointly by the Union Health Minister and the Union Agriculture Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. JP Nadda (Health) and Shivraj Singh Chouhan (Agriculture) launched it; priorities include bio-fortified crops, integrated farming and farmers' occupational health.
The Forum of Regulators, which held its 100th meeting on 11 May 2026, was established in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2005
FOR was established in 2005; the 100th meeting marked 21 years of its journey. (2003 is the year of the Electricity Act.)
Consider the following statements about the Forum of Regulators (FOR): 1. It brings together the Central and State electricity regulatory commissions. 2. The Chairperson of the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission also heads FOR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. FOR is a statutory platform of Central and State ERCs, and Jishnu Barua is Chairperson of CERC/FOR.
At the 10 May 2026 review, Amit Shah asked that the early warning system plan for high-risk lakes be expanded to cover at least how many lakes?
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Correct answer: B — 60
Shah said at least 60 lakes should be included in the plan that originally covered 30 high-risk lakes.
Following the Home Minister's earlier flood reviews, the advance period of rainfall and flood forecasts by IMD and the Central Water Commission was extended:
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Correct answer: C — From 3 days to 7 days
PIB notes that IMD and CWC extended the advance period of rainfall and flood forecasts from 3 days to 7 days.
Consider the following statements about the flood and heatwave review of 10 May 2026: 1. Amit Shah suggested using the CAMPA Fund to make environmental balance efforts more multi-dimensional. 2. He asked ministries to build new apps and portals for each disaster instead of using existing ones. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Shah asked officials to consolidate and improve existing apps and portals rather than create new ones.
Which trio won the women's recurve team gold for India at the Archery World Cup Stage 2 in Shanghai on 10 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Deepika Kumari, Ankita Bhakat, Kumkum Mohod
The gold-winning team was Deepika Kumari, Ankita Bhakat and Kumkum Mohod.
In the final of the women's recurve team event at the Archery World Cup Stage 2 (May 2026), India beat which team in a shoot-off?
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Correct answer: C — China
India beat hosts China 5-4 (28-26 in the shoot-off); South Korea was beaten in the semi-finals.
The Indian women's recurve team's gold in May 2026 was its first Archery World Cup women's team gold since which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2021
It was India's first World Cup women's team gold since 2021.
Which Vietnamese port did the Indian Navy's oceanographic research vessel INS Sagardhwani visit from 4 to 8 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Cam Ranh
INS Sagardhwani visited Cam Ranh, Vietnam from 4 to 8 May 2026.
During INS Sagardhwani's May 2026 visit to Vietnam, scientists from which DRDO laboratory engaged with the Institute of Oceanography, Nha Trang?
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Correct answer: D — Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL)
Scientists from NPOL (Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory), DRDO, engaged with researchers of the Institute of Oceanography, Nha Trang.
Who was appointed as the next Chief of Defence Staff on 9 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Lt Gen N. S. Raja Subramani (Retd)
Lt Gen N. S. Raja Subramani (Retd) was appointed CDS, succeeding Gen Anil Chauhan, whose tenure ends on 30 May 2026.
At the time of his appointment as the next Chief of the Naval Staff in May 2026, Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan was heading which command?
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Correct answer: B — Western Naval Command
Vice Adm Krishna Swaminathan has been Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Western Naval Command since 31 July 2025.
Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan, named the next Navy Chief in May 2026, is a specialist in which field?
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Correct answer: D — Communication and Electronic Warfare
Commissioned on 1 July 1987, he is a Communication and Electronic Warfare specialist.
Consider the following statements about the Chief of Defence Staff appointed in May 2026: 1. The Chief of Defence Staff also functions as Secretary, Department of Military Affairs. 2. Lt Gen N. S. Raja Subramani was commissioned into the 8 Garhwal Rifles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The CDS also functions as Secretary, DMA, and Subramani was commissioned into 8 Garhwal Rifles on 14 December 1985.
What is the annual premium under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) for ₹2 lakh accident cover?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20
PMSBY offers ₹2 lakh accident cover for ₹20 a year; ₹436 is the PMJJBY premium.
What is the entry age range for subscribers under the Atal Pension Yojana?
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Correct answer: B — 18–40 years
APY is open to people aged 18–40 who are not income-tax payers; 18–50 is PMJJBY and 18–70 is PMSBY.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Suraksha schemes: 1. PMJJBY provides life cover of ₹2 lakh to people aged 18–50 years. 2. PMJJBY, PMSBY and APY were launched in 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The three schemes were launched on 9 May 2015 and completed 11 years on 9 May 2026.
Which district panchayat was named Best District Panchayat under the National Panchayat Awards 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sepahijala (Tripura)
Sepahijala in Tripura won the Best District Panchayat award with ₹5 crore; Ganjam and Coimbatore followed, and Harippad was the Best Block.
How many panchayats were selected for the National Panchayat Awards 2025 announced in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 42
42 panchayats from 17 States/UTs were selected; 34 of them were Gram Panchayats under the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar.
Consider the following statements about the National Panchayat Awards 2025: 1. Under the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar, Gram Panchayats were awarded across nine themes of Localisation of Sustainable Development Goals. 2. Karnataka won the highest number of awards. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. 34 Gram Panchayats won across the nine LSDG themes, and Karnataka led with six awards, ahead of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha with five each.
For how many Assembly constituencies did the ECI publish Index Cards and Statistical Reports after the 2026 Assembly elections and bye-elections?
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Correct answer: B — 830
Index Cards and Statistical Reports were published for all 830 Assembly constituencies that went to polls.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's publication of election data in May 2026: 1. It was the first time that Statistical Reports were published within 72 hours of the declaration of poll results. 2. A re-poll was scheduled for the Falta Assembly constituency of Tamil Nadu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The re-poll was scheduled for 144-Falta Assembly constituency of West Bengal on 21 May 2026.
Where was the second round of India–Canada CEPA negotiations held from 4 to 8 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi
The second round was held at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi, hosted by the Department of Commerce.
When and where is the next (third) round of India–Canada CEPA negotiations scheduled, as per the joint statement of May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — July 2026, Ottawa
The next round is scheduled for July 2026 in Ottawa, with intersessional engagements in the interim.
Which edition of the India–Australia Defence Policy Talks was held in New Delhi on 8 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 10th
The 10th edition of the India–Australia Defence Policy Talks was held in New Delhi on 8 May 2026.
Consider the following statements about the India–Australia Defence Policy Talks of May 2026: 1. The Indian delegation was led by the Defence Secretary. 2. The first India–Australia Joint Staff Talks were held alongside the Defence Policy Talks in New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. The Indian side was led by Joint Secretary Amitabh Prasad, and both sides only looked forward to holding the first Joint Staff Talks later in the year.
Which Indian body hosted the ISO TC 20/SC 14 subcommittee meetings in New Delhi, announced in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Bureau of Indian Standards
The Bureau of Indian Standards, India's National Standards Body, organised the meetings; ISRO experts and IN-SPACe's chairman took part.
The ISO subcommittee TC 20/SC 14, whose meetings India hosted for the first time in 2026, deals with which subject?
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Correct answer: C — Space Systems and Operations
ISO/TC 20/SC 14 is the 'Space Systems and Operations' subcommittee, setting standards for the whole lifecycle of space systems.
India's Pavilion opened in May 2026 at which edition of the International Art Exhibition of La Biennale di Venezia?
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Correct answer: C — 61st
The Pavilion of India opened at the 61st International Art Exhibition of La Biennale di Venezia.
What is the title of the exhibition at the Pavilion of India at the Venice Biennale 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Geographies of Distance: remembering home
The India Pavilion presents 'Geographies of Distance: remembering home', curated by Dr Amin Jaffer; 'In Minor Keys' is the exhibition it responds to.
The India Pavilion at the 2026 Venice Biennale marks India's return to the Biennale Arte after which year?
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Correct answer: A — 2019
The exhibition marks India's return to the Biennale Arte since 2019.
Operation Sindoor, whose first anniversary was marked on 7 May 2026, was launched on which date?
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Correct answer: B — 7 May 2025
Operation Sindoor was launched on 7 May 2025; 22 April 2025 was the date of the Pahalgam terror attack.
Consider the following statements about Operation Sindoor: 1. Nine terrorist sites in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir were targeted. 2. Pakistani military facilities were among the targets struck on the first day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Government said nine sites were targeted and that no Pakistani military facilities were targeted.
Under the IndiaAI–ICMR MoU of May 2026, datasets and AI models developed under which ICMR framework will be shared on AIKosh?
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Correct answer: C — MIDAS (Medical Information Data for AI Solutions)
ICMR will contribute datasets, AI models and toolkits developed under its MIDAS framework to the AIKosh platform.
What is AIKosh, to which ICMR will contribute health datasets under its May 2026 MoU with IndiaAI?
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Correct answer: B — IndiaAI's dataset platform
AIKosh is IndiaAI's dataset platform, which will give researchers, startups and innovators wider access to biomedical datasets.
What is the new base year of India's National Accounts that States and UTs must adopt for GSDP, as per MoSPI's guideline of May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 2022-23
MoSPI has updated the base year of the National Accounts to 2022-23, and States/UTs must adopt it for GSDP.
Who chaired the ACNAS Sub-Committee on Regional Accounts that prepared the uniform GSVA guideline released in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Prof. Ravindra H. Dholakia
The Sub-Committee on Regional Accounts was chaired by Prof. Ravindra H. Dholakia, former professor at IIM Ahmedabad.
How many auctioned mineral blocks had been operationalised since the auction regime began, as announced by the Ministry of Mines in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 101
101 auctioned mineral blocks have been operationalised; 212 is the number auctioned in FY 2025–26 alone.
Which state leads in the number of operationalised auctioned mineral blocks, as per the Ministry of Mines in May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Odisha
Odisha leads with 34 operationalised blocks, followed by Karnataka (18) and Gujarat (11).
Consider the following statements about India's mineral block auctions: 1. The auction regime for mineral blocks was introduced in 2015. 2. FY 2025–26 recorded the highest-ever number of mineral blocks auctioned in a single financial year, at 212. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Mines: the auction regime began in 2015, and 212 blocks were auctioned in FY 2025–26, a record.
The Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA), reviewed by the Commerce Secretary in Switzerland in May 2026, is India's trade agreement with which grouping?
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Correct answer: C — European Free Trade Association (EFTA)
TEPA is India's first trade agreement with the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) economies.
Under the India–EFTA TEPA, EFTA has offered improved market access on what share of its tariff lines, and what share of India's exports does this cover?
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Correct answer: A — 92.2% of tariff lines, covering 99.6% of India's exports
EFTA offered improved market access on 92.2% of its tariff lines, covering 99.6% of India's exports.
India's merchandise exports to Switzerland in FY 2025–26 exceeded which figure, as stated during the Commerce Secretary's visit in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — USD 1.2 billion
India's exports to Switzerland exceeded USD 1.2 billion in FY 2025–26; USD 6.884 billion was services exports in 2024.