Banking & Insurance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many new employees were enrolled under the ESI scheme in July 2025, as per ESIC's provisional payroll data?
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Correct answer: B — 20.36 lakh
20.36 lakh new employees were added in July 2025, against 19.37 lakh in June.
What Performance Linked Reward did coal PSUs announce for each non-executive worker in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,03,000
Coal PSUs announced a PLR of ₹1,03,000, benefiting about 2.1 lakh CIL and 38,000 SCCL non-executive employees.
How many LCA Mk1A aircraft did the Defence Ministry contract from HAL on 25 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 97
The contract covers 97 LCA Mk1A aircraft – 68 fighters and 29 twin-seaters.
What is the approximate value of the LCA Mk1A contract signed with HAL on 25 September 2025 (excluding taxes)?
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Correct answer: C — ₹62,370 crore
The contract is worth over ₹62,370 crore, excluding taxes.
Under which Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020 category is the 97 LCA Mk1A purchase made?
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Correct answer: B — Buy (India-IDDM)
The acquisition is under the 'Buy (India-IDDM)' category of DAP 2020.
Which indigenous radar is among the systems to be integrated in the 97 LCA Mk1A aircraft ordered in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — UTTAM AESA
Indigenous systems to be integrated include the UTTAM AESA radar, Swayam Raksha Kavach and control surface actuators.
Consider the following statements about the LCA Mk1A contract of September 2025: 1. Deliveries will begin in 2027-28. 2. The aircraft will have an indigenous content of over 80%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: deliveries start in 2027-28 and will be completed over six years. Statement 2 is wrong: indigenous content will be over 64%.
According to MoSPI's 'Children in India 2025', what was India's infant mortality rate in 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 25
The infant mortality rate fell from 44 in 2011 to 25 in 2023.
Where was MoSPI's 'Children in India 2025' released, during the 29th Conference of Central and State Statistical Organisations?
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Correct answer: D — Chandigarh
It was released at the 29th CoCSSO in Chandigarh on 25 September 2025.
Under the ECI decision of 25 September 2025, which round of EVM/VVPAT counting can be taken up only after postal ballot counting is completed?
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Correct answer: B — The penultimate (second-last) round
The penultimate round of EVM/VVPAT counting will be taken up only after postal ballot counting is completed at that centre.
At what time does EVM counting start on counting day, according to the ECI?
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Correct answer: D — 8:30 AM
Postal ballot counting starts at 8:00 AM and EVM counting at 8:30 AM.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's postal ballot counting decision of September 2025: 1. The ECI described it as its 30th initiative in six months. 2. The ECI cited a fall in the number of postal ballots as the reason. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: postal ballots have increased substantially because of home voting for PwDs and voters aged 85+.
Under the XV Finance Commission, untied grants to rural local bodies can be used for subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Eleventh Schedule
Untied grants can be used for location-specific needs under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule, except salaries and establishment costs.
Which state received the largest share of the XV Finance Commission untied grants released on 25 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received ₹1,548.38 crore, Bihar ₹801.01 crore and Himachal Pradesh ₹67.96 crore.
From what kind of platform was the Agni-Prime missile launched for the first time on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — A rail-based mobile launcher
DRDO and SFC launched Agni-Prime from a specially designed rail-based mobile launcher – a first-of-its-kind launch.
What is the range of the Agni-Prime missile, as stated by DRDO?
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Correct answer: D — Up to 2,000 km
The next-generation Agni-Prime missile is designed to cover a range of up to 2,000 km.
Which organisation carried out the rail-based Agni-Prime launch along with DRDO in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Strategic Forces Command
DRDO carried out the launch in collaboration with the Strategic Forces Command (SFC).
Consider the following statements about the Agni-Prime launch of 24 September 2025: 1. It was the first-ever flight test of the Agni-Prime missile. 2. The road-mobile version of Agni-P has already been inducted into service. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong: it was the first launch from a rail-based launcher; the road-mobile Agni-P was inducted after a series of successful flight trials.
What is the total size of the shipbuilding and maritime package approved by the Union Cabinet on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹69,725 crore
The Cabinet approved a ₹69,725 crore four-pillar package for the shipbuilding and maritime sector.
Until when has the Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Scheme been extended under the September 2025 package?
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Correct answer: C — 31 March 2036
SBFAS is extended until 31 March 2036 with a total corpus of ₹24,736 crore.
The Shipbuilding Development Scheme approved in September 2025 aims to expand domestic shipbuilding capacity to what level?
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Correct answer: D — 4.5 million GT
The ₹19,989 crore Shipbuilding Development Scheme aims to expand capacity to 4.5 million Gross Tonnage.
Consider the following statements about the Maritime Development Fund approved in September 2025: 1. It has a corpus of ₹25,000 crore. 2. Its Maritime Investment Fund has 49% participation from the Government of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the ₹25,000 crore fund includes a ₹20,000 crore Maritime Investment Fund with 49% GoI participation and a ₹5,000 crore Interest Incentivisation Fund.
How many postgraduate medical seats will be added under Phase III of the centrally sponsored scheme approved on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5,000
Phase III will add 5,000 PG seats; a separate extension will add 5,023 MBBS seats.
What is the enhanced cost ceiling per seat under the medical seat expansion schemes approved in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1.50 crore
The schemes have an enhanced cost ceiling of ₹1.50 crore per seat.
What is the total financial implication of the two medical seat schemes approved on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹15,034.50 crore
The total is ₹15,034.50 crore for 2025-26 to 2028-29: ₹10,303.20 crore central and ₹4,731.30 crore state share.
Consider the following statements about the medical seat schemes approved in September 2025: 1. The schemes will add 5,023 PG seats and 5,000 MBBS seats. 2. The Centre will bear the entire cost. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the schemes add 5,000 PG and 5,023 MBBS seats, and the cost is shared – ₹10,303.20 crore Centre and ₹4,731.30 crore States.
Until when was General Anil Chauhan's tenure as Chief of Defence Staff extended on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 30 May 2026
The ACC extended his service as CDS up to 30 May 2026, or until further orders.
Besides being CDS, General Anil Chauhan also functions as Secretary of which department?
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Correct answer: D — Department of Military Affairs
The CDS also functions as Secretary to the Government of India, Department of Military Affairs.
On which date was General Anil Chauhan first appointed Chief of Defence Staff?
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Correct answer: B — 28 September 2022
General Anil Chauhan was appointed CDS on 28 September 2022.
Which Indian body is the implementing agency for the India–Australia Mutual Recognition Arrangement on organic products signed in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — APEDA
APEDA (India) and DAFF (Australia) are the implementing agencies.
The India–Australia organic products MRA of September 2025 was signed in the spirit of which trade agreement?
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Correct answer: D — India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement
The MRA reflects the shared commitment of the India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA).
What is the maximum Productivity Linked Bonus payable per eligible railway employee under the Cabinet decision of 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹17,951
The maximum PLB equivalent to 78 days' wages is ₹17,951 per eligible employee.
How much cargo did Indian Railways load in 2024-25, as cited in the Cabinet's bonus decision?
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Correct answer: B — 1,614.90 million tonnes
The Railways loaded a record 1,614.90 million tonnes of cargo and carried nearly 7.3 billion passengers in 2024-25.
In which country did Rajnath Singh inaugurate Tata Advanced Systems' Wheeled Armoured Platform plant on 23 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Morocco
The TASL plant is in Berrechid, Morocco.
The Wheeled Armoured Platform (WhAP) 8x8 to be produced at the Berrechid plant was jointly designed by TASL and which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — DRDO
WhAP 8x8 was jointly designed by TASL and DRDO.
In which city is Tata Advanced Systems' defence manufacturing facility in Morocco located?
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Correct answer: C — Berrechid
The facility is in Berrechid, Morocco.
Consider the following statements about the TASL facility in Morocco: 1. It is the first such plant set up by an Indian private company in Africa. 2. It became operational three months behind schedule. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the facility became operational three months ahead of schedule.
What net addition of members did EPFO record in July 2025, as per data released on 23 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 21.04 lakh
EPFO recorded a net addition of 21.04 lakh members; 9.79 lakh were new subscribers.
What share of EPFO's new subscribers in July 2025 were aged 18–25?
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Correct answer: A — 61.06%
5.98 lakh of the 9.79 lakh new subscribers – 61.06% – were aged 18–25.
Consider the following statements about EPFO's payroll data for July 2025: 1. The net addition of 21.04 lakh members was 5.55% higher than in July 2024. 2. About 16.43 lakh members who had exited earlier rejoined EPFO. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the net addition of 21.04 lakh was up 5.55% year-on-year, and about 16.43 lakh members who had exited earlier rejoined.
Under the GST rate structure that took effect on 22 September 2025, what are the Merit Rate and the Standard Rate?
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Correct answer: A — 5% and 18%
The 56th GST Council recommended a two-rate structure with a Merit Rate of 5% and a Standard Rate of 18%.
What special de-merit GST rate did the 56th GST Council recommend for a select few goods and services?
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Correct answer: C — 40%
Alongside the 5% and 18% rates, the Council recommended a special de-merit rate of 40% for a select few goods and services.
Under the GST reforms, the GST on hotel stays priced below ₹7,500 per day was changed to:
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Correct answer: B — 5% (without input tax credit)
GST on hotel stays below ₹7,500 a day was reduced from 12% to 5% without input tax credit.
Consider the following statements about the 56th GST Council decisions: 1. The GST rate on coal was reduced from 18% to 5%. 2. GST on buses with a seating capacity of 10 or more was raised from 18% to 28%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the GST on coal was raised from 5% to 18% (with the ₹400 per tonne compensation cess removed), and GST on buses with 10+ seats was cut from 28% to 18%.
Consider the following statements about the 56th GST Council: 1. The meeting was chaired by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman. 2. It recommended exempting all individual life and health insurance policies from GST. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Nirmala Sitharaman chaired the 56th meeting, which exempted all individual life and health insurance policies from GST.
In which city did India and Morocco sign an MoU on defence cooperation on 22 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rabat
The MoU was signed in Rabat, where India will also open a Defence Wing at its embassy.
Consider the following statements about the India–Morocco defence MoU of 22 September 2025: 1. A new Defence Wing will be opened at the Embassy of India in Rabat. 2. The MoU covers cooperation in counter-terrorism and cyber defence. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: India will open a Defence Wing in Rabat, and the MoU covers areas including counter-terrorism and cyber defence.
To which Russian republic did the holy relics of Lord Buddha travel for a first exposition in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Kalmykia
The relics travelled to the Republic of Kalmykia for a first exposition, during the 3rd International Buddhist Forum in Elista.
What is the theme of the 3rd International Buddhist Forum in Elista, where Buddha's relics from India were exhibited?
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Correct answer: C — Buddhism in the New Millennium
The forum's theme is "Buddhism in the New Millennium".
By how much did the Index of Eight Core Industries grow in August 2025 over August 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 6.3%
The index grew 6.3% in August 2025; 3.7% was July's final figure and 2.8% the April–August cumulative growth.
Consider the following statements about the core industries data for August 2025: 1. The eight core industries account for 40.27% of the weight of items in the IIP. 2. Crude oil and natural gas both recorded positive growth. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the eight core industries make up 40.27% of the IIP weight, while crude oil (−1.2%) and natural gas (−2.2%) declined.
Which of the eight core industries recorded 11.4% growth in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Coal
Coal output grew 11.4% in August 2025, while crude oil (−1.2%) and natural gas (−2.2%) declined.
How many additional LPG connections under PMUY were approved for FY 2025-26 on 22 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 25 lakh
The Government approved 25 lakh additional PMUY connections for FY 2025-26.
With the 25 lakh additional connections, the total number of PMUY connections will rise to:
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Correct answer: C — 10.58 crore
The total number of PMUY connections will rise to 10.58 crore.
Consider the following statements about the additional Ujjwala connections approved in September 2025: 1. The cost per connection is ₹3,000. 2. The ₹300 targeted subsidy applies to up to 12 refills a year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the cost is ₹2,050 per connection, and the ₹300 subsidy is for up to 9 refills a year.
By what margin did India beat Pakistan in their Asia Cup 2025 Super Four match in Dubai on 21 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6 wickets
ESPN and Reuters (21 Sep 2025): India beat Pakistan by 6 wickets, reaching the target of 172 with seven balls remaining.
Which Indian batter scored 74 off 39 balls in India's Asia Cup Super Four win over Pakistan on 21 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Abhishek Sharma
ESPN and Reuters (21 Sep 2025): Abhishek Sharma scored 74 off 39 balls, including six fours and five sixes.
Consider the following statements about the India–Pakistan Asia Cup Super Four match of 21 September 2025: 1. Abhishek Sharma and Shubman Gill put on 105 runs for the first wicket. 2. Pakistan set India a target of 172. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ESPN and Reuters (21 Sep 2025): Abhishek and Gill added 105 for the first wicket, and India chased down a target of 172, so both statements are correct.
Which of the following groups of countries formally recognised the State of Palestine on 21 September 2025 in coordinated statements?
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Correct answer: A — UK, Canada and Australia
The UK, Canada and Australia announced formal recognition of the State of Palestine on 21 September 2025 in coordinated statements.
The UN conference on the two-state solution, ahead of which the UK, Canada and Australia recognised Palestine in September 2025, was co-chaired by:
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Correct answer: C — France and Saudi Arabia
The conference was co-chaired by France and Saudi Arabia.
Consider the following statements about the recognitions of Palestine on 21 September 2025: 1. The UK recognised Palestinian statehood over provisional borders based on the 1967 lines with equal land swaps. 2. Portugal also announced recognition on the same day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the UK Foreign Office described recognition over provisional borders based on 1967 lines with equal land swaps, and Portugal announced recognition the same day.
Consider the following statements about the recognition of Palestine on 21 September 2025: 1. The UK and Canada became the first G7 members to recognise the State of Palestine. 2. The US State Department welcomed the recognitions as a step towards peace. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the UK and Canada were the first G7 members to take the step, while a US State Department spokesperson dismissed the move as "performative".
In his address to the nation on 21 September 2025, what did PM Modi call the beginning of the next-generation GST reforms?
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Correct answer: D — GST Bachat Utsav (savings festival)
The Prime Minister said a 'GST savings festival' (GST Bachat Utsav) would begin from 22 September.
According to PM Modi's address of 21 September 2025, what share of goods earlier taxed at 12% GST moved to the 5% rate?
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Correct answer: B — 99%
The Prime Minister said 99%, i.e. nearly 100%, of goods earlier taxed at 12% had come under the 5% rate.
PM Modi said that the income tax and GST relief decisions taken in one year would save people more than:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2.5 lakh crore
Combining income tax and GST relief, the Prime Minister said people would save more than ₹2.5 lakh crore.
In his address of 21 September 2025, PM Modi said income up to what amount had been made tax-free this year?
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Correct answer: B — ₹12 lakh
The Prime Minister said the government made income up to ₹12 lakh tax-free this year.
In which feature of the Indian Ocean did India secure exclusive rights to explore polymetallic sulphides under a contract announced on 20 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Carlsberg Ridge
The new 15-year ISA contract covers 10,000 sq km of the Carlsberg Ridge.
With which body did India's Ministry of Earth Sciences sign the contract for polymetallic sulphide exploration in the Carlsberg Ridge?
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Correct answer: D — International Seabed Authority
The 15-year contract was signed between the Ministry of Earth Sciences and the International Seabed Authority (ISA).
What is the duration of India's new ISA contract for polymetallic sulphide exploration in the Carlsberg Ridge?
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Correct answer: A — 15 years
The new contract runs for 15 years and covers 10,000 sq km.
Consider the following statements: 1. India is the first country to hold two ISA contracts for polymetallic sulphide exploration. 2. India's other PMS contract covers the Central Indian Ridge and Southwest Indian Ridge. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: with the Carlsberg Ridge contract India became the first country with two ISA PMS contracts, the other covering the Central Indian Ridge and Southwest Indian Ridge.
India was designated a 'Pioneer Investor' by virtue of being the first country to receive an area in international waters for exploration of:
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Correct answer: D — Polymetallic nodules
India was the first country to receive an area for polymetallic nodule exploration in international waters and was designated a "Pioneer Investor".
LEADS 2025, launched by Piyush Goyal on 20 September 2025, benchmarks the performance of States and UTs in:
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Correct answer: C — Logistics
LEADS stands for Logistics Ease Across Different States; the 2025 edition benchmarks logistics performance across States and UTs.
The Guidebook on Mapping of HSN Codes released by DPIIT in September 2025 allocates 12,167 HSN codes to how many ministries and departments?
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Correct answer: A — 31
The guidebook allocates 12,167 HSN codes to 31 ministries and departments of the Government of India.
Consider the following statements about the initiatives launched on 20 September 2025: 1. Logistics Data Bank 2.0 was developed by the Asian Development Bank. 2. Integrated State and City Logistics Plans under SMILE begin in 20 cities. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: LDB 2.0 was developed by NICDC Logistics Data Services (ADB supported IPRS 3.0 and SMILE), and the SMILE plans begin in eight cities across eight states.
On which date was the Make in India initiative launched, whose decade was marked in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 25 September 2014
Piyush Goyal said the Prime Minister introduced Make in India on 25 September 2014.
The Industrial Park Rating System (IPRS) 3.0, launched in September 2025, was developed by DPIIT with the support of:
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Correct answer: C — Asian Development Bank
IPRS 3.0 was developed by DPIIT with support from the Asian Development Bank (ADB).
Who was to lead India's delegation to the United States for trade talks on 22 September 2025, as announced by the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: D — Piyush Goyal
The Commerce Ministry said the delegation would be led by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal.
Officials from which US office visited India on 16 September 2025 for trade deal discussions, before Piyush Goyal's US visit?
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Correct answer: D — Office of the United States Trade Representative
Officials from the Office of the United States Trade Representative visited India on 16 September 2025.
On which portal of the National Consumer Helpline was a dedicated GST grievance category enabled in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — INGRAM
The Department of Consumer Affairs enabled a dedicated GST category on the NCH's INGRAM portal.
Under the US proclamation of 19 September 2025, what payment must accompany H-1B petitions for the restriction on entry not to apply?
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Correct answer: A — $100,000
The proclamation restricts entry of H-1B specialty-occupation workers except where petitions are accompanied or supplemented by a payment of $100,000.
For how long does the H-1B entry restriction in the US proclamation of September 2025 remain in force, absent extension?
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Correct answer: C — 12 months
The restriction expires 12 months after its effective date of 21 September 2025, unless extended.
Which provisions of the US Immigration and Nationality Act did the H-1B proclamation of 19 September 2025 invoke?
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Correct answer: D — Sections 212(f) and 215(a)
The restriction on entry was imposed pursuant to sections 212(f) and 215(a) of the INA.
Consider the following statements about India's official response to the US H-1B proclamation: 1. The MEA said the measure is likely to have humanitarian consequences by way of disruption caused for families. 2. The MEA said the full implications were being studied by all concerned, including Indian industry. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said the implications were being studied, including by Indian industry, and that the measure was likely to have humanitarian consequences for families.
Where was the 28th Universal Postal Union Congress held, at which India was re-elected to the UPU's Council of Administration and Postal Operations Council?
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Correct answer: A — Dubai
India was re-elected to both councils at the 28th UPU Congress held in Dubai, UAE.
Since which year has India been a member of the Universal Postal Union?
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Correct answer: C — 1876
India has been a member of the UPU since 1876.
Where did the third round of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations conclude on 19 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Queenstown
The third round, held from 15 to 19 September 2025, concluded in Queenstown, New Zealand.
When were the India–New Zealand FTA negotiations formally launched?
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Correct answer: A — 16 March 2025
The FTA was formally launched on 16 March 2025 at a meeting between Piyush Goyal and New Zealand's Trade Minister Todd McClay.
What was India's bilateral merchandise trade with New Zealand in 2024–25, as per the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — USD 1.3 billion
India–New Zealand merchandise trade was USD 1.3 billion in 2024–25, growth of nearly 49%.
To what level did Japan's R&I upgrade India's long-term sovereign credit rating on 19 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BBB+
R&I upgraded India to 'BBB+' from 'BBB', retaining a Stable outlook.
Which agency upgraded India's sovereign rating to 'BBB' from 'BBB-' in August 2025, before R&I's September upgrade?
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Correct answer: D — S&P
S&P upgraded India to 'BBB' from 'BBB-' in August 2025; Morningstar DBRS upgraded India to 'BBB' from 'BBB (low)' in May 2025.
Consider the following statements about India's sovereign rating upgrades in 2025: 1. R&I's upgrade in September 2025 was the third upgrade of India by a sovereign rating agency that year. 2. R&I changed India's outlook from Stable to Positive. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: it was the third upgrade of 2025, and R&I retained the Stable outlook while raising the rating to BBB+.