Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The commencement of which two laws was notified by the Government of India, as announced on 17 July 2026, to strengthen the anti-doping framework?
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Correct answer: D — National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 and National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025
The Government notified the commencement of the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 and the National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025.
India's anti-doping Acts fulfil India's obligations under which international convention?
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Correct answer: B — UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport
The Acts fulfil India's obligations under the UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport and align with the World Anti-Doping Code.
The 'White Rabbit Technology'-based Indian Standard Time distribution demonstration network inaugurated on 16 July 2026 is located in which city?
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Correct answer: C — Bengaluru
The network was inaugurated at the Regional Reference Standards Laboratory (RRSL), Jakkur, Bengaluru.
Which body is the nodal agency for the White Rabbit-based IST distribution project?
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Correct answer: A — Legal Metrology Division, Department of Consumer Affairs
The Legal Metrology Division of the Department of Consumer Affairs is the nodal agency, working with NPL, ISRO, BSNL and SEBI.
Consider the following statements about the IST Distribution Demonstration Network inaugurated on 16 July 2026: 1. The network is implemented under the 'One Nation, One Time' vision. 2. The network aims to reduce reliance on foreign time sources such as GPS. 3. The network operates outside Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) protocols. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the indigenous system complies with global UTC protocols.
Who was appointed Secretary of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, as announced on 16 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Srinivasa Kumar Tummala
The ACC approved the appointment of Dr Srinivasa Kumar Tummala as Secretary, Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Before his appointment as MoES Secretary, Dr Srinivasa Kumar Tummala headed the IOTWMS Secretariat of UNESCO-IOC in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Perth
Tummala was Head of the Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning and Mitigation System Secretariat, UNESCO-IOC, Perth, Australia.
The National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA), which the Maharashtra Legislature committed to adopt in July 2026, follows which vision?
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Correct answer: B — One Nation, One Application
NeVA is implemented under the 'One Nation, One Application' vision of the Digital India Programme.
Which Union Ministry is the counterpart for implementing NeVA in the Maharashtra Legislature?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
The Union Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs leads NeVA; an MoU with the Maharashtra Legislature Secretariat and State DPA is to be expedited.
The 'Vidhayi Gaurav Yatra' conclave addressed by the Vice-President on 15 July 2026 marked how many years of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
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Correct answer: D — 75 years
The conclave was part of the 75th-year celebrations of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.
Who addressed the valedictory session of the Vidhayi Gaurav Yatra at the Rajasthan Vidhan Sabha on 15 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan
Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan addressed the valedictory session in Jaipur.
Who was the West Bengal Chief Minister at the review meeting chaired by Shivraj Singh Chouhan in Kolkata on 14 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Suvendu Adhikari
The meeting was attended by Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari, members of the State Cabinet and officials.
How much did the Centre approve for rural development in West Bengal, as announced at the 14 July 2026 Kolkata review?
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Correct answer: D — ₹8,508 crore
Over ₹8,508 crore was approved by the Centre; with the State share, more than ₹12,064 crore will flow through Panchayats.
The book 'The Voice of Justice', released by the Vice-President on 14 July 2026, collects the speeches of which former Chief Justice of India?
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Correct answer: D — B. R. Gavai
'The Voice of Justice: Justice Gavai Speaks' brings together speeches and lectures of former CJI B. R. Gavai.
What penalty did the Competition Commission of India impose on HP India by its order dated 13 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹11.98 crore
CCI imposed ₹11.98 crore on HP India and about ₹2.30 crore combined on sixteen resellers.
The CCI case against HP India and its resellers arose from a lesser penalty application filed by HP India under which section of the Competition Act, 2002?
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Correct answer: B — Section 46
HP India filed a lesser penalty (leniency) application under Section 46; the penalty itself was imposed under Section 27 for violating Section 3(3)(d) read with 3(1).
In which city did Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla inaugurate Ashoka Health City on 12 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Nashik
Om Birla inaugurated Ashoka Health City in Nashik, Maharashtra.
Where did Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan inaugurate the orientation programme for members of the 18th Bihar Legislative Assembly on 11 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — BIPARD, Gaya Ji
The two-day programme was inaugurated at the Bihar Institute of Public Administration and Rural Development (BIPARD), Gaya Ji.
According to Amit Shah's directions at the Bureau of Port Security review on 10 July 2026, private security personnel deployed at ports must be trained by which force?
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Correct answer: A — CISF
Amit Shah said only private security personnel who have received training from the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) should be deployed.
The 'Nabhmitra' app, which Amit Shah asked to be promoted among fishermen, was developed by which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — ISRO
The Home Minister said the 'Nabhmitra' app, developed by ISRO, should be promoted so more fishermen download it.
Under the July 2026 amendment to the Drugs Rules, 1945, high-alcohol formulations were moved to which schedule requiring prescription sale?
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Correct answer: C — Schedule H1
The amendment shifts these products to Schedule H1, which mandates sale against a registered medical practitioner's prescription.
What threshold triggers the new licensing requirement for alcohol-containing formulations under the July 2026 amendment?
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Correct answer: A — More than 12% v/v ethyl alcohol in quantities above 30 mL
Formulations with more than 12% v/v ethyl alcohol in quantities exceeding 30 mL are no longer covered by the Schedule K exemption.
Consider the following statements about the July 2026 amendment to the Drugs Rules, 1945: 1. It removes certain alcohol-containing formulations from the licensing exemption under Schedule K. 2. Affected products must now obtain licences under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. 3. The amendment bans the manufacture of all tinctures containing ethyl alcohol. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: there is no ban; the products need licences and prescriptions so they remain available for legitimate therapeutic use.
Who chaired NITI Aayog's stakeholder consultation on implementing the SHANTI Act, 2025 on 10 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Prof. Abhay Karandikar
The consultation was chaired by Prof. Abhay Karandikar, Member, NITI Aayog.
The SHANTI Act, 2025 relates to which sector?
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Correct answer: C — Nuclear energy
SHANTI stands for Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India; the Act covers nuclear energy and ionising radiation.
Consider the following statements about the SHANTI Act, 2025: 1. It received the assent of the President on 20 December 2025. 2. It gives statutory recognition to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB). 3. It permits limited private participation in the nuclear sector under regulatory oversight. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: the Act got assent on 20 December 2025 (Act No. 39 of 2025), grants statutory recognition to AERB and enables limited private participation under regulatory oversight.
Which four states signed the agreement on pending Narmada Award payments on 7 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
The Chief Ministers of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh signed the agreement in New Delhi.
The Narmada Award payment dispute settled in July 2026 related to cost-sharing for which project?
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Correct answer: D — Sardar Sarovar Project
The agreement resolved disputes over cost-sharing for construction of the Sardar Sarovar Project.
Where is the headquarters of the Narmada Control Authority, the body set up to implement the Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal's award?
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Correct answer: A — Indore
NCA's official site says the authority has its headquarters at Indore; the 1979 award had kept it at New Delhi until a permanent location was decided.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal was constituted in 1969 under the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956. 2. The Tribunal's decision was published in the Official Gazette on 12 December 1979. 3. The Narmada Control Authority is funded mainly by the Central Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (India Code notification S.O. 770(E)). Statement 3 is wrong: NCA says it is funded in equal proportions by the four states.
On which date will polling be held for the Datia, Manjalpur and Bankipur Assembly bye-elections notified on 6 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 30 July 2026
Polling is on 30 July 2026; 13 July is the last date for nominations, 16 July for withdrawals and 3 August is counting day.
The 182-Bankipur Assembly constituency, which goes to a bye-election in July 2026, is in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Bihar
The notifications cover 22-Datia (Madhya Pradesh), 145-Manjalpur (Gujarat) and 182-Bankipur (Bihar).
Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 entitles an employed voter to a paid holiday on polling day?
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Correct answer: D — Section 135B
ECI cites Section 135B for the paid holiday on polling day; Section 135C covers the prohibition on sale of liquor (dry days).
In which year was the Union Ministry of Cooperation created, which marked its 5th Foundation Day in July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 2021
Amit Shah said the Ministry of Cooperation was created in 2021.
How many national-level cooperative societies exist, as stated at the Ministry of Cooperation's 5th Foundation Day?
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Correct answer: B — Nine
Shah said a total of nine national-level cooperative societies have been formed, including three newly created ones.
Bharat Beej Sahakari Samiti Limited (BBSSL), mentioned by Amit Shah in July 2026, is expected to become what within three years?
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Correct answer: A — India's largest seed production company
Shah said BBSSL will emerge as the country's largest seed production company within the next three years.
Where was the Ministry of Law and Justice's Reforms Utsav & Chintan Shivir 2026 held on 4-5 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Gyan Sarovar, Mount Abu, Rajasthan
The event was held at Gyan Sarovar, Mount Abu, Rajasthan.
What was the outcome document adopted at the end of the Law Ministry's Reforms Utsav & Chintan Shivir 2026 called?
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Correct answer: A — Sankalp Patra (Mount Abu Declaration)
The Shivir concluded with the adoption of the Mount Abu Declaration, the Ministry's 'Sankalp Patra'.
Which plan was adopted after Amit Shah's review of illegal coal mining and theft in Dhanbad and nearby areas (announced 5 July 2026)?
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Correct answer: C — Zero Coal Leakage Plan
A 'Zero Coal Leakage Plan' was adopted to ensure a comprehensive and time-bound response to illegal mining and unauthorised transport of coal.
Under which Act have CISF and Coal India Limited officials been authorised to file cases and seize illegally mined coal?
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Correct answer: B — Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
CISF and CIL officials have been authorised to act under the MMDR Act, 1957, which lets them file cases, enter premises, search and seize illegally extracted minerals.
Consider the following directions given at the review of illegal coal mining: 1. The coal sector is to be included in the priority list for CISF deployment. 2. GST authorities are to verify e-way bills for coal being transported. 3. The Army is to be deployed in vulnerable coal areas. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
The directions covered CISF priority deployment, CISF Quick Response Teams and e-way bill checks through GST authorities; no Army deployment was mentioned.
About how many erstwhile Ordnance Factory employees are covered by the government's decision to redeploy them into regular government service (highlighted on 5 July 2026)?
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Correct answer: C — 65,000
The decision covers nearly 65,000 erstwhile Ordnance Factory employees, following the restructuring of the Ordnance Factory Board.
Of the 23 individuals designated as terrorists by the MHA on 4 July 2026, how many are Pakistani nationals?
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Correct answer: C — 17
Of the 23 designated terrorists, 17 are Pakistani nationals and 6 are Indian nationals.
Under which law did the Ministry of Home Affairs designate 23 individuals as terrorists on 4 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
Amit Shah said the 23 were declared terrorists under the provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.
The power to designate an individual (not only an organisation) as a terrorist under UAPA was introduced by the UAPA (Amendment) Act, 2019. Individuals are listed in which Schedule of the Act?
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Correct answer: D — Fourth Schedule
The 2019 amendment added the Fourth Schedule [see sections 35(1) and 36] for names of individuals; terrorist organisations are in the First Schedule.
On 4 July 2026, Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan submitted his enumeration form under which exercise?
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Correct answer: C — Special Intensive Revision of the electoral roll
He submitted his enumeration form under the ongoing Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of the electoral roll in Delhi.
Under Article 224 of the Constitution, for what maximum period can an additional judge of a High Court be appointed?
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Correct answer: B — Two years
The Supreme Court (Lok Prahari, 2021) notes that under Article 224 an additional judge is appointed for a period not exceeding two years.
In July 2026 the NHRC took suo motu cognizance of the assault on 12 bonded labourers at a paper plate factory in which district of Uttar Pradesh?
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Correct answer: B — Muzaffarnagar
The factory is in Mandi village, Muzaffarnagar district, Uttar Pradesh; the complaint was filed at Titawi Police Station.
In the Muzaffarnagar bonded labour case (July 2026), the NHRC directed the District Magistrate to inquire as per the Ministry of Labour and Employment's SOP and which law?
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Correct answer: C — Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976
The Commission directed the Muzaffarnagar DM to inquire as per the MoLE SOP and the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976.
The National Awards for e-Governance, under which ICMR-MINDS won a Gold Award in July 2026, are instituted by:
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Correct answer: B — Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
The National Awards for e-Governance are instituted by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions.
Where was the 29th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) 2026 held on 1-2 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Jaipur
The 29th NCeG 2026 was held in Jaipur, Rajasthan on 1-2 July 2026.
The July 2026 amendment to the Drugs Rules, 1945 brought cell or stem cell derived products, gene therapeutic products and xenografts under the:
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Correct answer: B — Centrally License Approving Authority (CLAA) framework
The amendment brings these products under the Centrally License Approving Authority (CLAA) framework of joint Central and State oversight.
In the context of the July 2026 amendment to the Drugs Rules, 1945, 'xenografts' refer to:
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Correct answer: C — Animal tissue-derived products such as heart valves transplanted into humans
Xenografts are animal tissue-derived products, such as heart valves, which can be transplanted into humans; they are used in cardiology and orthopaedics.
According to the Lok Sabha Secretariat (July 2026), who is the Speaker of the West Bengal Legislative Assembly who was to deliver the welcome address at the orientation programme for newly elected MLAs?
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Correct answer: A — Rathindra Bose
Speaker of the West Bengal Legislative Assembly Rathindra Bose was to deliver the welcome address; Ritabrata Banerjee is Leader of Opposition and Dr Shankar Ghosh is the state Parliamentary Affairs Minister.
After the revised wage rates under the VB-G RAM G Act were notified on 1 July 2026, the national average notified wage became:
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Correct answer: A — Rs 327.4 per day
The national average notified wage rose from Rs 298.8 to Rs 327.4 per day, an increase of more than 10 per cent.
Under the revised VB-G RAM G wage rates notified on 1 July 2026, no notified daily wage anywhere in India is below:
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Correct answer: C — Rs 300
With the revised rates, no notified daily wage anywhere in the country is below Rs 300.
With the commencement of the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 on 1 July 2026, which law stands repealed from the same date?
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Correct answer: D — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
Per PIB's press note of 11 May 2026, MGNREGA, 2005 stands repealed from 1 July 2026, the date the VB-G RAM G Act comes into force; the new Act replaces it.
Under Section 6 of the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, States may notify a pause period during peak sowing and harvesting seasons aggregating to:
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Correct answer: B — Sixty days in a financial year
The Act empowers States to notify an aggregated pause period of sixty days in a financial year (Section 6); the 125-day guarantee is provided in the remaining period.
Under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, the unemployment allowance payable when work is not provided in time is:
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Correct answer: C — Not less than one-fourth of the wage rate for the first thirty days and not less than one-half for the rest of the year
The allowance is not less than one-fourth of the notified wage rate for the first thirty days of the financial year and not less than one-half for the remaining period.
The e-OCI Card launched by Amit Shah on 30 June 2026 is expected to benefit how many OCI cardholders?
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Correct answer: A — More than 50 lakh
The launch of the e-OCI Card will benefit more than 50 lakh OCI cardholders.
Data of the FCRA 2.0 Portal launched in June 2026 will be hosted on:
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Correct answer: C — MeghRaj (Government Cloud)
All the portal's data will be hosted on 'MeghRaj' (Government Cloud).
The National Study Report on 'Low Participation in Gram Sabha across States and Union Territories' (June 2026) was prepared by:
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Correct answer: B — National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj
The report was prepared by NIRD&PR for the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and released by NITI Aayog Member Dr R. Balasubramaniam.
Who released the National Study Report on low participation in Gram Sabhas in New Delhi on 30 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Dr R. Balasubramaniam, Member, NITI Aayog
The report was released by Dr R. Balasubramaniam, Member, NITI Aayog, in the presence of Panchayati Raj Secretary Vivek Bhardwaj.
The SUMAN Roadmap 2030, launched at the 16th CCHFW conference on 29 June 2026, is a strategic framework for:
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Correct answer: B — Maternal and newborn healthcare
The SUMAN Roadmap 2030 is a framework to transform maternal and newborn healthcare and speed up progress towards the SDGs by 2030.
The Central Council of Health and Family Welfare, which held its 16th conference in June 2026, is constituted under which Article of the Constitution of India?
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Correct answer: D — Article 263
The CCHFW is constituted under Article 263, which empowers the President to establish an inter-State council; it is the apex advisory body of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
The Samagra Shishu Bal Swasthya Karyakram (SSBSK), launched in June 2026, provides home and community-based care for children from birth up to what age?
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Correct answer: A — 36 months
SSBSK provides a continuum of home and community-based care for every child from birth to 36 months, with the vision 'Pehle Teen Saal Sampoorna Dekhbhal'.
Consider the following statements about the 16th CCHFW conference (June 2026): 1. The SUMAN Roadmap 2030 has focused interventions in 130 districts across 13 high-focus States. 2. SSBSK integrates the Home-Based Newborn Care (HBNC) and Home-Based Care for Young Child (HBYC) programmes. 3. The conference was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The conference was held at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, not Bharat Mandapam.