Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
In March 2026, the Andhra Pradesh Cabinet sought statutory recognition of which city as the state's sole capital?
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Correct answer: A — Amaravati
The Cabinet resolved to request the Centre to declare and notify Amaravati as the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh.
To recognise Amaravati as the capital, which section of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 is to be amended?
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Correct answer: B — Section 5
The resolution seeks amendment of Section 5 of the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014, which deals with the capital.
Why does the Andhra Pradesh Cabinet's Amaravati resolution (March 2026) require action by the Union government and Parliament?
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Correct answer: D — The AP Reorganisation Act, 2014 is a Central Act, so only Parliament can amend it
The capital provision is in Section 5 of the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014 – a Central Act – so the State can only request the Centre, and Parliament must amend it.
In the 2026 Assembly elections, ECI flying squads are required to attend to complaints within:
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Correct answer: C — 100 minutes
Over 5,173 flying squads have been deployed to ensure complaints are attended to within 100 minutes.
The system used by the ECI to record seizures of illicit inducements in the 2026 elections is called:
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Correct answer: D — ESMS (Electronic Seizure Management System)
Seizures are tracked through the Electronic Seizure Management System (ESMS), activated on 26 February 2026.
Consider the following about seizures in the 2026 Assembly elections (as of 25 March 2026): 1. Total seizures crossed ₹400 crore. 2. Cash formed the largest part of the seizures. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Seizures totalled over ₹408.82 crore, but cash was only ₹17.44 crore – less than the ₹37.68 crore of liquor alone – so statement 2 is wrong.
Of the XV Finance Commission untied grants released to rural local bodies of four states (March 2026), which state received the largest amount?
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Correct answer: A — Madhya Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh received ₹631.91 crore, ahead of Jharkhand (₹269.03 crore), Punjab (₹222 crore) and Mizoram (₹14.80 crore).
In Mizoram, the XV Finance Commission rural grants released in March 2026 went to which type of local body?
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Correct answer: B — Village Councils
Mizoram's ₹14.80 crore went to all 816 eligible Village Councils – Mizoram's rural local bodies.
The IVFRT scheme, extended by the Union Cabinet in March 2026, relates to:
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Correct answer: D — Immigration, visa and foreigners' registration
IVFRT stands for Immigration, Visa, Foreigners Registration & Tracking; it was extended to 31 March 2031 with ₹1,800 crore.
Consider the following about the IVFRT scheme: 1. Its continuation for 2026-2031 carries an outlay of ₹1,800 crore. 2. It was first approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs in 2010. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The 2026-31 continuation is ₹1,800 crore; the CCEA first approved the project on 13 May 2010.
In March 2026, which state became the second after Uttarakhand to pass a Uniform Civil Code Bill?
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Correct answer: B — Gujarat
The Gujarat Assembly passed the Gujarat Uniform Civil Code Bill on 24 March 2026. Uttarakhand was the first, in February 2024.
The Gujarat UCC Bill (2026) was brought after the report of an expert committee headed by:
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Correct answer: D — Justice Ranjana Desai
The committee headed by former Supreme Court judge Ranjana Desai submitted its report before the Bill was tabled by CM Bhupendra Patel.
Consider the following about the Gujarat Uniform Civil Code Bill passed in March 2026: 1. It makes registration of live-in relationships mandatory. 2. It applies to all residents of Gujarat, including the Scheduled Tribe population. 3. Bigamy is punishable with imprisonment of up to 7 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
The Bill exempts the Scheduled Tribe population, so statement 2 is wrong; it mandates registration of live-in relationships and prescribes up to 7 years' jail for bigamy.
In March 2026, which state's Assembly passed a Bill to use ballot papers instead of EVMs in panchayat elections?
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Correct answer: B — Karnataka
The Karnataka Assembly passed the Karnataka Gram Swaraj and Panchayat Raj (Amendment) Bill, 2026, on 23 March 2026.
The 'Eva Nammava' Bill passed by the Karnataka Assembly on 23 March 2026 deals with:
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Correct answer: D — Honour crimes linked to marriage
The Karnataka Freedom of Choice in Marriage and Prohibition of Crimes in the Name of Honour and Tradition Bill, 2026 ('Eva Nammava') aims to curb honour crimes.
Consider the following about the Karnataka Gram Swaraj and Panchayat Raj (Amendment) Bill, 2026: 1. It provides for ballot papers in gram, taluk and zilla panchayat elections. 2. It also applies to elections to the Karnataka Legislative Assembly. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The Bill amends the Karnataka Gram Swaraj and Panchayat Raj Act and covers only gram, taluk and zilla panchayat elections, not Assembly elections.
Under Telangana's Parents Support Bill approved by the Cabinet in March 2026, how much is deducted from the salary of an employee who neglects aged parents?
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Correct answer: C — 15% of salary or ₹10,000, whichever is lower
15% of salary or ₹10,000, whichever is lower, will be deducted and paid directly to the parents.
The Telangana Cabinet meeting of 23 March 2026, which cleared a hate speech Bill, was chaired by:
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Correct answer: A — A. Revanth Reddy
The Cabinet met under Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy.
Consider the following about the Telangana Cabinet decisions of 23 March 2026: 1. The gig workers Bill is expected to benefit about 4.2 lakh gig and platform workers. 2. Under the Parents Support Bill, the deducted salary is paid into a state welfare fund rather than to the parents. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The deducted amount is paid directly to the parents, so statement 2 is wrong; the gig workers Bill covers about 4.2 lakh workers.
Under which provision does the Election Commission allot free broadcast and telecast time on Doordarshan and AIR to recognised parties?
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Correct answer: B — Section 39A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
The ECI issued the directions under Section 39A of the RP Act, 1951, for the 2026 Assembly elections.
For the 2026 Assembly elections, what base broadcast time has the ECI allotted to each recognised party on both Doordarshan and All India Radio?
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Correct answer: C — 45 minutes
Each party gets a base time of 45 minutes on both Doordarshan and AIR, plus extra time based on its previous Assembly poll performance.
The National DMF Summit 2026 focused on effective use of District Mineral Foundation funds in which areas?
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Correct answer: A — Aspirational District and Aspirational Block Programme areas
The theme was 'Effective Utilisation of DMF Funds for Aspirational District Programme (ADP) and Aspirational Block Programme (ABP) Areas'.
On 22 March 2026 Narendra Modi surpassed whose record to become the longest-serving head of a government in India?
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Correct answer: D — Pawan Kumar Chamling
Modi passed the 8,930-day record of former Sikkim Chief Minister Pawan Kumar Chamling.
The record surpassed by Narendra Modi on 22 March 2026 was of how many days as head of a government?
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Correct answer: B — 8,930 days
Chamling's record was 8,930 days; Modi reached 8,931 days.
Consider the following about the record set on 22 March 2026: 1. The count includes Narendra Modi's tenure as Chief Minister of Gujarat. 2. The previous record-holder was a former Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The 8,931 days cover Modi's time as Gujarat CM and then as PM; the previous record-holder, Pawan Kumar Chamling, was Chief Minister of Sikkim.
Which body, chaired by the Prime Minister, met on 22 March 2026 to review mitigating measures for the West Asia conflict?
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Correct answer: A — Cabinet Committee on Security
The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS), chaired by PM Narendra Modi, reviewed the situation and mitigating measures.
At the CCS meeting of 22 March 2026, the Prime Minister directed the creation of:
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Correct answer: D — A group of Ministers and Secretaries working in a whole-of-government approach
The PM directed that a group of Ministers and Secretaries be created to work dedicatedly in a whole-of-government approach, with sectoral groups consulting stakeholders.
How many standardised Voter Facilitation Posters must be displayed at each polling station in the 2026 polls, as per the ECI's direction of 22 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Four
Four uniform Voter Facilitation Posters will show polling station details, list of candidates, do's and don'ts, approved ID documents and the voting process.
Consider the following about the ECI's directions of 22 March 2026 for polling stations: 1. Provision of Assured Minimum Facilities is advisory and left to the discretion of CEOs. 2. Voters can deposit their switched-off mobile phones with a volunteer outside the polling station entrance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The ECI said AMF provisioning is mandatory and will be monitored, so statement 1 is wrong; a mobile phone deposit facility will be provided outside the entrance.
In the first stage of EVM randomisation, EVMs are randomly allocated:
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Correct answer: C — From district warehouses to Assembly Constituencies
In the first stage EVMs move from district warehouses to ACs; in the second stage from AC level to polling stations.
Through which software system was the first randomisation of EVM-VVPATs carried out in March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — EVM Management System (EMS)
District Election Officers carried out the first randomisation through the EVM Management System (EMS).
Consider the following about the first randomisation of EVM-VVPATs in March 2026: 1. Only machines that passed First Level Checking were included. 2. It was carried out in the presence of representatives of recognised political parties. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: only FLC-passed EVM-VVPATs were randomised, in the presence of representatives of National and State recognised parties.
After the expansion of 20 March 2026, the Uttarakhand Cabinet reached its full strength of:
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Correct answer: B — 12
Five ministers were inducted, taking the Cabinet to its full strength of 12.
Which of the following was among the ministers inducted into the Uttarakhand Cabinet on 20 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Madan Kaushik
Madan Kaushik was inducted along with Khajan Dass, Ram Singh Kaira, Pradeep Batra and Bharat Singh Chaudhary.
Electors above 85 and flagged PwDs who want to vote by postal ballot in the 2026 Assembly elections must apply using:
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Correct answer: A — Form 12D
Such electors can avail the facility using Form 12D, submitted to the Returning Officer through their BLO within 5 days of notification.
Consider the following about the postal ballot facility for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Form 12D can be submitted up to 15 days after the notification of election. 2. The facility for electors above 85 and PwDs flows from Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Form 12D must be submitted within 5 days of notification. Statement 2 is correct.
For the 2026 Assembly elections in five States/UTs, the ECI deployed roughly one election official for every how many electors?
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Correct answer: C — 70
Over 25 lakh officials for over 17.4 crore electors amounts to nearly one official for every 70 electors.
Consider the following about the ECI's deployment for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Expenditure Observers outnumber General Observers among the Central Observers. 2. Deployed personnel are deemed to be on deputation to the ECI under Section 28A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: there are 557 General Observers and 366 Expenditure Observers. Statement 2 is correct.
How many Central Observers did the Election Commission deploy for the 2026 Assembly elections in five States/UTs and the bye-elections?
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Correct answer: C — 1,111
The ECI deployed 1,111 observers: 557 general, 188 police and 366 expenditure observers.
The Election Commission appoints Central Observers under Article 324 of the Constitution read with which provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1951?
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Correct answer: D — Section 20B
Central Observers are appointed under Article 324 and Section 20B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Untied grants of the Fifteenth Finance Commission released to rural local bodies can be used for the subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: B — Eleventh Schedule
Untied grants are used for location-specific felt needs under the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule, except salaries and establishment costs.
Consider the following about the XV-FC grants announced on 17 March 2026: 1. Madhya Pradesh received the largest first-instalment release among the five states. 2. The grants are released directly by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj without any role of the Ministry of Finance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (₹630.65 crore for MP). Statement 2 is wrong: the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and DDWS recommend the release, which is then made by the Ministry of Finance.
The Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Bill, 2026, passed by the state Legislative Council on 17 March 2026, deals with:
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Correct answer: D — Prohibiting religious conversions through force, fraud, allurement or marriage
The bill seeks to prohibit conversions carried out through force, coercion, allurement, misrepresentation, fraud or marriage.
Consider the following about the Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Bill, 2026: 1. The Legislative Assembly passed it a day before the Legislative Council. 2. It became law immediately on passage by the Council, without the Governor's assent. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Assembly passed it on 16 March and the Council on 17 March 2026. Statement 2 is wrong: it needs the Governor's assent to become law.
Who was appointed by the ECI on 16 March 2026 as Special Observer for the Assam Assembly election 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Manjeet Singh
Manjeet Singh, a retired IAS officer of the Rajasthan cadre, was appointed Special Observer for Assam.
On which date is polling scheduled for the 2026 Assam Legislative Assembly election?
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Correct answer: B — 9 April 2026
Polling in Assam is on 9 April 2026 and counting on 4 May 2026.
Consider the following about the Special Observer appointed for the 2026 Assam Assembly election: 1. The appointment was made under Article 324 of the Constitution. 2. The Special Observer is a serving IAS officer of the Assam-Meghalaya cadre. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Manjeet Singh is a retired IAS officer of the Rajasthan cadre.
In how many phases will the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election be held, as announced by the ECI on 15 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Two
West Bengal votes in two phases, on 23 April and 29 April 2026; Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry vote in a single phase.
On which date will votes be counted for the 2026 Assembly elections in Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Puducherry?
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Correct answer: D — 4 May 2026
Counting for all five Assemblies is scheduled for 4 May 2026.
Which of the following Assemblies going to polls in 2026 has the largest number of seats?
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Correct answer: D — West Bengal
West Bengal has 294 seats, against 234 in Tamil Nadu, 140 in Kerala, 126 in Assam and 30 in Puducherry.
For the 2026 Assembly elections, the Election Commission fixed the maximum number of electors per polling station at:
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Correct answer: B — 1,200
The ECI press note of 15 March 2026 says there shall be a maximum of 1,200 electors in a polling station.
Consider the following about the 2026 Assembly elections announced on 15 March 2026: 1. The ECI conducts them in exercise of powers under Article 324 read with Article 172(1) of the Constitution and Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into force only after the formal notification of each phase. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct as per the ECI press note. Statement 2 is wrong: the Model Code of Conduct came into effect immediately from the announcement of the schedule.
Along with the 2026 Assembly elections, the ECI announced bye-elections to how many Assembly constituencies in Goa, Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Nagaland and Tripura?
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Correct answer: B — Eight
Bye-elections were announced for 8 Assembly constituencies spread across these six States.
The DA arrears that West Bengal announced on 15 March 2026 it would pay from March 2026 relate to which pay rules?
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Correct answer: C — ROPA 2009
The arrears are under the West Bengal Revision of Pay and Allowances (ROPA) Rules, 2009.
To what amount did West Bengal raise the monthly honorarium of purohits and muezzins on 15 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2,000
The honorarium was raised by ₹500, from ₹1,500 to ₹2,000 per month.
Which postal circle was praised on 15 March 2026 for ranking second in the country in overall revenue?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
At the GDS Sammelan in Chennai, MoS Pemmasani lauded the Tamil Nadu postal circle for ranking second in overall revenue.
Consider the following about India Post, as recalled at the GDS Sammelan in Chennai on 15 March 2026: 1. India Post in its present form was established on 1 October 1854. 2. The General Post Office in Calcutta was set up in 1774. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the GPO in Calcutta was set up in 1774, and India Post in its present form was established on 1 October 1854.
According to the MoS Communications on 15 March 2026, India Post works through more than how many post offices?
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Correct answer: C — 1.6 lakh
India Post works through more than 1.6 lakh post offices, with about four lakh regular employees and over 2.5 lakh Gramin Dak Sevaks.
What is the toll-free helpline number for pro bono legal services highlighted at the Tele-Law workshop in Chennai on 14 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 14454
The toll-free helpline 14454 offers pro bono legal services under the Tele-Law programme.
Consider the following about the Tele-Law programme discussed in Chennai on 14 March 2026: 1. It is run under the DISHA (Designing Innovative Solutions for Holistic Access to Justice) scheme of the Department of Justice. 2. Article 39A of the Constitution, cited at the workshop, deals with equal justice and free legal aid. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Tele-Law is a DISHA programme of the Department of Justice, and the Madras High Court Chief Justice cited Articles 14, 21 and 39A — Article 39A being the Directive Principle on equal justice and free legal aid.
Under which law was Sonam Wangchuk detained before the Centre revoked his detention on 14 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — National Security Act
Wangchuk was detained on 26 September 2025 under the National Security Act on an order of the District Magistrate, Leh.
Consider the following about the revocation of Sonam Wangchuk's detention: 1. The detention order had been issued by the District Magistrate, Leh. 2. The detention was revoked by an order of the Supreme Court. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Government/MHA revoked the detention by exercising powers under the National Security Act.
The Accounts & Audit Module launched on 13 March 2026 on the UMEED Central Portal is meant for:
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Correct answer: A — Waqf institutions
The module lets Waqf institutions record income and expenditure and pay statutory contributions to State Waqf Boards through the portal.
The 'Eva Nammava Eva Nammava' Bill, 2026, cleared by a State Cabinet on 12 March 2026, belongs to which State?
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Correct answer: A — Karnataka
The Karnataka Cabinet cleared the Bill on freedom of choice in marriage and against honour crimes.
What minimum prison term does Karnataka's 'Eva Nammava Eva Nammava' Bill propose for those responsible for honour killings?
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Correct answer: B — Five years
The revised draft proposes a minimum prison term of five years for honour killings.
How was the resolution seeking the removal of Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla disposed of on 11 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Rejected by voice vote
After nearly 13 hours of debate, the Lok Sabha rejected the resolution by voice vote amid Opposition protests.
Who was in the Chair of the Lok Sabha during the debate and vote on the resolution to remove Speaker Om Birla on 11 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Jagdambika Pal
Jagdambika Pal presided; a Speaker cannot preside while a resolution for his own removal is under consideration.
Consider the following statements about the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha under Article 94(c): 1. The resolution must be passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. 2. At least 14 days' notice must be given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Article 94(c) requires a majority of all the then members of the House (an effective majority, not just those present and voting), and its proviso requires at least 14 days' notice.
Consider the following about the Speaker while a resolution for his removal is under consideration in the Lok Sabha (Article 96): 1. The Speaker cannot preside over the sitting. 2. The Speaker has the right to speak in the House. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: under Article 96 the Speaker does not preside while a removal resolution is under consideration, but may speak and take part in the proceedings.
Before 2026, in which year was a motion for the removal of a Lok Sabha Speaker last moved, against Balram Jakhar?
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Correct answer: C — 1987
Earlier motions were moved against G. V. Mavalankar (1954), Hukam Singh (1966) and Balram Jakhar (1987); Amit Shah noted the 2026 motion came after nearly four decades.
Dr Partha Biswas assumed charge on 10 March 2026 as a Member of which body?
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Correct answer: C — National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Dr Partha Biswas took charge as a Member of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC).
Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Scheduled Castes: 1. It is a constitutional body under Article 338. 2. The Constitution (Eighty-ninth Amendment) Act, 2003 created a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes under Article 338A. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the NCSC functions under Article 338, and the 89th Amendment Act, 2003 bifurcated the earlier joint commission, inserting Article 338A for the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
Where did the Election Commission of India review poll preparedness for the West Bengal Assembly elections on 9 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Kolkata
The Commission held the review in Kolkata, meeting political parties and enforcement and district officials.
Which forms did the CEC say could still be filed for inclusion, deletion or correction in the West Bengal electoral rolls after the SIR?
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Correct answer: B — Forms 6, 7 and 8
CEC Gyanesh Kumar said Forms 6/7/8 can still be filed for any inclusions, deletions or changes.
Consider the following statements about Article 324 of the Constitution: 1. It vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Article 324(1) covers elections to Parliament, state legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President, and the proviso to Article 324(5) protects the CEC with Supreme Court-judge-like removal.