Current Affairs Quiz — 01 October 2025
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the financial outlay of the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses approved in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹11,440 crore
The six-year Mission has an outlay of ₹11,440 crore.
What pulses production target does the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses set for 2030-31?
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Correct answer: D — 350 lakh tonnes
The Mission aims to raise pulses production to 350 lakh tonnes by 2030-31.
Consider the following statements about the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses: 1. It provides for 100% procurement of tur, urad and masoor from farmers at MSP during the next four years. 2. The Mission runs from 2024-25 to 2028-29. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Mission runs for six years, from 2025-26 to 2030-31.
What is the MSP of wheat for Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27, approved in October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2,585 per quintal
Wheat MSP was raised by ₹160 to ₹2,585 per quintal.
Which Rabi crop received the highest absolute increase in MSP for marketing season 2026-27?
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Correct answer: A — Safflower
Safflower got the highest increase of ₹600 per quintal, followed by lentil at ₹300.
For Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27, which crop has the highest margin of MSP over its cost of production?
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Correct answer: B — Wheat
Wheat has the highest margin at 109%, followed by rapeseed and mustard (93%) and lentil (89%).
Consider the following statements about Rabi MSPs for marketing season 2026-27: 1. The MSP of lentil (masur) has been fixed at ₹7,000 per quintal. 2. The MSP of barley has been raised by ₹170 per quintal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: lentil MSP is ₹7,000 and barley MSP rose by ₹170 to ₹2,150.
After the hike approved on 1 October 2025, what is the Dearness Allowance rate for Central Government employees?
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Correct answer: C — 58%
The 3% increase takes DA from 55% to 58% of basic pay.
From which date is the DA/DR increase approved by the Cabinet on 1 October 2025 effective?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2025
The additional instalment of DA and DR is effective from 1 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the DA hike approved in October 2025: 1. It will benefit about 68.72 lakh Central Government employees. 2. The increase follows a formula based on the recommendations of the 8th Central Pay Commission. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: 68.72 lakh is the number of pensioners (employees are 49.19 lakh), and the formula is based on the 7th Central Pay Commission.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 5.50%
The MPC unanimously kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.
In its October 2025 policy, what real GDP growth did the RBI project for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 6.8%
The RBI raised its 2025-26 real GDP growth projection to 6.8% from 6.5%.
After the RBI's October 2025 policy, what is the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate?
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Correct answer: D — 5.25%
With the repo rate at 5.50%, the SDF rate remains at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy of 1 October 2025: 1. The MPC cut the repo rate by 25 basis points. 2. The CPI inflation projection for 2025-26 was lowered to 2.6%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.50%. Statement 2 is correct: the inflation projection was cut to 2.6% from 3.1%.
What investment objective is included in the India–EFTA TEPA, which came into force on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — USD 100 billion over 15 years
TEPA includes an investment objective of USD 100 billion over 15 years and one million direct jobs in India.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?
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Correct answer: C — Denmark
EFTA comprises Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein; Denmark is an EU member.
Consider the following statements about the India–EFTA TEPA: 1. Austria is one of the four EFTA countries party to the agreement. 2. The agreement entered into force on 1 January 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the four EFTA countries are Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein, and TEPA entered into force on 1 October 2025.
What did Prime Minister Narendra Modi release at the RSS centenary celebrations on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — A commemorative postage stamp and coin
The PM released a specially designed commemorative postage stamp and coin.
The commemorative stamp released at the RSS centenary in October 2025 recalls RSS volunteers marching in the Republic Day parade of which year?
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Correct answer: D — 1963
The PM said the stamp recalls RSS volunteers proudly marching in the 1963 Republic Day parade.
How much additional tax devolution did the Union Government release to States on 1 October 2025 as an advance instalment?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,01,603 crore
The Centre released ₹1,01,603 crore on 1 October 2025, in addition to the regular instalment due on 10 October.
Which State received the largest share of the advance tax devolution released on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received the largest share at ₹18,227 crore.
Under which legal provision did FIU-IND issue notices to offshore Virtual Digital Asset service providers in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Section 13 of the PMLA, 2002
The notices were issued under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
How many offshore Virtual Digital Asset service providers received non-compliance notices from FIU-IND, as announced on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 25
FIU-IND issued notices to 25 offshore VDA service providers.
How many new Kendriya Vidyalayas did the Cabinet approve on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 57
The CCEA approved 57 new KVs in the civil sector.
Kendriya Vidyalayas function abroad in three cities. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: C — Dubai
The three KVs abroad are in Moscow, Kathmandu and Tehran.
Consider the following statements about Kendriya Vidyalayas: 1. The Government approved the scheme of Kendriya Vidyalayas in 1972. 2. The 57 KVs approved in October 2025 are the first to be sanctioned with Balvatikas. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the KV scheme was approved in November 1962. Statement 2 is correct.
The four-laning of the Kalibor–Numaligarh section of NH-715, approved in October 2025, includes wildlife-friendly measures along which national park?
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Correct answer: C — Kaziranga
The project includes wildlife-friendly measures on the Kaziranga National Park stretch.
Which section of NH-715 in Assam did the Cabinet approve for four-laning on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Kalibor–Numaligarh
The CCEA approved four-laning of the 85.675 km Kalibor–Numaligarh section at ₹6,957 crore.
The Biomedical Research Career Programme (BRCP), whose Phase III was approved in October 2025, is run by the Department of Biotechnology in partnership with which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — Wellcome Trust, UK
BRCP is a DBT–Wellcome Trust (UK) partnership implemented through the India Alliance SPV.
Consider the following statements about Phase III of the Biomedical Research Career Programme: 1. Its total cost is ₹1,500 crore, of which the Department of Biotechnology contributes ₹1,000 crore. 2. The programme was first launched in 2018-19. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: BRCP was launched in 2008-09; Phase II began in 2018-19.
What was Delhi's average AQI for January–September 2025, as reported by the Environment Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — 164
Delhi's average AQI for January–September 2025 was 164, against 178 in 2024.
Consider the following statements about Delhi's air quality in January–September 2025: 1. There was no day with an average AQI above 400. 2. Delhi recorded 75 'Satisfactory' AQI days in this period. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Environment Ministry release of 1 October 2025.
On which date is NPS Diwas observed every year?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October
NPS Diwas is observed annually on 1 October.
At NPS Diwas 2025, PFRDA exchanged an MoU with which institution to reach farmers through Farmer Producer Organisations?
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Correct answer: B — NABARD
PFRDA exchanged an MoU with NABARD to strengthen outreach to the agriculture and rural sectors through FPOs.
The Union Cabinet on 1 October 2025 approved nationwide celebrations to mark how many years of the national song 'Vande Mataram'?
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Correct answer: A — 150 years
The Cabinet approved nationwide celebrations to commemorate 150 years of 'Vande Mataram'.
Which city hosted MONDIACULT 2025, the UNESCO World Conference on Cultural Policies and Sustainable Development?
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Correct answer: C — Barcelona
MONDIACULT 2025 was held in Barcelona, Spain, and closed on 1 October 2025.