Tamil Nadu Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Where was the 29th meeting of the National Tiger Conservation Authority held on 9 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Coimbatore
The 29th NTCA meeting was held at CASFOS, Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu.
Which NTCA publication released on 9 July 2026 assesses tiger reserves on infrastructure, development, ecology and social parameters?
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Correct answer: B — STRIDES 2026
'STRIDES 2026: Status of Tiger Reserves – Infrastructure, Development, Ecology & Social Parameters' was released at the meeting.
Consider the following statements about the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA): 1. It is constituted under Section 38L of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006. 2. The Union Minister in charge of Environment is its Chairperson. 3. It includes three Members of Parliament, two from the Lok Sabha and one from the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct, as per Section 38L of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and the NTCA's own description.
How much copra did the Centre approve for procurement at MSP in Tamil Nadu in 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 87,226 metric tonnes
A total of 87,226 MT of copra (87,000 MT milling and 226 MT ball copra) will be procured; 96,879 MT is the Totapuri mango quantity.
Under which scheme will Totapuri mangoes be procured in Tamil Nadu in 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Market Intervention Scheme
Totapuri mangoes will be procured under the Market Intervention Scheme at ₹1,545.41 per quintal; copra is under the Price Support Scheme.
Consider the following statements about PM-AASHA: 1. Under the Price Support Scheme, notified pulses, oilseeds and copra are procured at MSP. 2. The Market Intervention Scheme covers perishable commodities not included under MSP procurement. 3. The Price Deficit Payment Scheme involves physical procurement of oilseeds by central agencies. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: PIB says PDPS pays the gap between MSP and the selling price directly and does not involve physical procurement.
To reconstruct the topside ionosphere over India, IIG researchers combined bottomside ionosonde observations with scale-height data from which source?
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Correct answer: B — COSMIC radio occultation measurements
The method combines altitude-wise scale height derived from COSMIC radio occultation measurements with bottomside ionosonde observations.
Kamarajar Port became India's second Major Port with an 18-metre draft in July 2026. Which was the first?
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Correct answer: C — Visakhapatnam Port
PIB says Kamarajar is the second Major Port, after Visakhapatnam Port, to offer an 18-metre draft.
After Capital Dredging Phase VI, Kamarajar Port can handle Capesize vessels carrying cargo parcels of up to how much?
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Correct answer: D — 1,70,000 DWT
The port can now accommodate fully laden Capesize vessels with cargo parcels of up to 1,70,000 DWT.
Which is India's first corporatised Major Port, registered as a company?
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Correct answer: A — Kamarajar Port
Kamarajar Port Limited's official site describes it as the first corporatised Major Port in the country; it was incorporated as Ennore Port Limited in October 1999.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA), India's partner in TEPA?
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Correct answer: D — Denmark
EFTA comprises Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland; Denmark is not a member.
How much investment into India does the India-EFTA TEPA aim to facilitate?
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Correct answer: B — USD 100 billion
TEPA carries an ambition to facilitate USD 100 billion in investments into India and support one million direct jobs.
Under India-EFTA TEPA, which EFTA country eliminated its 55% import duty on feed, including fish feed?
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Correct answer: A — Iceland
Iceland eliminated its 55% duty on feed including fish feed; Norway removed a 13.16% duty and Switzerland cut fish fats and oils from 18.05% to zero.
The 2026 study that used AI on 100 years of Kodaikanal Solar Observatory suncharts was led by researchers from which institute?
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Correct answer: B — Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences
The study was led by Dibya Kirti Mishra of ARIES, an autonomous institute under DST, with collaborators including IIA Bangalore.
In the AI study of Kodaikanal suncharts (July 2026), the shift of magnetically active solar patches (plages) was traced over which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1916 to 2007
The plages were traced from 1916 to 2007 (Solar Cycles 15-23); the KoSO suncharts themselves span 1904 to 2022.
Import of firecrackers into India is 'Restricted' and requires licences from the DGFT and which other body under the Explosives Rules, 2008?
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Correct answer: D — Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO)
Firecracker imports need valid licences from both the DGFT and the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) under the Explosives Rules, 2008.
Through which port did the DRI foil attempts to smuggle Chinese-origin firecrackers worth Rs 35 crore, as reported on 27 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Chennai Port
DRI foiled two attempts to smuggle Chinese-origin fireworks and firecrackers into India through Chennai Port.
Where was the world's first hydrogen production facility based on the Copper–Chlorine thermochemical cycle using nuclear heat inaugurated on 26 June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — IGCAR, Kalpakkam
The facility was inaugurated at the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam.
The nuclear process heat for the Cu–Cl hydrogen facility inaugurated in June 2026 comes from which reactor?
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Correct answer: D — Fast Breeder Test Reactor
The facility uses nuclear process heat generated from the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) at IGCAR.
The Copper–Chlorine thermochemical hydrogen production process demonstrated at Kalpakkam in June 2026 was developed indigenously by:
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Correct answer: A — Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
The Cu–Cl thermochemical process was developed indigenously by BARC, Mumbai; the facility was built jointly by BARC and IGCAR.
FBTR expertise at IGCAR laid the foundation for the 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR). PFBR is the flagship of which stage of India's three-stage nuclear power programme?
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Correct answer: C — Second stage
DAE describes the 500 MWe PFBR as the flagship of the second stage of India's three-stage nuclear power programme.
According to its first Sustainability Report highlighted on 23 June 2026, by about how much has V.O. Chidambaranar Port cut its net carbon emissions?
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Correct answer: B — About 45%
The report found net carbon emissions reduced by around 45%; renewable energy offsets nearly 94% of the energy-consumption equivalent.
Which institution's case study 'The Hydrogen Pivot', about V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority, was released by Sarbananda Sonowal on 23 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — IIM Calcutta
Sonowal released the IIM Calcutta case study 'The Hydrogen Pivot: Orchestrating the Green Transition at V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority'.
Which State emerged as the biggest beneficiary of the PSS procurement approvals for pulses and oilseeds on 18 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh is the biggest beneficiary, with moong, urad and groundnut approvals worth over ₹1,490 crore at MSP.
Under the June 2026 PSS approvals, how much moong procurement was approved for Gujarat for the Summer 2026 season?
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Correct answer: B — 18,250 MT
18,250 MT of moong was approved for Gujarat, with an MSP value of over ₹160 crore.
Consider the following statements about the PSS approvals of 18 June 2026: 1. Tamil Nadu's moong procurement limit for RMS 2025-26 was raised from 885 MT to 990 MT. 2. Haryana received approval for procurement of 2,115 MT of moong. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Agriculture release.
In May 2026, who was appointed Director-General of Police and Head of the Police Force of Tamil Nadu?
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Correct answer: D — Mahesh Kumar Aggarwal
Tamil Nadu appointed Mahesh Kumar Aggarwal (IPS 1994) as DGP/HoPF on 29 May 2026, replacing Sandeep Rai Rathore.
Under the Supreme Court guidelines cited for the Tamil Nadu DGP appointment (May 2026), what is the fixed tenure of a State's DGP and Head of Police Force?
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Correct answer: B — Two years
Under the Prakash Singh guidelines, the DGP and Head of Police Force holds the post for a fixed tenure of two years.
The 4-lane Thiruvarur Bypass approved in May 2026 lies on which section of NH-83 in Tamil Nadu?
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Correct answer: C — Nagapattinam–Thanjavur
The 14.9-km bypass is on the Nagapattinam–Thanjavur section of NH-83.
The Thiruvarur Bypass project is expected to improve connectivity of industrial hubs like Tiruchirappalli and Coimbatore with which port towns?
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Correct answer: B — Karaikal and Nagapattinam
Gadkari said the project will connect Tiruchirappalli and Coimbatore with the port towns of Karaikal and Nagapattinam.
The ANRF Convergence Research Centres of Excellence announced in May 2026 mainly aim to:
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Correct answer: C — combine social sciences and humanities with science and technology
The programme brings together social sciences, humanities, science and technology to address complex societal challenges.
'SAṂYoga', one of the ANRF Convergence Research CoEs selected in May 2026, is a Center for Sanskrit, AI, Music and Yoga at which institution?
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Correct answer: A — IIT Madras
SAṂYoga - Center for Sanskrit AI Music and Yoga is IIT Madras's project. IIT Gandhinagar's centre is on human-climate interactions, and IIT Dharwad's is on rural livelihoods.
The Kiul–Jhajha third line project approved in May 2026 lies on which railway corridor?
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Correct answer: B — Howrah–Delhi
The 54-km Kiul–Jhajha third line is on the high-density Howrah–Delhi corridor.
What is the length and cost of the Arakkonam–Chengalpattu doubling project approved in May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 68 km, ₹993 crore
The Arakkonam–Chengalpattu doubling is 68 km at ₹993 crore. 54 km and ₹962 crore are the figures for Kiul–Jhajha.
Which institution restituted the 11th-century Chola Copper Plates to India on 16 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Leiden University Library
Leiden University Library returned the Chola Copper Plates in the presence of PM Modi and PM Rob Jetten.
The Chola Copper Plates returned in May 2026 record the gift of Anaimangalam village to a Buddha vihara located in:
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Correct answer: B — Nagapattinam
The charters formalise the gift of Anaimangalam village to the Chulamanivarma-vihara in Nagapattinam, Tamil Nadu.
Consider the following statements about the Chola Copper Plates restituted to India in May 2026: 1. The set consists of 21 large plates and 3 small plates. 2. The texts on the plates are written only in Tamil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the plates contain texts in both Tamil and Sanskrit.
India's first mega greenfield shipyard at Thoothukudi is being developed with which Korean company?
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Correct answer: C — HD Korea Shipbuilding & Offshore Engineering
The tripartite MoU is between HD Korea Shipbuilding & Offshore Engineering (HD KSOE), NSHIP-TN and Sagarmala Finance Corporation Ltd.
Consider the following statements: 1. Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047 aims to place India among the top five shipbuilding nations with output of 4.5 million GT per annum by 2047. 2. The proposed Thoothukudi greenfield shipyard alone has an envisaged annual capacity of 4.5 million GT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Thoothukudi shipyard's envisaged annual capacity is 2.5 million GT; 4.5 million GT is the national MAKV 2047 target.
The three Tamil Nadu temple bronzes whose return was announced in May 2026 are being repatriated from which institution?
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Correct answer: A — Smithsonian's National Museum of Asian Art
The bronzes are being repatriated from the Smithsonian's National Museum of Asian Art in the United States.
The Chola-period Shiva Nataraja (c. 990 CE) being repatriated from the Smithsonian originally belonged to a temple in which district of Tamil Nadu?
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Correct answer: D — Thanjavur
It belonged to the Sri Bhava Aushadesvara Temple in Thanjavur district, where it was photographed in 1957.
C. Joseph Vijay, sworn in as Tamil Nadu Chief Minister on 10 May 2026, heads which party?
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Correct answer: A — Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK)
Vijay is the president of the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK); the VCK was among the parties that backed his government.
Who administered the oath of office to C. Joseph Vijay as Tamil Nadu Chief Minister on 10 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Governor Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar
Governor Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar administered the oath of office and secrecy; under Article 164(3) the Governor administers oaths to State ministers.
How many seats did the TVK win in the 234-member Tamil Nadu Assembly in its first election in 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 108
TVK won 108 of 234 seats, short of the majority mark of 118, and formed the government with outside support.
Which of the following parties was NOT among those that backed the TVK government in Tamil Nadu in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — AIADMK
The TVK was backed by the Congress, CPI, CPI(M), VCK and IUML; the AIADMK was not among its supporters.
Consider the following statements about Article 164 of the Constitution of India: 1. The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor. 2. The forms of the oaths of office and secrecy for State Ministers are set out in the Second Schedule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Article 164(3) says the oath forms are set out in the Third Schedule; the Second Schedule deals with salaries and allowances.
Which institute set up the Urban Testbed and Aerosol Observatory inaugurated in Chennai in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune
IITM Pune, under Mission Mausam, established the observatory at SRMIST, Ramapuram, Chennai.
Mission Mausam, under which the Chennai Urban Testbed and Aerosol Observatory was set up, was launched in:
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Correct answer: D — September 2024
Mission Mausam was launched by the Prime Minister in September 2024 as a major scientific initiative of the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Which party emerged as the single largest party in the Tamil Nadu Assembly election results of 4 May 2026, winning 108 seats?
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Correct answer: C — Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK)
Vijay's Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam won 108 of 234 seats on its debut; the DMK won 59 and the AIADMK 47.
What is the majority mark in the 234-member Tamil Nadu Assembly, which the TVK missed by 10 seats in May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 118
The majority mark in the 234-member House is 118; the TVK's 108 seats left it 10 short.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election: 1. TVK chief Vijay won from both Perambur and Tiruchi East. 2. The TVK secured more than 45% of the votes polled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: Vijay won both Perambur and Tiruchi East, but the TVK's vote share was about 35%, not over 45%.
Which party finished second in the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election with 59 seats?
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Correct answer: B — DMK
The ruling DMK won 59 seats, behind the TVK's 108; the AIADMK won 47.
The indigenous Silicon Photonics Process Design Kit launched by MeitY in April 2026 was developed at:
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
Both solutions were developed at the MeitY-sponsored CoE-CPPICS, IIT Madras.
Consider the following statements about the silicon photonics solutions launched on 24 April 2026: 1. The Process Design Kit has over 50 verified components. 2. A Silicon Photonics Fab has already been commissioned under the India Semiconductor Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The PDK has over 50 verified components; a Silicon Photonics Fab is only envisaged after commercial demonstration, so only statement 1 is correct.
According to ECI's statistical report, the final state polling percentage in the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election (including postal ballots) was:
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Correct answer: C — 86.03%
ECI's Statistical Report (Highlights) records a state polling percentage of 86.03%; 78.29% was the previous highest, in 2011.
How many Assembly constituencies of Tamil Nadu went to the polls on 23 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 234
All 234 Assembly constituencies of Tamil Nadu voted in a single phase on 23 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election: 1. Of the 234 constituencies, 44 are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 2 for Scheduled Tribes. 2. Before 2026, the highest poll participation in Tamil Nadu was recorded in the 2016 Assembly election. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ECI's Highlights list 188 general, 44 SC and 2 ST seats; ECI said the previous highest participation was 78.29% in 2011, not 2016. Only statement 1 is correct.
According to ECI, total election seizures in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal up to 22 April 2026 stood at about:
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,072 crore
ECI reported total seizures of ₹1,072.13 crore in the two states, with Tamil Nadu at ₹599.24 crore and West Bengal at ₹472.89 crore.
Consider the following statements about election enforcement in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal (2026): 1. The Election Seizure Management System was activated on 26 February 2026. 2. West Bengal recorded higher total seizures than Tamil Nadu up to 22 April 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ESMS was activated on 26 February 2026; Tamil Nadu (₹599.24 crore) recorded more than West Bengal (₹472.89 crore), so only statement 1 is correct.
The fireworks unit explosion of 19 April 2026 that killed 25 workers took place in which district of Tamil Nadu?
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Correct answer: B — Virudhunagar
The blast occurred at the Vanaja Fireworks unit in Kattanarpatti, Virudhunagar district.
Consider the following statements about the Virudhunagar fireworks blast of April 2026: 1. According to the district Collector, the unit was operating on a Sunday without permission. 2. A second explosion occurred during the rescue operation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Collector said the unit was working on a Sunday without permission, and a second blast during rescue injured police personnel and firemen.
After commissioning of EVMs for the April 2026 polls, a mock poll of how many votes is held in 5% of randomly selected EVMs?
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Correct answer: C — 1,000
ECI said commissioning is followed by a mock poll of 1,000 votes in 5% of EVMs randomly selected by candidates.
Consider the following statements about EVM allocation for the 2026 Assembly polls, as described by ECI: 1. EVMs are allotted to polling stations through a two-stage randomisation using the EVM Management System. 2. Tamil Nadu has more polling stations voting on 23 April than West Bengal Phase I. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: two-stage randomisation is done through EMS, and Tamil Nadu has 75,064 polling stations against 44,378 in West Bengal Phase I.
As per ECI instructions, distribution of Voter Information Slips must be completed at least how many days before polling day?
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Correct answer: C — 5 days
ECI says the process is to be completed at least 5 days before the day of poll.
Consider the following statements about Voter Information Slips (VIS) for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Voters with visual impairment receive Braille-enabled Accessible Voter Information Slips in addition to the regular VIS. 2. VIS may be printed in any language a voter requests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: ECI has instructed that VIS be only in the languages in which the electoral roll is published for that constituency.
In the 2026 Assembly elections, ECI flying squads are required to attend to complaints within:
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Correct answer: C — 100 minutes
Over 5,173 flying squads have been deployed to ensure complaints are attended to within 100 minutes.
The system used by the ECI to record seizures of illicit inducements in the 2026 elections is called:
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Correct answer: D — ESMS (Electronic Seizure Management System)
Seizures are tracked through the Electronic Seizure Management System (ESMS), activated on 26 February 2026.
Consider the following about seizures in the 2026 Assembly elections (as of 25 March 2026): 1. Total seizures crossed ₹400 crore. 2. Cash formed the largest part of the seizures. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Seizures totalled over ₹408.82 crore, but cash was only ₹17.44 crore – less than the ₹37.68 crore of liquor alone – so statement 2 is wrong.
Under which provision does the Election Commission allot free broadcast and telecast time on Doordarshan and AIR to recognised parties?
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Correct answer: B — Section 39A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
The ECI issued the directions under Section 39A of the RP Act, 1951, for the 2026 Assembly elections.
For the 2026 Assembly elections, what base broadcast time has the ECI allotted to each recognised party on both Doordarshan and All India Radio?
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Correct answer: C — 45 minutes
Each party gets a base time of 45 minutes on both Doordarshan and AIR, plus extra time based on its previous Assembly poll performance.
How many standardised Voter Facilitation Posters must be displayed at each polling station in the 2026 polls, as per the ECI's direction of 22 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Four
Four uniform Voter Facilitation Posters will show polling station details, list of candidates, do's and don'ts, approved ID documents and the voting process.
Consider the following about the ECI's directions of 22 March 2026 for polling stations: 1. Provision of Assured Minimum Facilities is advisory and left to the discretion of CEOs. 2. Voters can deposit their switched-off mobile phones with a volunteer outside the polling station entrance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The ECI said AMF provisioning is mandatory and will be monitored, so statement 1 is wrong; a mobile phone deposit facility will be provided outside the entrance.
Which State auctioned the most mineral blocks in FY 2025-26, when India auctioned a record 200 blocks?
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Correct answer: D — Gujarat
Gujarat led with 32 blocks, followed by Rajasthan (30) and Tamil Nadu (22).
Which mineral accounted for the largest number of blocks auctioned in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — Limestone
Limestone accounted for 76 blocks, the most auctioned mineral, followed by iron ore (40) and bauxite (30).
Consider the following about mineral block auctions in FY 2025-26: 1. A majority of the 200 auctioned blocks were Composite Licence blocks. 2. Tamil Nadu conducted mineral block auctions for the first time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: 123 of the 200 were Mining Lease blocks and 77 Composite Licence blocks. Statement 2 is correct.