TNPSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which Indian Standard must helmets for two-wheeler riders conform to under the Quality Control Order cited on 5 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — IS 4151:2015
Department of Consumer Affairs: a Quality Control Order in force since 2021 mandates ISI-marked helmets certified under BIS standards (IS 4151:2015).
How many manufacturers held valid BIS licences for protective helmets as of June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 176
Department of Consumer Affairs: as of June 2025, there are 176 manufacturers across India holding valid BIS licenses for protective helmets.
Wearing a helmet by two-wheeler riders is mandatory under which law, as cited by the Department of Consumer Affairs on 5 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
Department of Consumer Affairs: wearing a helmet is mandatory under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, but its effectiveness depends on quality.
What was the theme of the International Day of Cooperatives observed on 5 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Cooperatives: Driving Inclusive and Sustainable Solutions for a Better World
UN and ICA: CoopsDay 2025 was celebrated under the theme 'Cooperatives: Driving Inclusive and Sustainable Solutions for a Better World'. ('Cooperatives Build a Better World' is the theme of the International Year of Cooperatives 2025.)
Consider the following about the International Day of Cooperatives: 1. It is observed on the first Saturday of July every year. 2. It was officially recognised by the United Nations in 1995. 3. Its theme is chosen solely by the UN General Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (ICA). Statement 3 is wrong: the theme is selected jointly by the International Cooperative Alliance and COPAC.
Which player scored both of India's goals in the 2-1 win over Thailand on 5 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sangita Basfore
AIFF and Sportstar: Sangita Basfore's brace, one in each half, powered India past Thailand.
Which country will host the AFC Women's Asian Cup 2026, for which India qualified on 5 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Australia
AIFF: India sealed qualification for the AFC Women's Asian Cup Australia 2026.
Consider the following about India's qualification for the AFC Women's Asian Cup 2026: 1. India beat hosts Thailand 2-1 in Chiang Mai. 2. It was India's first win over Thailand. 3. The 2026 Asian Cup also serves as a qualifier for the FIFA Women's World Cup 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: the result and first win over Thailand (AIFF), and the Asian Cup's role as a qualifier for the FIFA Women's World Cup Brazil 2027 (Sportstar).
Which country did PM Modi visit immediately before arriving in Rio de Janeiro for the 17th BRICS Summit in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Argentina
PMO departure statement: the tour covered Ghana, Trinidad & Tobago, Argentina, Brazil and Namibia in that order, so Argentina came just before Brazil.
Which honour did Trinidad & Tobago confer on PM Narendra Modi on 4 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — The Order of the Republic of Trinidad & Tobago
PMO: the President of Trinidad & Tobago conferred upon PM Modi the highest national award, 'The Order of the Republic of Trinidad & Tobago'.
Who conferred 'The Order of the Republic of Trinidad & Tobago' on PM Modi on 4 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — President Christine Carla Kangaloo
PMO: in a special ceremony at the President's House in Port of Spain, President Christine Carla Kangaloo conferred the award.
While accepting the T&T award, PM Modi recalled that Indians arrived in Trinidad & Tobago how many years ago?
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Correct answer: D — 180 years
PMO: the special ties were based on shared history and cultural heritage forged by Indians who arrived in the country 180 years ago.
Consider the following about PM Modi's engagements in Trinidad & Tobago on 4 July 2025: 1. He was the first foreign leader to receive 'The Order of the Republic of Trinidad & Tobago'. 2. He was the first Indian Prime Minister to address the T&T Parliament. 3. He addressed the Parliament at the invitation of the T&T Prime Minister alone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (PMO). Statement 3 is wrong: he addressed the Joint Assembly at the invitation of Senate President Wade Mark and House Speaker Jagdeo Singh.
Which gift from India in the T&T Parliament did PM Modi cite as reflecting close ties between the two democracies?
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Correct answer: A — The Speaker's Chair
PMO: the close ties between the two democracies are aptly reflected in the Speaker's Chair gifted by India.
Up to which generation of the Indian diaspora in Trinidad & Tobago was the OCI card facility extended in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6th generation
PMO list of outcomes: extension of OCI card facility up to the 6th generation of Indian diaspora members in T&T; earlier it was available up to the 4th generation.
Which two India-led global initiatives did Trinidad & Tobago announce it was joining during PM Modi's visit in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — CDRI and Global Biofuel Alliance
PMO list of outcomes: T&T announced that it is joining India's global initiatives, the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) and the Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA).
At which university will two ICCR Chairs of Hindi and Indian Studies be re-established under an India–T&T MoU of July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — University of West Indies
PMO list of outcomes: MoU on the re-establishment of two ICCR Chairs of Hindi and Indian Studies at the University of West Indies (UWI), Trinidad and Tobago.
With effect from which date was the Unified Pension Scheme introduced as an option under NPS for Central Government civil service recruits?
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Correct answer: D — 1 April 2025
Ministry of Finance: DFS Notification dated 24.01.2025 introduced UPS as an option under NPS with effect from 1 April 2025 (01.04.2025).
Which body notified the regulations for operationalising the Unified Pension Scheme under NPS in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
Ministry of Finance: the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) notified the PFRDA (Operationalisation of the Unified Pension Scheme under NPS) Regulations, 2025 on 19 March 2025.
Why did the Government say NPS tax benefits apply mutatis mutandis to UPS (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Because UPS is an option under NPS
Ministry of Finance: the Government decided that tax benefits as available under NPS shall apply mutatis mutandis to UPS as it is an option under NPS.
On 4 July 2025, PM Modi paid tribute on his Punya Tithi to which figure, saying his thoughts remain 'our guiding light'?
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Correct answer: A — Swami Vivekananda
PMO: the Prime Minister paid tribute to Swami Vivekananda Ji on his Punya Tithi, saying his thoughts and vision for our society remain our guiding light.
On 3 July 2025, the DAC accorded AoN for 10 capital acquisition proposals worth approximately how much?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.05 lakh crore
MoD: the DAC accorded AoN for 10 capital acquisition proposals amounting to approx. ₹1.05 lakh crore through indigenous sourcing.
Under which procurement category were the AoNs of 3 July 2025 accorded?
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Correct answer: D — Buy (Indian-IDDM)
MoD: to provide impetus to indigenous design and development, AoNs were accorded under the Buy (Indian-IDDM) category — Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured.
Who chairs the Defence Acquisition Council, which accorded AoNs on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Raksha Mantri
MoD: the Defence Acquisition Council met under the chairmanship of Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh.
Consider the following items cleared by the DAC on 3 July 2025: 1. Mine Counter Measure Vessels 2. Submersible Autonomous Vessels 3. Super Rapid Gun Mount Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: MoD said AoNs were accorded for Moored Mines, Mine Counter Measure Vessels, Super Rapid Gun Mount and Submersible Autonomous Vessels.
PM Modi's State Visit to Trinidad & Tobago in July 2025 was the first bilateral visit by an Indian PM to that country since which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1999
PMO: this is the first bilateral visit by an Indian Prime Minister to T&T since 1999.
Who received PM Modi at the airport in Port of Spain on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Prime Minister Kamla Persad-Bissessar
PMO: in a special gesture, the Prime Minister of Trinidad & Tobago, Kamla Persad-Bissessar, received Prime Minister Modi at the airport along with members of her Cabinet.
In July 2025, Trinidad & Tobago was celebrating how many years of the first arrival of Indian immigrants?
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Correct answer: B — 180 years
PMO: the visit came at a time when the nation is celebrating 180 years of the first arrival of Indian immigrants on its shores.
On 3 July 2025, PM Narendra Modi became the first Indian Prime Minister to address the Parliament of which country?
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Correct answer: A — Ghana
PMO: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi addressed a special session of the Parliament of Ghana, becoming the first Indian Prime Minister to do so.
Who convened the special session of Ghana's Parliament addressed by PM Modi on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Speaker Alban Kingsford Sumana Bagbin
PMO: the session was convened by the Speaker of Parliament, Alban Kingsford Sumana Bagbin.
At the Nkrumah Memorial Park in Accra on 3 July 2025, PM Modi was accompanied by whom?
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Correct answer: B — Vice President Naana Jane Opoku-Agyemang
PMO: at the Nkrumah Memorial Park, Prime Minister was accompanied by the Vice President of Ghana, Prof. Naana Jane Opoku-Agyemang.
Consider the following about PM Modi's address to Ghana's Parliament (3 July 2025): 1. He quoted Dr. Kwame Nkrumah, Ghana's founding President. 2. He recalled that the African Union became a permanent member of the G20 during India's Presidency. 3. He thanked President John Dramani Mahama for the National Honour conferred on him. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct (PMO): he quoted Dr. Kwame Nkrumah, recalled the African Union's permanent G20 membership during India's Presidency, and thanked President Mahama and the people of Ghana for the National Honour.
According to NITI Aayog's chemical industry report (July 2025), what is India's current share in global chemical value chains?
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Correct answer: D — 3.5%
NITI Aayog: India's 3.5% share in global chemical value chains and its chemical trade deficit of USD 31 billion in 2023 underscore high import dependence.
NITI Aayog's report says India can achieve a USD 1 trillion chemical sector and 12% GVC share by which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2040
NITI Aayog: targeted reforms will enable India to have a USD 1 trillion chemical sector and achieve 12% GVC share by 2040.
What was India's chemical trade deficit in 2023 according to NITI Aayog's July 2025 report?
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Correct answer: A — USD 31 billion
NITI Aayog: heavy reliance on imported feedstock contributed to a USD 31 billion trade deficit in 2023.
How many Aadhaar authentication transactions were carried out in June 2025, according to UIDAI?
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Correct answer: C — 229.33 crore
UIDAI: Aadhaar number holders carried out 229.33 crore authentication transactions in June 2025.
What record did UIDAI's face authentication set in June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 15.87 crore transactions
UIDAI: in June 2025, a record number of 15.87 crore face authentication transactions were recorded, against 4.61 crore in June 2024.
Which national honour of Ghana was conferred on PM Narendra Modi on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Officer of the Order of the Star of Ghana
PMO: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi was conferred the national honour of Ghana - Officer of the Order of the Star of Ghana - by the President of Ghana.
Who conferred Ghana's national honour on PM Modi on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — President John Dramani Mahama
PMO: the honour was conferred by the President of Ghana, H.E. John Dramani Mahama.
Ghana's national honour was conferred on PM Modi (July 2025) in recognition of what?
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Correct answer: D — His distinguished statesmanship and influential global leadership
PMO: the honour was conferred in recognition of his distinguished statesmanship and influential global leadership.
Consider the following about PM Modi's acceptance of Ghana's national honour (2 July 2025): 1. He accepted it on behalf of 1.4 billion Indians. 2. He dedicated it to the aspirations of India's youth, its cultural traditions and diversity, and India–Ghana historical ties. 3. He received it during his address to Ghana's Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (PMO). Statement 3 is wrong: the honour was conferred on 2 July by President Mahama; the address to Ghana's Parliament took place the next day, 3 July.
To what level did India and Ghana elevate their relationship during PM Modi's visit on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Comprehensive Partnership
PMO: the two leaders agreed to elevate the relationship to a Comprehensive Partnership.
PM Modi's State Visit to Ghana in July 2025 was described by PMO as the first such visit in how long?
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Correct answer: A — Three decades
PMO: Prime Minister's visit to Ghana is the first such visit in the last three decades.
An India–Ghana MoU of July 2025 on traditional medicine was signed between Ghana's ITAM and which Indian institute?
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Correct answer: C — Institute of Teaching & Research in Ayurveda
PMO list of outcomes: MoU between the Institute of Traditional & Alternative Medicine (ITAM), Ghana and the Institute of Teaching & Research in Ayurveda (ITRA), India.
Consider the following about PM Modi's visit to Ghana (2 July 2025): 1. President John Dramani Mahama received him at the airport. 2. An MoU was signed between the Bureau of Indian Standards and the Ghana Standards Authority. 3. Modi thanked Mahama for taking care of the roughly 15,000-strong Indian community in Ghana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct (PMO): President Mahama received him at the airport, BIS and the Ghana Standards Authority signed an MoU, and Modi thanked Mahama for taking care of the 15,000-strong Indian community.
The draft amendments released on 2 July 2025 aim to allow more TV rating agencies besides which existing body?
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Correct answer: C — Broadcast Audience Research Council
I&B Ministry: the draft removes restrictive provisions to allow more players besides the current BARC (Broadcast Audience Research Council).
According to the I&B Ministry (July 2025), about how many people meters are used to capture TV viewership in India?
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Correct answer: D — 58,000
I&B Ministry: only about 58,000 people meters are presently used, representing just 0.025% of the roughly 230 million TV homes.
The Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies, proposed for amendment in July 2025, were originally issued in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 2014
I&B Ministry: the ministry proposed amendments to the Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies, originally issued in 2014.
The ICMR–NCDC studies on sudden unexplained deaths (July 2025) focused on adults of which age group?
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Correct answer: D — 18–45 years
Health Ministry: ICMR and NCDC worked to understand sudden unexplained deaths, especially in young adults between the ages of 18 and 45 years.
Which ICMR institute conducted the multicentric matched case–control study on sudden deaths across 47 hospitals in 19 states/UTs?
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Correct answer: A — National Institute of Epidemiology
Health Ministry: the first study, conducted by ICMR's National Institute of Epidemiology (NIE), was carried out from May to August 2023 across 47 tertiary care hospitals in 19 states and UTs.
According to Amit Shah (2 July 2025), the global drug cartel busted by NCB operated across how many continents?
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Correct answer: A — 4
MHA: the ring operates across 4 continents and 10+ nations; the probe resulted in 8 arrests and seizures of 5 consignments.
The National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development (NIPCCD) was renamed after whom in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Savitribai Phule
WCD Ministry: NIPCCD has officially been renamed as the Savitribai Phule National Institute of Women and Child Development.
What is the corpus of the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme approved on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1 lakh crore
Cabinet: the Cabinet approved the RDI Scheme with a corpus of ₹1 lakh crore.
Which department will serve as the nodal department for implementing the RDI Scheme?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Science and Technology
Cabinet: the Department of Science and Technology (DST) will serve as the nodal department for implementation of the RDI Scheme.
Who chairs the Governing Board of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), which gives strategic direction to the RDI Scheme?
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Correct answer: C — Prime Minister
Cabinet: the Governing Board of ANRF, chaired by the Prime Minister, will provide overarching strategic direction to the RDI Scheme.
What is the outlay of the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme approved by the Cabinet on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹99,446 crore
Cabinet: with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, the ELI Scheme aims to incentivize the creation of more than 3.5 crore jobs over 2 years.
Under Part A of the ELI Scheme, first-time employees get one month's EPF wage up to what amount?
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Correct answer: C — ₹15,000
Cabinet: Part A offers first-time employees registered with EPFO one-month EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments.
ELI Scheme benefits apply to jobs created during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2027
Cabinet: the benefits of the Scheme would be applicable to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.
Consider the following about the ELI Scheme (July 2025): 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25 as part of the PM's package of five schemes. 2. For the manufacturing sector, employer incentives extend to the third and fourth years. 3. Employers get up to ₹15,000 per month for each additional employee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (Cabinet). Statement 3 is wrong: employers get up to ₹3,000 per month per additional employee; ₹15,000 is the cap on the one-month EPF wage for first-time employees.
The National Sports Policy 2025, approved on 1 July 2025, supersedes the National Sports Policy of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2001
Cabinet: the new policy supersedes the existing National Sports Policy, 2001.
How many key pillars is the National Sports Policy 2025 anchored on?
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Correct answer: D — Five
Cabinet: the policy is anchored on five key pillars.
Which Olympic Games does the National Sports Policy 2025 specifically mention as a target for excellence?
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Correct answer: A — 2036 Olympic Games
Cabinet: NSP 2025 lays out a roadmap to make India a strong contender at international events, including the 2036 Olympic Games.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five pillars of the National Sports Policy 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Sports for Defence Preparedness
Cabinet: the five pillars are Excellence on the Global Stage, Sports for Economic Development, Sports for Social Development, Sports as a People's Movement, and Integration with Education (NEP 2020); Sports for Defence Preparedness is not a pillar.
Where was INS Tamal commissioned on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Yantar Shipyard, Kaliningrad
Indian Navy: INS Tamal (F 71) was commissioned on 01 Jul 2025 at Yantar Shipyard, Kaliningrad, Russia.
INS Tamal is the second ship of which class of frigates?
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Correct answer: B — Tushil class
Indian Navy: INS Tamal is the eighth multi-role stealth frigate of Project 1135.6 and the second of the additional follow-on Tushil class of ships.
What share of indigenous components does INS Tamal have, according to the Navy (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 26%
Indian Navy: though built in Russia, the ship has 26% indigenous components, including the BrahMos long-range cruise missile and HUMSA-NG sonar system.
On which date was the Digital India programme launched, completing ten years on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1 July 2015
MyGov/Indian Express: Digital India was launched by PM Narendra Modi on 1 July 2015 and turned 10 on 1 July 2025.
Digital India's stated vision, as recalled on its tenth anniversary, is to transform India into what?
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Correct answer: D — A digitally empowered society and knowledge economy
Indian Express: Digital India was launched with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
What was India's record gross GST collection in 2024–25, as GST completed eight years?
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Correct answer: B — ₹22.08 lakh crore
PIB: in 2024–25, gross GST collections hit a record ₹22.08 lakh crore, marking a year-on-year growth of 9.4%.
Under which Article of the Constitution was the GST Council constituted?
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Correct answer: D — Article 279A
PIB: the GST Council was constituted as per Article 279A of the Constitution and is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
Who chairs the GST Council?
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Correct answer: A — Union Finance Minister
PIB: the GST Council consists of the Union Finance Minister (Chairperson), the Union MoS in charge of Revenue or Finance, and state Finance/Taxation Ministers.
The 4-lane Paramakudi–Ramanathapuram section approved by the Cabinet on 1 July 2025 is part of which National Highway?
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Correct answer: D — NH-87
Cabinet: the project will upgrade approximately 46.7 km of NH-87 from Paramakudi to Ramanathapuram to a 4-lane configuration.
Under which mode will the Paramakudi–Ramanathapuram NH-87 section be developed?
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Correct answer: B — Hybrid Annuity Mode
Cabinet: the project will be developed on Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM) at a total capital cost of ₹1,853 crore.
By how much per km did AC class fares rise under the railway fare rationalisation effective 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2 paise
Ministry of Railways/Indian Express: AC classes saw an increase of 02 paisa per passenger-km, Mail/Express non-AC classes one paisa per km.
Under the 1 July 2025 fare rationalisation, Second Class Ordinary fares saw no increase up to what distance?
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Correct answer: D — 500 km
Ministry of Railways: there was no increase in fare of Second Class Ordinary up to 500 km, and thereafter an increase of half paisa per km.
Consider the following about the railway fare rationalisation of 1 July 2025: 1. Suburban fares and season tickets were not increased. 2. Mail/Express non-AC classes rose by 1 paisa per km. 3. Tickets booked before 1 July 2025 were charged the revised fare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: India Today/Indian Express report revised fares apply to tickets booked on or after 1 July 2025; earlier tickets stayed at the old fare.
National Doctors' Day, observed on 1 July, honours which physician who was the second Chief Minister of West Bengal?
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Correct answer: B — Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy
NDTV/The Federal: National Doctors' Day marks the birth anniversary of Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy, renowned physician and second Chief Minister of West Bengal, born on 1 July 1882.
SECI announced on 1 July 2025 that it had executed Power Sale Agreements for over how much renewable energy capacity?
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Correct answer: C — 60 GW
MNRE: SECI has achieved the milestone of executing over 60 Gigawatts (GW) of Power Sale Agreements of renewable energy capacity.
The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI), which RBI asked banks to integrate on 30 June 2025, was developed by which body?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Telecommunications
PIB: RBI's advisory of 30 June 2025 directs banks to integrate the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
Into which risk categories does the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator classify a mobile number?
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Correct answer: C — Medium, High, Very High
PIB: the FRI classifies a mobile number as associated with Medium, High or Very High risk of financial fraud.
Consider the following about the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI): 1. It was launched in May 2025 by DoT's Digital Intelligence Unit. 2. RBI's advisory of 30 June 2025 excludes Co-operative Banks. 3. It is built only on data from DoT's Chakshu platform. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct (PIB). Statement 2 is wrong: the advisory covers Scheduled Commercial, Small Finance, Payments and Co-operative Banks. Statement 3 is wrong: inputs also come from I4C's NCRP and from banks and financial institutions.