State Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to the AAIB preliminary report on AI171, what happened to both engines' fuel cutoff switches immediately after the aircraft reached 180 knots?
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Correct answer: B — They moved from RUN to CUTOFF one after another, one second apart
AAIB preliminary report: immediately after 180 knots IAS at about 08:08:42 UTC, the Engine 1 and Engine 2 fuel cutoff switches transitioned from RUN to CUTOFF one after another with a time gap of 01 sec.
Air India flight AI171, which crashed at Ahmedabad on 12 June 2025, was bound for which airport?
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Correct answer: D — London Gatwick
AAIB preliminary report: the aircraft was operating Flight AI171 from Ahmedabad to Gatwick; intended landing place London Gatwick Airport (EGKK).
Consider the following statements about the AAIB preliminary report on AI171: 1. Fuel samples taken from the bowsers and tanks used to refuel the aircraft were found satisfactory at the DGCA lab. 2. The report issued immediate recommended actions to all B787-8 operators. 3. Significant bird activity was observed in the vicinity of the flight path. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The report says there are no recommended actions at this stage to B787-8 and/or GE GEnx-1B operators and manufacturers, and that no significant bird activity was observed.
The AAIB preliminary report on AI171 states that it was prepared in accordance with which Annex to the Convention on International Civil Aviation?
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Correct answer: C — Annex 13
AAIB preliminary report foreword: prepared in accordance with Annex 13 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation; the initial notification was also sent as per ICAO Annex 13.
Which agency represented the State of Design and Manufacture in the AI171 investigation, according to the AAIB preliminary report?
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Correct answer: A — National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB), USA
AAIB preliminary report: the initial notification was sent to the NTSB, USA, which represented the State of Design & Manufacture; NTSB appointed an Accredited Representative with advisers from Boeing, GE and the FAA.
In how many railway coaches did the Railway Minister approve installation of CCTV cameras on 12 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — All 74,000 coaches
Ministry of Railways: the Minister gave the go-ahead to install CCTV cameras in all 74,000 coaches and 15,000 locos.
Consider the following statements about the Railways' CCTV plan (July 2025): 1. Cameras will be installed inside berths and seating bays for full coverage. 2. Each locomotive will have 6 CCTV cameras. 3. Successful trials were done in locomotives and coaches of the Northern Railway. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is wrong: to preserve privacy, cameras will be installed in the common movement area near the doors.
How many dome-type CCTV cameras will each railway coach have under the plan approved in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 4
Ministry of Railways: each railway coach will be covered with 4 dome-type CCTV cameras, 2 in each entrance way.
How many appointment letters did PM Narendra Modi distribute at the Rozgar Mela on 12 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — More than 51,000
PMO: the Prime Minister distributed more than 51,000 appointment letters to newly appointed youth via videoconferencing.
Which edition of the Rozgar Mela was held on 12 July 2025, and at how many locations?
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Correct answer: C — 16th; 47 locations
PMO background: the 16th Rozgar Mela will be held at 47 locations across the country.
At the Rozgar Mela on 12 July 2025, the PM said approximately what budget has been allocated for the Employment Linked Incentive Scheme?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1 lakh crore
PMO: 'Recently, the government has approved a new scheme called the Employment Linked Incentive Scheme. For this, the government has allocated a budget of approximately ₹1 lakh crore.'
What is the title of the WHO technical brief, highlighted by the Ayush Ministry on 12 July 2025, that featured India's Ayush innovations?
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Correct answer: C — Mapping the Application of Artificial Intelligence in Traditional Medicine
Ministry of Ayush: WHO has released a technical brief titled 'Mapping the Application of Artificial Intelligence in Traditional Medicine'.
According to the WHO brief cited by the Ayush Ministry in July 2025, India was the first country to launch which of the following?
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Correct answer: A — Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL)
Ministry of Ayush release headline: 'India first country to launch a Traditional Knowledge Digital Library: WHO'.
What size of India's Ayush market does the WHO brief note, as per the Ayush Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — US$43.4 billion
Ministry of Ayush: 'Ayush Sector Fuels Economic Growth: WHO Notes India's US$43.4 Billion Market'.
From which date will beneficiary registration under Poshan 2.0 use biometric authentication, as announced at the Kevadia zonal meeting on 12 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1 August
Ministry of WCD: from 1st August the beneficiary registration will be done using biometric authentication.
Which of the following States did NOT take part in the WCD Ministry's zonal meeting at Kevadia on 12 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Karnataka
Ministry of WCD: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Goa participated; Karnataka was not listed.
Whom did Iga Swiatek defeat 6-0, 6-0 in the Wimbledon 2025 women's singles final on 12 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Amanda Anisimova
AP, Reuters, BBC: Iga Swiatek beat American Amanda Anisimova 6-0, 6-0 to win her first Wimbledon title.
The Wimbledon 2025 title was which Grand Slam singles title of Iga Swiatek's career?
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Correct answer: B — Sixth
AP and Reuters: the win delivered Swiatek's first Wimbledon title and sixth Grand Slam (major) title.
With the inscription of the 'Maratha Military Landscapes of India' on 11 July 2025, how many World Heritage properties does India have?
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Correct answer: A — 44
UNESCO and Ministry of Culture: the inscription made it India's 44th World Heritage property.
Which component of the 'Maratha Military Landscapes of India' is located in Tamil Nadu?
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Correct answer: C — Gingee Fort
Ministry of Culture and UNESCO: 11 forts are in Maharashtra, along with Gingee Fort in Tamil Nadu.
Consider the following statements about the 'Maratha Military Landscapes of India': 1. They were inscribed at the 47th session of the World Heritage Committee in Paris. 2. They were inscribed under criteria (iv) and (vi). 3. The property comprises 12 forts, 11 of which are in Maharashtra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per UNESCO Decision 47 COM 8B.16 and the Ministry of Culture.
Which of the following forts in the 'Maratha Military Landscapes of India' is classified as an island fort?
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Correct answer: B — Khanderi
Ministry of Culture: Khanderi, Suvarnadurg and Sindhudurg, surrounded by the sea, are island forts; Raigad is a hill fort, Panhala a hill-plateau fort and Pratapgad a hill-forest fort.
Which UNESCO advisory body sent a mission to review the sites of the 'Maratha Military Landscapes of India' before the inscription?
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Correct answer: A — ICOMOS
Ministry of Culture: the 18-month process involved technical meetings with the advisory bodies and a visit of ICOMOS's mission to review the sites.
From which aircraft was the Astra BVRAAM with an indigenous RF seeker flight-tested on 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Su-30 Mk-I
MoD: DRDO and IAF flight-tested Astra with indigenous RF seeker from the Su-30 Mk-I platform off the coast of Odisha.
What was the key indigenous component validated in the Astra flight-tests of 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Radio Frequency (RF) seeker
MoD: the tests validated Astra equipped with an indigenous Radio Frequency (RF) Seeker designed and developed by DRDO.
What is the range of the Astra BVRAAM, as stated by the Ministry of Defence in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Exceeding 100 km
MoD: Astra BVRAAM has a range exceeding 100 km.
The flight data of the Astra tests on 11 July 2025 was captured by range tracking instruments of which facility?
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Correct answer: A — Integrated Test Range, Chandipur
MoD: the performance was validated through flight data captured by range tracking instruments deployed by the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur, Odisha.
At the Yamuna rejuvenation review on 11 July 2025, Amit Shah directed that STP capacity for the Yamuna be raised to what level by 2028?
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Correct answer: D — 1,500 MGD
MHA: the Home Minister directed to increase the capacity of STPs for the Yamuna to 1,500 MGD by 2028.
Which body was the Delhi Government asked to work with to manage waste from dairies and cow shelters, at the Yamuna review of 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)
MHA: the Delhi government should work with the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) to manage waste generated from dairies and cow shelters.
Treated water from which Delhi sewage treatment plant is to be released downstream of the Yamuna, as directed on 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Okhla
MHA: treated water from Okhla should be released into the downstream of Yamuna to improve the water quality of the river.
Under the DoT's Sanchar Mitra Scheme, who serve as 'Sanchar Mitras'?
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Correct answer: C — Student volunteers acting as digital ambassadors
DoT: Sanchar Mitras are student volunteers who act as digital ambassadors to lead digital literacy and telecom awareness.
In the first outreach programme of the Sanchar Mitra Scheme on 11 July 2025, the Assam LSA partnered with how many engineering colleges?
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Correct answer: A — 18
DoT: in the first outreach programme, Assam LSA partnered with 18 prominent engineering colleges across the state.
What is the maximum incentive per vehicle under the e-truck scheme launched under PM E-DRIVE on 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹9.6 lakh
Ministry of Heavy Industries: the incentive depends on GVW, with the maximum set at ₹9.6 lakh per vehicle.
Approximately how many electric trucks is the PM E-DRIVE e-truck scheme expected to support?
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Correct answer: A — 5,600
Ministry of Heavy Industries: the scheme is expected to support the deployment of approximately 5,600 e-trucks across the country.
Consider the following statements about the e-truck incentive scheme (July 2025): 1. N2 category covers trucks with GVW above 3.5 tonnes and up to 12 tonnes. 2. N3 category covers trucks with GVW above 12 tonnes and up to 55 tonnes. 3. The battery must carry a warranty of three years or 3 lakh km. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the CMVR categories cited by the Ministry. Statement 3 is wrong: the battery warranty must be five years or 5 lakh km, whichever is earlier.
The meeting on boosting cotton productivity chaired by Shivraj Singh Chouhan on 11 July 2025 was held at which institute?
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Correct answer: D — ICAR–Sugarcane Breeding Institute, Coimbatore
Agriculture Ministry: the meeting was convened at the ICAR–Sugarcane Breeding Institute in Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu.
Which Union Minister of Textiles took part in the cotton productivity meeting in Coimbatore on 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Giriraj Singh
Agriculture Ministry: Union Minister of Textiles Shri Giriraj Singh was present.
What is the title of the whitepaper on quantum-safe cybersecurity launched by MeitY on 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Transitioning to Quantum Cyber Readiness
MeitY: MeitY, CERT-In and SISA jointly launched a whitepaper titled 'Transitioning to Quantum Cyber Readiness'.
Along with MeitY, which two entities jointly launched the 'Transitioning to Quantum Cyber Readiness' whitepaper?
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Correct answer: B — CERT-In and SISA
MeitY: the Ministry, the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) and cybersecurity firm SISA jointly launched the whitepaper.
Where was the 27th meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council held on 10 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ranchi
MHA: Amit Shah chaired the 27th meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council in Ranchi, Jharkhand.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Eastern Zonal Council comprises Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal. 2. Zonal Councils were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. 3. The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of all five Zonal Councils. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per the MHA release: the Council comprises the four states; the five Zonal Councils were set up under Sections 15 to 22 of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956; and the Union Home Minister chairs them.
According to Amit Shah at the Eastern Zonal Council meeting of July 2025, what share of issues discussed at Zonal Council meetings had been resolved?
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Correct answer: C — About 83%
MHA: of 1,580 issues discussed, 1,287 (about 83%) had been resolved.
Who serves as the Vice-Chairman of a Zonal Council?
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Correct answer: B — The Chief Minister of one of the member States, by rotation
MHA: the Chief Minister of one State from the member States is the Vice-Chairman by rotation; the Union Home Minister is the Chairman.
Which body organised the 27th meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council along with the Government of Jharkhand?
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Correct answer: A — Inter State Council Secretariat, Ministry of Home Affairs
MHA: the meeting was organised by the Inter State Council Secretariat under the Ministry of Home Affairs in collaboration with the Government of Jharkhand.
The Aadi Karmayogi mission of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs aims to build a cadre of how many tribal change leaders?
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Correct answer: C — 20 lakh
Ministry of Tribal Affairs: the initiative aims to build a dynamic cadre of 20 lakh tribal grassroots functionaries and village-level change leaders.
Where was the first Regional Process Lab of the Aadi Karmayogi mission launched on 10 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bengaluru
Ministry of Tribal Affairs: the first RPL was hosted in Bengaluru.
Consider the following about the first Aadi Karmayogi Regional Process Lab (July 2025): 1. It was launched on Guru Purnima. 2. It trains State Master Trainers from Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. 3. It is run by the Ministry of Rural Development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Aadi Karmayogi is a mission of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
What is the title of the NITI Aayog report released on 10 July 2025 on state-level science bodies?
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Correct answer: C — A Roadmap for Strengthening State S&T Councils
NITI Aayog: it released the strategic report titled 'A Roadmap for Strengthening State S&T Councils'.
Who officially launched NITI Aayog's 'A Roadmap for Strengthening State S&T Councils' on 10 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Suman Bery
NITI Aayog: the report was officially launched by Shri Suman Bery, Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog, with Dr Jitendra Singh as Chief Guest.
What does the Machine Vision Based Inspection System (MVIS), covered by the Railways–DFCCIL MoU of July 2025, do?
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Correct answer: A — Captures images of the under-gear of moving trains and flags hanging, loose or missing parts
Ministry of Railways: MVIS is an AI/ML-based wayside system that captures high-resolution images of the under-gear of moving trains and automatically detects hanging, loose or missing components.
With which organisation did Indian Railways sign the MoU for installing MVIS in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — DFCCIL
Ministry of Railways: the MoU was signed with the Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Limited (DFCCIL).
Under the Railways–DFCCIL MoU of July 2025, how many MVIS units will DFCCIL procure, install and commission?
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Correct answer: C — Four
Ministry of Railways: DFCCIL will be responsible for the procurement, supply, installation, testing and commissioning of four MVIS units.
What total amount did the Centre approve on 10 July 2025 for six flood- and landslide-affected states as the Central share of SDRF?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,066.80 crore
MHA: the Central Government approved the release of ₹1,066.80 crore to Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Kerala and Uttarakhand.
Which state received the largest share in the SDRF release of 10 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uttarakhand
MHA: Uttarakhand received ₹455.60 crore, followed by Assam with ₹375.60 crore.
The ₹1,066.80 crore released to six states on 10 July 2025 was given from which fund?
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Correct answer: D — Central share of the State Disaster Response Fund
MHA: the amounts were released as the Central share from the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF).
Scientists of which institute studied Karewa leaf fossils to reconstruct Kashmir's ancient climate (reported July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences, Lucknow
DST: researchers from the Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences (BSIP), Lucknow, carried out the study.
The BSIP study linked the change in Kashmir's climate to the uplift of which mountain range, which blocked the summer monsoon?
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Correct answer: A — Pir Panjal Range
DST: the researchers linked the shift to the tectonic uplift of the Pir Panjal Range, which blocked the Indian summer monsoon from reaching the valley.
Which method did the BSIP scientists use to estimate past temperature and rainfall from the shape, size and margins of fossil leaves?
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Correct answer: B — CLAMP (Climate Leaf Analysis Multivariate Program)
DST: using CLAMP, the scientists examined the shape, size and margins of fossil leaves to determine temperature and rainfall patterns, cross-checked with the coexistence approach.
Japan's Ambassador Keiichi Ono led a delegation of Japanese companies on 10 July 2025 to which industrial city?
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Correct answer: A — Dholera Special Investment Region, Gujarat
Commerce Ministry: the Ambassador of Japan led a high-level delegation to the Dholera Special Investment Region (SIR), with the site visit on 10 July 2025.
Dholera SIR is a greenfield smart industrial city developed under which industrial corridor?
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Correct answer: B — Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor
Commerce Ministry: Dholera SIR is India's greenfield smart industrial city under the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC).
Which honour was conferred on PM Narendra Modi by Namibia on 9 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Order of the Most Ancient Welwitschia Mirabilis
PMO: President Netumbo Nandi-Ndaitwah conferred on the PM Namibia's highest civilian award, the Order of the Most Ancient Welwitschia Mirabilis.
During PM Modi's visit in July 2025, Namibia became the first country globally to do which of the following?
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Correct answer: C — Sign a licensing agreement to adopt UPI technology
PMO (List of Outcomes): Namibia becomes the first country globally to sign a licensing agreement to adopt UPI technology.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's visit to Namibia (9 July 2025): 1. It was the first visit by an Indian Prime Minister to Namibia in 27 years. 2. It was the first bilateral State Visit hosted by President Nandi-Ndaitwah after she took office. 3. Namibia joined the International Big Cat Alliance during the visit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the PMO. Statement 3 is wrong: the PM invited Namibia to join the International Big Cat Alliance; Namibia joined CDRI and the Global Biofuels Alliance.
Which national honour did Ghana confer on PM Narendra Modi during his July 2025 tour?
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Correct answer: D — Officer of the Order of the Star of Ghana
PMO: President John Dramani Mahama conferred the national honour of Ghana — Officer of the Order of the Star of Ghana. The other two listed honours were conferred by Brazil and Trinidad & Tobago.
During PM Modi's visit in July 2025, Namibia submitted letters of acceptance to join which two India-backed initiatives?
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Correct answer: A — CDRI and Global Biofuels Alliance
PMO (List of Outcomes): Namibia submitted letters of acceptance for joining the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) and the Global Biofuels Alliance.
The Gambhira bridge that collapsed in Vadodara district on 9 July 2025 was built over which river?
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Correct answer: B — Mahisagar
The Hindu and The Indian Express: a slab of the Gambhira bridge over the Mahisagar river collapsed, and vehicles fell into the river.
What ex-gratia did the Prime Minister announce from PMNRF for the next of kin of each person who died in the Vadodara bridge collapse?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2 lakh
PMO: an ex-gratia of ₹2 lakh from PMNRF to the next of kin of each deceased and ₹50,000 to the injured.
The Gambhira bridge in Vadodara district, which collapsed on 9 July 2025, was a key road link between central Gujarat and which region?
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Correct answer: C — Saurashtra
The Hindu and The Indian Express: the bridge is a key connector between central Gujarat and the Saurashtra region.
In which district has the foundation stone of 'Tribhuvan' Sahkari University been laid, as mentioned by Amit Shah at the Sahkar Samvad (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Anand
Ministry of Cooperation: the foundation stone of 'Tribhuvan' Sahkari University has been laid in Anand district in the name of Tribhuvandas Patel.
The 'Sahkar Samvad' held by Amit Shah in Ahmedabad on 9 July 2025 was part of programmes for which observance?
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Correct answer: A — International Year of Cooperatives 2025
Ministry of Cooperation: the Sahkar Samvad was held as part of the programmes being organised under the International Year of Cooperatives 2025.
Women cooperative workers from which three states took part in the Sahkar Samvad with Amit Shah on 9 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
Ministry of Cooperation and IANS: the Sahkar Samvad was with women associated with the cooperative sectors of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Under which section of the Income-tax Act, 1961 were IREDA bonds notified as a 'long-term specified asset' in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Section 54EC
MNRE: CBDT notified IREDA bonds as 'long-term specified asset' under section 54EC of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Up to what amount of long-term capital gains in a financial year can investors save tax on by investing in the notified IREDA 54EC bonds?
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Correct answer: A — ₹50 lakh
MNRE: eligible investors can save tax on long-term capital gains up to ₹50 lakh by investing in these bonds in a financial year.
Consider the following statements about the IREDA 54EC bonds notified in July 2025: 1. The notification was issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes. 2. Only bonds redeemable after five years qualify. 3. The proceeds can be used for any infrastructure project, including highways. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the proceeds will be used exclusively for renewable energy projects that can service debt from their project revenues.
The meeting convened by C R Patil with the Chief Ministers of Punjab and Haryana on 9 July 2025 concerned which issue?
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Correct answer: A — Sutlej-Yamuna Link canal
Jal Shakti Ministry: the meeting addressed the long-standing Sutlej-Yamuna Link (SYL) Canal issue.
At the SYL meeting of 9 July 2025, when was it agreed that the Chief Ministers would meet the Jal Shakti Minister again?
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Correct answer: B — Early August 2025
Jal Shakti Ministry: it was mutually agreed that the Chief Ministers will reconvene with the Union Minister of Jal Shakti in early August.
Which two Chief Ministers took part in the SYL canal meeting with the Jal Shakti Minister on 9 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bhagwant Singh Mann and Nayab Singh Saini
Jal Shakti Ministry: the meeting was with Punjab CM Bhagwant Singh Mann and Haryana CM Nayab Singh Saini.
Where was the 9th OPEC International Seminar, addressed by Hardeep Singh Puri on 9 July 2025, held?
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Correct answer: D — Vienna
MoPNG: Shri Puri addressed the 9th OPEC International Seminar in Vienna, Austria.
According to Hardeep Singh Puri at the OPEC seminar in July 2025, how much area has India opened for exploration under OALP Round-10?
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Correct answer: C — 2.5 lakh sq km
MoPNG: the Minister outlined India's momentum to explore by opening 2.5 lakh sq km under OALP Round-10.
What exploration-acreage target for 2030 did Hardeep Singh Puri state at the 9th OPEC International Seminar?
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Correct answer: A — 1.0 million sq km
MoPNG: 'Our aim is to increase exploration acreage to 0.5 million sq km by 2025 and 1.0 million sq km by 2030.'
How many appointments had Railway Recruitment Boards issued in the first quarter of 2025-26, according to the Ministry of Railways (9 July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — More than 9,000
Ministry of Railways: more than 9,000 appointments have already been issued by RRBs in the first quarter of this financial year.
How many appointments do RRBs expect to offer in financial year 2025-26, as per the Ministry of Railways?
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Correct answer: A — More than 50,000
Ministry of Railways: the CBTs conducted will enable RRBs to offer appointments to more than 50,000 candidates in 2025-26.
At which shipyard was the keel of the Indian Navy's third Fleet Support Ship laid on 9 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli
MoD: the keel laying ceremony of the third FSS was held at M/s L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli, on 9 July 2025.
How many Fleet Support Ships did the Indian Navy contract from Hindustan Shipyard Limited in August 2023?
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Correct answer: C — Five
MoD: the Indian Navy signed a contract with HSL for acquisition of five Fleet Support Ships in August 2023, with deliveries commencing mid-2027.
The 'Aspirational DMF Programme' launched by the Ministry of Mines on 9 July 2025 converges District Mineral Foundation initiatives with which programmes?
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Correct answer: D — Aspirational District Programme and Aspirational Block Programme
Ministry of Mines: the guidelines are for the convergence of DMF initiatives with the Aspirational District Programme (ADP) and Aspirational Block Programme (ABP).
Consider the following statements about District Mineral Foundations (DMFs): 1. Their establishment in mining-affected districts was mandated by the 2015 amendment of the MMDR Act. 2. Mining companies contribute between 10 and 30 percent of their royalty to DMFs. 3. DMFs have so far been set up in all 36 States and UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct per the Ministry of Mines. Statement 3 is wrong: DMFs have been set up in 646 districts across 23 mining states.
Which honour did Brazil confer on PM Narendra Modi during his State Visit in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — The Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross
PMO: President Lula conferred Brazil's highest national honour, 'The Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross'.
The India–Brazil Joint Statement of July 2025 set a roadmap around five priority pillars. Consider: 1. Defence and security 2. Food and nutritional security 3. Space exploration and human spaceflight Which of the above are among the five pillars?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Joint Statement: the five pillars are defence and security; food and nutritional security; energy transition and climate change; digital transformation and emerging technologies; industrial partnerships in strategic areas. Space exploration is not one of them.
In which year was the India–Brazil relationship elevated to a Strategic Partnership?
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Correct answer: A — 2006
India–Brazil Joint Statement (July 2025): the relationship was elevated to Strategic Partnership in 2006.
During PM Modi's State Visit to Brazil (July 2025), an MoU on agricultural research was signed between ICAR and which Brazilian body?
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Correct answer: D — EMBRAPA
List of Outcomes: MoU on Agricultural Research between EMBRAPA and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
Which new mechanism was announced during PM Modi's State Visit to Brazil in July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — A ministerial-level mechanism for monitoring trade, commerce and investment
List of Outcomes: establishment of a ministerial-level mechanism for monitoring trade, commerce and investment.